House Journal 90th Day Thursday April 7 2022

APPROPRIATIONS

Available for the Year

Ending June 30

A quorum was present.

Daniels was excused.

Urdahl was excused until 12:20 p.m.

The Chief Clerk proceeded to read the Journals of the preceding days. There being no objection, further reading of the Journals was dispensed with and the Journals were approved as corrected by the Chief Clerk.

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REPORTS OF STANDING COMMITTEES AND DIVISIONS

Moran from the Committee on Ways and Means to which was referred:

H. F. No. 961, A bill for an act relating to labor; adding a supervisory law enforcement unit; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 179A.10, subdivisions 2, 3.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 3, line 6, before "Until" insert "(a)"

Page 3, after line 16, insert:

"(b) In assigning positions included in the law enforcement supervisors unit, employees in positions under paragraph (a), clause (2), shall have the right to remain in the general supervisory employees unit represented by the Middle Management Association. If a group of employees exercises this right, the appropriate unit for such employees shall be the general supervisory employees unit represented by the Middle Management Association, and the commissioner shall assign them to such unit.

Sec. 4. APPROPRIATION.

$128,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the general fund to the commissioner of management and budget for the purposes of implementing the new law enforcement supervisors unit under Minnesota Statutes, section 179A.10, subdivision 2, clause (18). The base for this appropriation in fiscal year 2024 and beyond is $24,000."

Amend the title as follows:

Page 1, line 2, before the second semicolon, insert "; appropriating money"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Becker-Finn from the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law to which was referred:

H. F. No. 1404, A bill for an act relating to data practices; modifying certain government data practices provisions; classifying certain data; reestablishing the Legislative Commission on Data Practices; requiring certifying entities to timely process visa certification documents; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 13.32, subdivision 3; 13.7931, by adding a subdivision; 13.824, subdivision 6; 13.825, subdivision 9; 13.856, subdivision 3; 144.225, subdivision 7; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 3; 84; 611A.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

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Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"ARTICLE 1

GOVERNMENT DATA PRACTICES AND PRIVACY

Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 5B.02, is amended to read:

5B.02 DEFINITIONS.

(a) For purposes of this chapter and unless the context clearly requires otherwise, the definitions in this section have the meanings given them.

(b) "Address" means an individual's work address, school address, or residential street address, as specified on the individual's application to be a program participant under this chapter.

(c) "Applicant" means an adult, a parent or guardian acting on behalf of an eligible minor, or a guardian acting on behalf of an incapacitated person, as defined in section 524.5-102.

(d) "Domestic violence" means an act as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), and includes a threat of such acts committed against an individual in a domestic situation, regardless of whether these acts or threats have been reported to law enforcement officers.

(e) "Eligible person" means an adult, a minor, or an incapacitated person, as defined in section 524.5-102 for whom there is good reason to believe (1) that the eligible person is a victim of domestic violence, sexual assault, or harassment or stalking, or (2) that the eligible person fears for the person's safety, the safety of another person who resides in the same household, or the safety of persons on whose behalf the application is made. An individual must reside in Minnesota in order to be an eligible person. A person registered or required to register as a predatory offender under section 243.166 or 243.167, or the law of another jurisdiction, is not an eligible person.

(f) "Mail" means first class letters and flats delivered via the United States Postal Service, including priority, express, and certified mail, and excluding ~~packages, parcels,~~ (1) periodicals, and catalogues, and (2) packages and parcels unless they are clearly identifiable as nonrefrigerated pharmaceuticals or clearly indicate that they are sent by the federal government or a state or county government agency of the continental United States, Hawaii, District of Columbia, or United States territories.

(g) "Program participant" means an individual certified as a program participant under section 5B.03.

(h) "Harassment" or "stalking" means acts criminalized under section 609.749 and includes a threat of such acts committed against an individual, regardless of whether these acts or threats have been reported to law enforcement officers.

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 5B.05, is amended to read:

5B.05 USE OF DESIGNATED ADDRESS.

(a) When a program participant presents the address designated by the secretary of state to any person or entity, that address must be accepted as the address of the program participant. The person may not require the program participant to submit any address that could be used to physically locate the participant either as a substitute or in addition to the designated address, or as a condition of receiving a service or benefit, unless the service or benefit would be impossible to provide without knowledge of the program participant's physical location. Notwithstanding a person's or entity's knowledge of a program participant's physical location, the person or entity must use the program participant's designated address for all mail correspondence with the program participant.

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(b) A program participant may use the address designated by the secretary of state as the program participant's work address.

(c) The Office of the Secretary of State shall forward all mail sent to the designated address to the proper program participants.

(d) If a program participant has notified a person in writing, on a form prescribed by the program, that the individual is a program participant and of the requirements of this section, the person must not knowingly disclose the participant's name or address identified by the participant on the notice. If identified on the notice, the individual receiving the notice must not knowingly disclose the program participant's name, home address, work address, or school address, unless the person to whom the address is disclosed also lives, works, or goes to school at the address disclosed, or the participant has provided written consent to disclosure of the participant's name, home address, work address, or school address for the purpose for which the disclosure will be made. This paragraph applies to the actions and reports of guardians ad litem, except that guardians ad litem may disclose the program participant's name. This paragraph does not apply to records of the judicial branch governed by rules adopted by the supreme court or government entities governed by section 13.045.

Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 5B.10, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Display by landlord. If a program participant has notified the program participant's landlord in writing that the individual is a program participant and of the requirements of this section, a local ordinance ~~or the landlord~~ must not require the display of, and the landlord shall not display, the program participant's name at an address otherwise protected under this chapter.

Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.045, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Definitions. As used in this section:

(1) "program participant" has the meaning given in section 5B.02, paragraph (g);

(2) "location data" means ~~any~~ data the participant specifies that may be used to physically locate a program participant, ~~including but not limited to~~ such as the program participant's residential address, work address, ~~and~~ or school address, and that is collected, received, or maintained by a government entity prior to the date a program participant's certification expires, or the date the entity receives notice that the program participant has withdrawn from the program, whichever is earlier;

(3) "identity data" means data that may be used to identify a program participant, including the program participant's name, phone number, email address, address designated under chapter 5B, Social Security number, or driver's license number, and that is collected, received, or maintained by a government entity before the date a program participant's certification expires, or the date the entity receives notice that the program participant has withdrawn from the program, whichever is earlier;

(4) "county recorder" means the county official who performs the functions of the county recorder or registrar of titles to record a document as part of the county real estate document recording system, regardless of title or office; and

(5) "real property records" means any record of data that is maintained ~~by a county~~ as part of the county real estate document recording system for use by the public, data on assessments, data on real or personal property taxation, and other data on real property.

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Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.045, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. Notification of certification. (a) A program participant may ~~submit a notice, in writing, to~~ notify the responsible authority of any government entity other than the county recorder in writing, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, that the participant is certified in the Safe at Home address confidentiality program pursuant to chapter 5B. The notice must include the program participant's name, ~~names of other program participants in the household,~~ date of birth, address designated under chapter 5B, program participant signature, signature of the participant's parent or guardian if the participant is a minor, date the program participant's certification in the program expires, and any other information specified by the secretary of state. A program participant may submit a subsequent notice of certification, if the participant's certification is renewed. The contents of the notification of certification are private data on individuals. A notice provided pursuant to this paragraph is a request to protect location data unless the participant requests that specific identity data also be protected.

(b) To affect real property records, ~~including but not limited to documents maintained in a public recording system, data on assessments and taxation, and other data on real property,~~ a program participant must submit a real property notice in writing to the county recorder in the county where the property identified in the real property notice is located. To affect real property records maintained by any other government entity, a program participant must submit a real property notice in writing to the other government entity's responsible authority. A real property notice must be on a form prescribed by the secretary of state and must include:

(1) the full legal name of the program participant, including middle name;

(2) the last four digits of the program participant's Social Security number;

(3) the participant's date of birth;

~~(3)~~ (4) the designated address of the program participant as assigned by the secretary of state, including lot number;

~~(4) the date the program participant's certification in the program expires;~~

(5) the legal description and street address, if any, of the real property affected by the notice;

(6) the address of the Office of the Secretary of State; and

(7) the signature of the program participant.

Only one parcel of real property may be included in each notice, but more than one notice may be presented ~~to the county recorder~~. The ~~county recorder~~ recipient of the notice may require a program participant to provide additional information necessary to identify the records of the program participant or the real property described in the notice. A program participant must submit a subsequent real property notice for the real property if the participant's ~~certification is renewed~~ legal name changes. The real property notice is private data on individuals.

Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.045, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3. Classification of identity and location data; amendment of records; sharing and dissemination. (a) Identity and location data on for which a program participant ~~who submits a notice~~ seeks protection under subdivision 2, paragraph (a), that are not otherwise classified by law are private data on individuals. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, private or confidential location data on a program participant who submits a notice under subdivision 2, paragraph (a), may not be shared with any other government entity or nongovernmental entity except as provided in paragraph (b).

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(b) ~~Private or confidential location data on a program participant must not be shared or disclosed by a government entity~~ Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, private or confidential location data on a program participant who submits a notice under subdivision 2, paragraph (a), may not be shared with any other government entity or nongovernmental entity unless:

(1) the program participant has expressly consented in writing to sharing or dissemination of the data for the purpose for which the sharing or dissemination will occur;

(2) the data are subject to sharing or dissemination pursuant to court order under section 13.03, subdivision 6;

(3) the data are subject to sharing pursuant to section 5B.07, subdivision 2;

(4) the location data related to county of residence are needed to provide public assistance or other government services, or to allocate financial responsibility for the assistance or services;

(5) the data are necessary to perform a government entity's health, safety, or welfare functions, including the provision of emergency 911 services, the assessment and investigation of child or vulnerable adult abuse or neglect, or the assessment or inspection of services or locations for compliance with health, safety, or professional standards; or

(6) the data are necessary to aid an active law enforcement investigation of the program participant.

(c) Data disclosed under paragraph (b), clauses (4) to (6), may be used only for the purposes authorized in this subdivision and may not be further disclosed to any other person or government entity. Government entities receiving or sharing private or confidential data under this subdivision shall establish procedures to protect the data from further disclosure.

(d) Real property record data are governed by subdivision 4a.

(e) Notwithstanding sections 15.17 and 138.17, a government entity may amend records to replace a participant's location data with the participant's designated address.

Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.045, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:

Subd. 4a. Real property records. (a) If a program participant submits a notice ~~to a county recorder~~ under subdivision 2, paragraph (b), the ~~county recorder~~ government entity must not disclose the program participant's identity data in conjunction with the property identified in the written notice in the entity's real property records, unless:

(1) the program participant has consented to sharing or dissemination of the data for the purpose identified in a writing acknowledged by the program participant;

(2) the data are subject to sharing or dissemination pursuant to court order under section 13.03, subdivision 6; or

(3) the secretary of state authorizes the sharing or dissemination of the data under subdivision 4b for the purpose identified in the authorization.; or

(4) the data are shared with a government entity subject to this chapter for the purpose of administering assessment and taxation laws.

This subdivision does not prevent ~~the~~ a county recorder from returning original documents to the individuals that submitted the documents for recording. This subdivision does not prevent the public disclosure of the participant's name and address designated under chapter 5B in the county reception index if the participant's name and designated address are not disclosed in conjunction with location data. Each ~~county recorder~~ government entity shall establish

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procedures for recording or filing documents to comply with this subdivision. These procedures may include masking identity or location data and making documents or certificates of title containing the data private and not viewable except as allowed by this paragraph. The procedure must comply with the requirements of chapters 386, 507, 508, and 508A and other laws as appropriate, to the extent these requirements do not conflict with this section. The procedures must provide public notice of the existence of recorded documents and certificates of title that are not publicly viewable and the provisions for viewing them under this subdivision. Notice that a document or certificate is private and viewable only under this subdivision or subdivision 4b is deemed constructive notice of the document or certificate.

(b) A real property notice is notice only to the county recorder. A notice that does not conform to the requirements of a real property notice under subdivision 2, paragraph (b), is not effective as a notice to the county recorder. On receipt of a real property notice, the county recorder shall provide a copy of the notice to the person who maintains the property tax records in that county, and If the recipient of the real property notice is the county recorder, the county recorder shall notify the county's responsible authority and provide a copy to the secretary of state at the address specified in the notice. If the recipient of the notice is the responsible authority, the responsible authority shall provide a copy to the secretary of state at the address specified by the secretary of state in the notice.

(c) Paragraph (a) applies only to the records recorded or filed concurrently with the real property notice specified in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), and real property records affecting the same real property created or recorded subsequent to the ~~county's~~ government entity's receipt of the real property notice.

(d) The prohibition on disclosure in paragraph (a) continues until:

(1) the program participant has consented to the termination of the real property notice in a writing acknowledged by the program participant. Notification under this paragraph must be given by the government entity to the secretary of state within 90 days of the termination;

(2) the real property notice is terminated pursuant to a court order. Notification under this paragraph must be given by the government entity to the secretary of state within 90 days of the termination;

(3) the program participant no longer holds a record interest in the real property identified in the real property notice. Notification under this paragraph must be given by the government entity to the secretary of state within 90 days of the termination; or

(4) the secretary of state has given written notice to the ~~county recorder~~ government entity who provided the secretary of state with a copy of a participant's real property notice that the program participant's certification has terminated. Notification under this paragraph must be given by the secretary of state within 90 days of the termination.

Upon termination of the prohibition of disclosure, the ~~county recorder~~ government entity shall make publicly viewable all documents and certificates of title relative to the participant that were previously partially or wholly private and not viewable.

Sec. 8. [13.204] POLITICAL SUBDIVISIONS LICENSING DATA.

(a) The following data submitted to a political subdivision by a person seeking to obtain a license are classified as private data on individuals or nonpublic data:

(1) a tax return, as defined by section 270B.01, subdivision 2; and

(2) a bank account statement.

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(b) Notwithstanding section 138.17, data collected by a political subdivision as part of a license application and classified under paragraph (a) must be destroyed no later than 90 days after a final decision on the license application.

Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.32, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Definitions. As used in this section:

(a) "Educational data" means data on individuals maintained by a public educational agency or institution or by a person acting for the agency or institution which relates to a student.

Records of instructional personnel which are in the sole possession of the maker thereof and are not accessible or revealed to any other individual except a substitute teacher, and are destroyed at the end of the school year, shall not be deemed to be government data.

Records of a law enforcement unit of a public educational agency or institution which are maintained apart from education data and are maintained solely for law enforcement purposes, and are not disclosed to individuals other than law enforcement officials of the jurisdiction are not educational data; provided, that education records maintained by the educational agency or institution are not disclosed to the personnel of the law enforcement unit. The University of Minnesota police department is a law enforcement agency for purposes of section 13.82 and other sections of Minnesota Statutes dealing with law enforcement records. Records of organizations providing security services to a public educational agency or institution must be administered consistent with section 13.861.

Records relating to a student who is employed by a public educational agency or institution which are made and maintained in the normal course of business, relate exclusively to the individual in that individual's capacity as an employee, and are not available for use for any other purpose are classified pursuant to section 13.43.

(b) "Juvenile justice system" includes criminal justice agencies and the judiciary when involved in juvenile justice activities.

(c) "Parent" means a parent of a student and includes a natural parent, a guardian, or an individual acting as a parent in the absence of a parent or a guardian.

(d) "School-issued device" means hardware or software that a public educational agency or institution, acting independently or with a technology provider, provides to an individual student for that student's dedicated personal use. A school-issued device includes a device issued through a one-to-one program.

~~(c)~~ (e) "Student" means an individual currently or formerly enrolled or registered, applicants for enrollment or registration at a public educational agency or institution, or individuals who receive shared time educational services from a public agency or institution.

~~(d)~~ (f) "Substitute teacher" means an individual who performs on a temporary basis the duties of the individual who made the record, but does not include an individual who permanently succeeds to the position of the maker of the record.

(g) "Technology provider" means a person who:

(1) contracts with a public educational agency or institution, as part of a one-to-one program or otherwise, to provide a school-issued device for student use; and

(2) creates, receives, or maintains educational data pursuant or incidental to a contract with a public educational agency or institution.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective for the 2022-2023 school year and later.

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Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.32, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3. Private data; when disclosure is permitted. Except as provided in subdivision 5, educational data is private data on individuals and shall not be disclosed except as follows:

(a) pursuant to section 13.05;

(b) pursuant to a valid court order;

(d) to disclose information in health, including mental health, and safety emergencies pursuant to the provisions of United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(b)(1)(I) and Code of Federal Regulations, title 34, section 99.36;

(e) pursuant to the provisions of United States Code, title 20, sections 1232g(b)(1), (b)(4)(A), (b)(4)(B), (b)(1)(B), (b)(3), (b)(6), (b)(7), and (i), and Code of Federal Regulations, title 34, sections 99.31, 99.32, 99.33, 99.34, 99.35, and 99.39;

(f) to appropriate health authorities to the extent necessary to administer immunization programs and for bona fide epidemiologic investigations which the commissioner of health determines are necessary to prevent disease or disability to individuals in the public educational agency or institution in which the investigation is being conducted;

(g) when disclosure is required for institutions that participate in a program under title IV of the Higher Education Act, United States Code, title 20, section 1092;

(h) to the appropriate school district officials to the extent necessary under subdivision 6, annually to indicate the extent and content of remedial instruction, including the results of assessment testing and academic performance at a postsecondary institution during the previous academic year by a student who graduated from a Minnesota school district within two years before receiving the remedial instruction;

(i) to appropriate authorities as provided in United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(b)(1)(E)(ii), if the data concern the juvenile justice system and the ability of the system to effectively serve, prior to adjudication, the student whose records are released; provided that the authorities to whom the data are released submit a written request for the data that certifies that the data will not be disclosed to any other person except as authorized by law without the written consent of the parent of the student and the request and a record of the release are maintained in the student's file;

(j) to volunteers who are determined to have a legitimate educational interest in the data and who are conducting activities and events sponsored by or endorsed by the educational agency or institution for students or former students;

(k) to provide student recruiting information, from educational data held by colleges and universities, as required by and subject to Code of Federal Regulations, title 32, section 216;

(l) to the juvenile justice system if information about the behavior of a student who poses a risk of harm is reasonably necessary to protect the health or safety of the student or other individuals;

(m) with respect to Social Security numbers of students in the adult basic education system, to Minnesota State Colleges and Universities and the Department of Employment and Economic Development for the purpose and in the manner described in section 124D.52, subdivision 7;

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(n) to the commissioner of education for purposes of an assessment or investigation of a report of alleged maltreatment of a student as mandated by chapter 260E. Upon request by the commissioner of education, data that are relevant to a report of maltreatment and are from charter school and school district investigations of alleged maltreatment of a student must be disclosed to the commissioner, including, but not limited to, the following:

(1) information regarding the student alleged to have been maltreated;

(2) information regarding student and employee witnesses;

(3) information regarding the alleged perpetrator; and

(4) what corrective or protective action was taken, if any, by the school facility in response to a report of maltreatment by an employee or agent of the school or school district;

(o) when the disclosure is of the final results of a disciplinary proceeding on a charge of a crime of violence or nonforcible sex offense to the extent authorized under United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(b)(6)(A) and (B) and Code of Federal Regulations, title 34, sections 99.31 (a)(13) and (14);

(p) when the disclosure is information provided to the institution under United States Code, title 42, section 14071, concerning registered sex offenders to the extent authorized under United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(b)(7); or

(q) when the disclosure is to a parent of a student at an institution of postsecondary education regarding the student's violation of any federal, state, or local law or of any rule or policy of the institution, governing the use or possession of alcohol or of a controlled substance, to the extent authorized under United States Code, title 20, section 1232g(i), and Code of Federal Regulations, title 34, section 99.31 (a)(15), and provided the institution has an information release form signed by the student authorizing disclosure to a parent. The institution must notify parents and students about the purpose and availability of the information release forms. At a minimum, the institution must distribute the information release forms at parent and student orientation meetings.;

(r) with Tribal Nations about Tribally enrolled or descendant students to the extent necessary for the Tribal Nation and school district or charter school to support the educational attainment of the student; or

(s) a student's name, home address, telephone number, email address, or other personal contact information may be disclosed to a government entity that is determined to have a legitimate educational interest in the data and that is conducting a service, activity, or event sponsored by or endorsed by the educational agency or institution for students or former students.

Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.32, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5. Directory information. ~~Information~~ (a) Educational data designated as directory information is public data on individuals to the extent required under federal law. Directory information must be designated pursuant to the provisions of:

(1) this subdivision; and

(2) United States Code, title 20, section 1232g, and Code of Federal Regulations, title 34, section 99.37, which ~~are~~ were in effect on January 3, 2012~~, is public data on individuals, to the extent required under federal law~~.

(b) When conducting the directory information designation and notice process required by federal law, an educational agency or institution shall give parents and students notice of the right to refuse to let the agency or institution designate ~~any or all~~ specified data about the student as directory information. This notice may be given by any means reasonably likely to inform the parents and students of the right.

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(c) An educational agency or institution may not designate a student's home address, telephone number, email address, or other personal contact information as directory information under this subdivision. This paragraph does not apply to a postsecondary institution.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment. Beginning upon the effective date of this section, a student's personal contact information subject to this section must be treated by an educational agency or institution as private educational data under Minnesota Statutes, section 13.32, regardless of whether that contact information was previously designated as directory information under Minnesota Statutes, section 13.32, subdivision 5.

Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.32, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 13. Technology providers. (a) A technology provider is subject to the provisions of section 13.05, subdivision 11.

(b) All educational data created, received, maintained, or disseminated by a technology provider pursuant or incidental to a contract with a public educational agency or institution are not the technology provider's property.

(c) If educational data maintained by the technology provider are subject to a breach of the security of the data, as defined in section 13.055, the technology provider must, following discovery of the breach, disclose to the public educational agency or institution all information necessary to fulfill the requirements of section 13.055.

(d) Unless renewal of the contract is reasonably anticipated, within 30 days of the expiration of the contract, a technology provider must destroy or return to the appropriate public educational agency or institution all educational data created, received, or maintained pursuant or incidental to the contract.

(e) A technology provider must not sell, share, or disseminate educational data, except as provided by this section or as part of a valid delegation or assignment of its contract with a public educational agency or institution. An assignee or delegee that creates, receives, or maintains educational data is subject to the same restrictions and obligations under this section as the technology provider.

(f) A technology provider must not use educational data for any commercial purpose, including but not limited to marketing or advertising to a student or parent.

(g) A technology provider must establish written procedures to ensure appropriate security safeguards for educational data. These procedures must require that:

(1) the technology provider's employees or contractors have access to educational data only if authorized; and

(2) the technology provider's employees or contractors may be authorized to access educational data only if access is necessary to fulfill the official duties of the employee or contractor.

These written procedures are public data.

(h) Within 30 days of the start of each school year, a public educational agency or institution must give parents and students direct, timely notice, by United States mail, email, or other direct form of communication, of any curriculum, testing, or assessment technology provider contract affecting a student's educational data. The notice must:

(1) identify each curriculum, testing, or assessment technology provider with access to educational data;

(2) identify the educational data affected by the curriculum, testing, or assessment technology provider contract; and

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(3) include information about the contract inspection and, if applicable, the parent or student's ability to opt out of any program or activity that allows a curriculum, testing, or assessment technology provider to access a student's educational data.

(i) A public educational agency or institution must provide parents and students an opportunity to inspect a complete copy of any contract with a technology provider.

(j) A public educational agency or institution must not penalize or withhold an educational benefit from a parent or student who opts out of any program or activity that allows a technology provider to access a student's educational data.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective for the 2022-2023 school year and later.

Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.32, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 14. School-issued devices. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a government entity or technology provider must not electronically access or monitor:

(1) any location-tracking feature of a school-issued device;

(2) any audio or visual receiving, transmitting, or recording feature of a school-issued device; or

(3) student interactions with a school-issued device, including but not limited to keystrokes and web-browsing activity.

(b) A government entity or technology provider may only engage in activities prohibited by paragraph (a) if:

(1) the activity is limited to a noncommercial educational purpose for instruction by district employees, or technical support by district employees, and notice is provided in advance;

(2) the activity is permitted under a judicial warrant;

(3) the public educational agency or institution is notified or becomes aware that the device is missing or stolen;

(4) the activity is necessary to respond to an imminent threat to life or safety and the access is limited to that purpose;

(5) the activity is necessary to comply with federal or state law; or

(6) the activity is necessary to participate in federal or state funding programs, including but not limited to the E‑Rate program.

(c) If a government entity or technology provider interacts with a school-issued device as provided in paragraph (b), clause (4), it must, within 72 hours of the access, notify the student to whom the school-issued device was issued or that student's parent and provide a written description of the interaction, including which features of the device were accessed and a description of the threat. This notice is not required at any time when the notice itself would pose an imminent threat to life or safety, but must instead be given within 72 hours after that imminent threat has ceased.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective for the 2022-2023 school year and later.

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Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 13.32, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 15. Application to postsecondary institutions; exemption. (a) A postsecondary institution is exempt from subdivisions 13 and 14. This exemption extends to a technology provider for purposes of a contract with a postsecondary institution.

(b) Subdivisions 13 and 14 shall not apply to a nonprofit national assessment provider solely for purposes of providing access to employment, educational scholarships and programs, financial aid, or postsecondary educational opportunities, if the provider secures express digital or written consent of the student or the student's parent or guardian, in response to clear and conspicuous notice.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective for the 2022-2023 school year and later.

Sec. 15. [13.463] EDUCATION SUPPORT SERVICES DATA.

Subdivision 1. Definition. As used in this section, "education support services data" means data on individuals collected, created, maintained, used, or disseminated relating to programs administered by a government entity or entity under contract with a government entity designed to eliminate disparities and advance equities in educational achievement for youth by coordinating services available to participants, regardless of the youth's involvement with other government services. Education support services data does not include welfare data under section 13.46.

Subd. 2. Classification. (a) Unless otherwise provided by law, all education support services data are private data on individuals and must not be disclosed except according to section 13.05 or a court order.

(b) The responsible authority for a government entity maintaining education support services data must establish written procedures to ensure that only individuals authorized by law may enter, update, or access not public data collected, created, or maintained by the driver and vehicle services information system. An authorized individual's ability to enter, update, or access data in the system must correspond to the official duties or training level of the individual and to the statutory authorization granting access for that purpose. All queries and responses, and all actions in which education support services data are entered, updated, accessed, shared, or disseminated, must be recorded in a data audit trail. Data contained in the audit trail have the same classification as the underlying data tracked by the audit trail.

Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, section 299C.72, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. Criminal history check authorized. (a) The criminal history check authorized by this section shall not be used in place of a statutorily mandated or authorized background check.

(b) An authorized law enforcement agency may conduct a criminal history check of an individual who is an applicant for employment, current employee, applicant for licensure, or current licensee. Prior to conducting the criminal history check, the authorized law enforcement agency must receive the informed consent of the individual.

(c) The authorized law enforcement agency ~~shall not~~ may disseminate criminal history data ~~and~~ to either the hiring or licensing authority of the city or county requesting checks for applicants, licensees, or current employees. The authorized law enforcement agency and the hiring or licensing authority of the city or county must maintain it criminal history data securely ~~with the agency's office~~ and act consistently with section 364.05. The authorized law enforcement agency can indicate whether the applicant for employment or applicant for licensure has a criminal history that would prevent hire, acceptance as a volunteer to a hiring authority, or would prevent the issuance of a license to the department that issues the license.

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Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 626A.35, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 2b. Exception; stolen motor vehicles. (a) The prohibition of subdivision 1 does not apply to the use of a mobile tracking device on a stolen motor vehicle when:

(1) the consent of the owner of the vehicle has been obtained; or

(2) the owner of the motor vehicle has reported to law enforcement that the vehicle is stolen.

(b) Within 24 hours of a tracking device being attached to a vehicle pursuant to the authority granted in paragraph (a), clause (2), an officer employed by the agency that attached the tracking device to the vehicle must remove the device, disable the device, or obtain a search warrant granting approval to continue to use the device in the investigation.

(c) A peace officer employed by the agency that attached a tracking device to a stolen motor vehicle must remove the tracking device if the vehicle is recovered and returned to the owner.

(d) Any tracking device evidence collected after the motor vehicle is returned to the owner is inadmissible.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

ARTICLE 2

UNIFORM CANADIAN JUDGMENTS

Section 1. [548.64] SHORT TITLE.

Sections 548.64 to 548.74 may be cited as the "Uniform Registration of Canadian Money Judgments Act."

Sec. 2. [548.65] DEFINITIONS.

In sections 548.64 to 548.74:

(1) "Canada" means the sovereign nation of Canada and its provinces and territories. "Canadian" has a corresponding meaning.

(2) "Canadian judgment" means a judgment of a court of Canada, other than a judgment that recognizes the judgment of another foreign country.

Sec. 3. [548.66] APPLICABILITY.

(a) Sections 548.64 to 548.74 apply to a Canadian judgment to the extent the judgment is within the scope of sections 548.54 to 548.63, if recognition of the judgment is sought to enforce the judgment.

(b) A Canadian judgment that grants both recovery of a sum of money and other relief may be registered under sections 548.64 to 548.74, but only to the extent of the grant of recovery of a sum of money.

(c) A Canadian judgment regarding subject matter both within and not within the scope of sections 548.64 to 548.74 may be registered under sections 548.64 to 548.74, but only to the extent the judgment is with regard to subject matter within the scope of sections 548.64 to 548.74.

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Sec. 4. [548.67] REGISTRATION OF CANADIAN JUDGMENT.

(a) A person seeking recognition of a Canadian judgment described in section 548.66 to enforce the judgment may register the judgment in the office of the court administrator of a court in which an action for recognition of the judgment could be filed under section 548.59.

(b) A registration under paragraph (a) must be executed by the person registering the judgment or the person's attorney and include:

(1) a copy of the Canadian judgment authenticated in the same manner as a copy of a foreign judgment is authenticated in an action under section 548.59 as an accurate copy by the court that entered the judgment;

(2) the name and address of the person registering the judgment;

(3) if the person registering the judgment is not the person in whose favor the judgment was rendered, a statement describing the interest the person registering the judgment has in the judgment which entitles the person to seek its recognition and enforcement;

(4) the name and last-known address of the person against whom the judgment is being registered;

(5) if the judgment is of the type described in section 548.66, paragraph (b) or (c), a description of the part of the judgment being registered;

(6) the amount of the judgment or part of the judgment being registered, identifying:

(i) the amount of interest accrued as of the date of registration on the judgment or part of the judgment being registered, the rate of interest, the part of the judgment to which interest applies, and the date when interest began to accrue;

(ii) costs and expenses included in the judgment or part of the judgment being registered, other than an amount awarded for attorney fees; and

(iii) the amount of an award of attorney fees included in the judgment or part of the judgment being registered;

(7) the amount, as of the date of registration, of post-judgment costs, expenses, and attorney fees claimed by the person registering the judgment or part of the judgment;

(8) the amount of the judgment or part of the judgment being registered which has been satisfied as of the date of registration;

(9) a statement that:

(i) the judgment is final, conclusive, and enforceable under the law of the Canadian jurisdiction in which it was rendered;

(ii) the judgment or part of the judgment being registered is within the scope of sections 548.64 to 548.74; and

(iii) if a part of the judgment is being registered, the amounts stated in the registration under clauses (6), (7), and (8) relate to the part;

(10) if the judgment is not in English, a certified translation of the judgment into English; and

(11) the filing fee stated in section 548.30.

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(c) On receipt of a registration that includes the documents, information, and filing fee required by paragraph (b), the court administrator shall file the registration, assign a docket number, and enter the Canadian judgment in the court's docket.

(d) A registration substantially in the following form complies with the registration requirements under paragraph (b) if the registration includes the attachments specified in the form:

REGISTRATION OF CANADIAN MONEY JUDGMENT

Complete and file this form, together with the documents required by Part V of this form, with the court administrator. When stating an amount of money, identify the currency in which the amount is stated.

PART I. IDENTIFICATION OF CANADIAN JUDGMENT

Canadian Court Rendering the Judgment:

.......................................................................................................

Case/Docket Number in Canadian Court:

.......................................................................................................

Name of Plaintiff(s):

.......................................................................................................

Name of Defendant(s):

.......................................................................................................

The Canadian Court entered the judgment:

on ............................................................. in .................................................................. in...............................................................

[Date] [City] [Province or Territory]

The judgment includes an award for the payment of money in favor of .........................

in the amount of .........................

If only part of the Canadian judgment is subject to registration (see section 548.66, paragraphs (b) and (c)), describe the part of the judgment being registered:

.......................................................................................................

PART II. IDENTIFICATION OF PERSON REGISTERING JUDGMENT AND PERSON AGAINST WHOM JUDGMENT IS BEING REGISTERED

Provide the following information for all persons seeking to register the judgment under this registration and all persons against whom the judgment is being registered under this registration. Name of Person(s) Registering Judgment:

.......................................................................................................

If a person registering the judgment is not the person in whose favor the judgment was rendered, describe the interest the person registering the judgment has in the judgment which entitles the person to seek its recognition and enforcement:

.......................................................................................................

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Address of Person(s) Registering Judgment:

.......................................................................................................

Additional Contact Information for Person(s) Registering Judgment (Optional):

Telephone Number: ....................................... Fax Number:.......................................................

E-mail Address: ........................................................................

Name of Attorney for Person(s) Registering Judgment, if any:

.......................................................................................................

Address: .....................................................................................

Telephone Number: ....................................... Fax Number:.......................................................

E-mail Address: ........................................................................

Name of Person(s) Against Whom Judgment is Being Registered:

.......................................................................................................

Address of Person(s) Against Whom Judgment is Being Registered:

..................................................................................................... (provide the most recent address known)

Additional Contact Information for Person(s) Against Whom Judgment is Being Registered (Optional) (provide most recent information known):

Telephone Number: ....................................... Fax Number:.......................................................

E-mail Address: ........................................................................

PART III. CALCULATION OF AMOUNT FOR WHICH ENFORCEMENT IS SOUGHT

Identify the currency or currencies in which each amount is stated.

The amount of the Canadian judgment or part of the judgment being registered is:

...............................................................

The amount of interest accrued as of the date of registration on the part of the judgment being registered is:

...............................................................

The applicable rate of interest is:....................................................................................................................................................

The date when interest began to accrue is:....................................................................................................................................

The part of the judgment to which the interest applies is:..........................................................................................................

The Canadian Court awarded costs and expenses relating to the part of the judgment being registered in the amount of:

.......................................................................................................

(exclude any amount included in the award of costs and expenses which represents an award of attorney fees).

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The person registering the Canadian judgment claims post-judgment costs and expenses in the amount of:

...............................................................

and post-judgment attorney fees in the amount of

.......................................................................................................

relating to the part of the judgment being registered (include only costs, expenses, and attorney fees incurred before registration).

The amount of the part of the judgment being registered which has been satisfied as of the date of registration is

.......................................................................................................

The total amount for which enforcement of the part of the judgment being registered is sought is

.......................................................................................................

PART IV. STATEMENT OF PERSON REGISTERING JUDGMENT

I, ......................................................................................... state:

(Person Registering Judgment or Attorney for Person Registering Judgment)

1. The Canadian judgment is final, conclusive, and enforceable under the law of the Canadian jurisdiction in which it was rendered.

2. The Canadian judgment or part of the judgment being registered is within the scope of Minnesota Statutes, sections 548.64 to 548.74.

3. If only a part of the Canadian judgment is being registered, the amounts stated in Part III of this form relate to that part.

PART V. ITEMS REQUIRED TO BE INCLUDED WITH REGISTRATION

Attached are (check to signify required items are included):

…….. A copy of the Canadian judgment authenticated in the same manner a copy of a foreign judgment is authenticated in an action under Minnesota Statutes, section 548.59, as an accurate copy by the Canadian court that entered the judgment.

…….. If the Canadian judgment is not in English, a certified translation of the judgment into English.

…….. The registration fee stated in Minnesota Statutes, section 548.30.

I declare that the information provided on this form is true and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief.

Submitted by:.....................................................................................

Signature of Person Registering Judgment or

Attorney for Person Registering Judgment

Date of submission: .................................................................

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Sec. 5. [548.68] EFFECT OF REGISTRATION.

(a) Subject to paragraph (b), a Canadian judgment registered under section 548.67 has the same effect provided in section 548.60 for a judgment a court determines to be entitled to recognition.

(b) A Canadian judgment registered under section 548.67 may not be enforced by sale or other disposition of property, or by seizure of property or garnishment, until 31 days after notice under section 548.69 of registration is served. The court for cause may provide for a shorter or longer time. This paragraph does not preclude use of relief available under law of this state other than sections 548.64 to 548.74 to prevent dissipation, disposition, or removal of property.

Sec. 6. [548.69] NOTICE OF REGISTRATION.

(a) A person that registers a Canadian judgment under section 548.67 shall cause notice of registration to be served on the person against whom the judgment has been registered.

(b) Notice under this section must be served in the same manner that a summons and complaint must be served in an action seeking recognition under section 548.59 of a foreign-country money judgment.

(1) the date of registration and court in which the judgment was registered;

(2) the docket number assigned to the registration;

(3) the name and address of:

(i) the person registering the judgment; and

(ii) the person's attorney, if any;

(4) a copy of the registration, including the documents required under section 548.67, paragraph (b); and

(5) a statement that:

(i) the person against whom the judgment has been registered, not later than 30 days after the date of service of notice, may petition the court to vacate the registration; and

(ii) the court for cause may provide for a shorter or longer time.

(d) Proof of service of notice under this section must be filed with the court administrator.

Sec. 7. [548.70] PETITION TO VACATE REGISTRATION.

(a) Not later than 30 days after notice under section 548.69 is served, the person against whom the judgment was registered may petition the court to vacate the registration. The court for cause may provide for a shorter or longer time for filing the petition.

(b) A petition under this section may assert only:

(1) a ground that could be asserted to deny recognition of the judgment under sections 548.54 to 548.63; or

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(2) a failure to comply with a requirement of sections 548.64 to 548.74 for registration of the judgment.

(d) If the court grants a petition under this section, the registration is vacated, and any act under the registration to enforce the registered judgment is void.

(e) If the court grants a petition under this section on a ground under paragraph (b), clause (1), the court also shall render a judgment denying recognition of the Canadian judgment. A judgment rendered under this subsection has the same effect as a judgment denying recognition to a judgment on the same ground under sections 548.54 to 548.63.

Sec. 8. [548.71] STAY OF ENFORCEMENT OF JUDGMENT PENDING DETERMINATION OF PETITION.

A person that files a petition under section 548.70, paragraph (a), to vacate registration of a Canadian judgment may request the court to stay enforcement of the judgment pending determination of the petition. The court shall grant the stay if the person establishes a likelihood of success on the merits with regard to a ground listed in section 548.70, paragraph (b), for vacating a registration. The court may require the person to provide security in an amount determined by the court as a condition of granting the stay.

Sec. 9. [548.72] RELATIONSHIP TO UNIFORM FOREIGN-COUNTRY MONEY JUDGMENTS RECOGNITION ACT.

(a) Sections 548.64 to 548.74 supplement the Uniform Foreign-Country Money Judgments Recognition Act, and sections 548.54 to 548.63, other than section 548.59, apply to a registration under sections 548.64 to 548.74.

(b) A person may seek recognition of a Canadian judgment described in section 548.66 either:

(1) by registration under sections 548.64 to 548.74; or

(2) under section 548.59.

(c) Subject to paragraph (d), a person may not seek recognition in this state of the same judgment or part of a judgment described in 548.66, paragraph (b) or (c), with regard to the same person under both sections 548.59 and 548.64 to 548.74.

(d) If the court grants a petition to vacate a registration solely on a ground under section 548.70, paragraph (b), clause (2), the person seeking registration may:

(1) if the defect in the registration can be cured, file a new registration under sections 548.64 to 548.74; or

(2) seek recognition of the judgment under section 548.59.

Sec. 10. [548.73] UNIFORMITY OF APPLICATION AND INTERPRETATION.

In applying and construing this uniform act, consideration must be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact it.

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Sec. 11. [548.74] TRANSITIONAL PROVISION.

Sections 548.64 to 548.74 apply to the registration of a Canadian judgment entered in a proceeding that is commenced in Canada on or after the effective date of sections 548.64 to 548.74.

Sec. 12. EFFECTIVE DATE.

Sections 1 to 11 are effective January 1, 2023.

ARTICLE 3

HUMAN RIGHTS

Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 363A.03, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 36a. Race. "Race" is inclusive of traits associated with race, including but not limited to hair texture and hair styles such as braids, locks, and twists.

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 363A.08, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 8. Inquiries into pay history prohibited. (a) "Pay history" as used in this subdivision means any prior or current wage, salary, earnings, benefits, or any other compensation about an applicant for employment.

(b) An employer, employment agency, or labor organization shall not inquire into, consider, or require disclosure from any source the pay history of an applicant for employment for the purpose of determining wages, salary, earnings, benefits, or other compensation for that applicant. There is a rebuttable presumption that use of pay history received on an applicant for employment to determine the future wages, salary, earnings, benefits, or other compensation for that applicant is an unfair discriminatory employment practice under subdivisions 1 to 3. The general prohibition against inquiring into the pay history of an applicant does not apply if the job applicant's pay history is a matter of public record under federal or state law, unless the employer, employment agency, or labor organization sought access to those public records with the intent of obtaining pay history of the applicant for the purpose of determining wages, salary, earnings, benefits, or other compensation for that applicant.

(c) Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent an applicant for employment from voluntarily and without prompting disclosing pay history for the purposes of negotiating wages, salary, benefits, or other compensation. If an applicant for employment voluntarily and without prompting discloses pay history to a prospective employer, employment agency, or labor organization, nothing in this subdivision shall prohibit that employer, employment agency, or labor organization from considering or acting on that voluntarily disclosed salary history information to support a wage or salary higher than initially offered by the employer, employment agency, or labor organization.

(d) Nothing in this subdivision limits, prohibits, or prevents a person from bringing a charge, grievance, or any other cause of action alleging wage discrimination because of race, color, creed, religion, national origin, sex, gender identity, marital status, status with regard to public assistance, familial status, membership or activity in a local commission, disability, sexual orientation, or age, as otherwise provided in this chapter.

(e) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to prevent an employer from:

(1) providing information about the wages, benefits, compensation, or salary offered in relation to a position; or

(2) inquiring about or otherwise engaging in discussions with an applicant about the applicant's expectations or requests with respect to wages, salary, benefits, or other compensation.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective January 1, 2023. For employment covered by collective bargaining agreements, this section is not effective until the date of implementation of the applicable collective bargaining agreement that is after January 1, 2023.

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Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 363A.11, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. General prohibitions. This subdivision lists general prohibitions against discrimination on the basis of disability. For purposes of this subdivision, "individual" or "class of individuals" refers to the clients or customers of the covered public accommodation that enter into the contractual, licensing, or other arrangement.

(1) It is discriminatory to:

(i) subject an individual or class of individuals on the basis of a disability of that individual or class, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, to a denial of the opportunity of the individual or class to participate in or benefit from the goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, or accommodations of an entity;

(ii) afford an individual or class of individuals on the basis of the disability of that individual or class, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, with the opportunity to participate in or benefit from the goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, or accommodations that are not equal to those afforded to other individuals; ~~and~~

(iii) provide an individual or class of individuals, on the basis of a disability of that individual or class, directly or through contractual, licensing, or other arrangements, with goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, or accommodations that are different or separate from those provided to other individuals, unless the action is necessary to provide the individual or class of individuals with goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, or accommodations, or other opportunities that are as effective as those provided to others.; and

(iv) not provide a deaf or hard-of-hearing individual or class of deaf or hard-of-hearing individuals with closed‑captioned television when television services are provided to other individuals.

(2) Goods, services, facilities, privileges, advantages, and accommodations must be afforded to an individual with a disability in the most integrated setting appropriate to the needs of the individual.

(3) Notwithstanding the existence of separate or different programs or activities provided in accordance with sections 363A.08 to 363A.19, and 363A.28, subdivision 10, the individual with a disability may not be denied the opportunity to participate in the programs or activities that are not separate or different.

(4) An individual or entity may not, directly or through contractual or other arrangements, use standards or criteria and methods of administration:

(i) that have the effect of discriminating on the basis of disability; or

(ii) that perpetuate the discrimination of others who are subject to common administrative control.

Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 363A.21, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Housing. The provisions of section 363A.09 shall not apply to:

(1) rooms in a temporary or permanent residence home run by a nonprofit organization, if the discrimination is by sex; or

(2) the rental by a resident owner or occupier of a one-family accommodation of a room or rooms in the accommodation to another person or persons if the discrimination is by sex, marital status, status with regard to public assistance, sexual orientation, or disability. Except as provided elsewhere in this chapter or other state or federal law, no person or group of persons selling, renting, or leasing property is required to modify the property in

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any way, or exercise a higher degree of care for a person having a disability than for a person who does not have a disability; nor shall this chapter be construed to relieve any person or persons of any obligations generally imposed on all persons regardless of any disability in a written lease, rental agreement, or contract of purchase or sale, or to forbid distinctions based on the inability to fulfill the terms and conditions, including financial obligations of the lease, agreement, or contract; or.

~~(3) the rental by a resident owner of a unit in a dwelling containing not more than two units, if the discrimination is on the basis of sexual orientation.~~

Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, section 363A.50, is amended to read:

363A.50 NONDISCRIMINATION IN ACCESS TO TRANSPLANTS.

Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given unless the context clearly requires otherwise.

(b) "Anatomical gift" has the meaning given in section 525A.02, subdivision 4.

(1) qualified interpreters or other effective methods of making aurally delivered materials available to individuals with hearing impairments and to non-English-speaking individuals;

(2) qualified readers, taped texts, texts in accessible electronic format, or other effective methods of making visually delivered materials available to individuals with visual impairments;

(3) the provision of information in a format that is accessible for individuals with cognitive, neurological, developmental, intellectual, or physical disabilities;

(4) the provision of supported decision-making services; and

(5) the acquisition or modification of equipment or devices.

(d) "Covered entity" means:

(1) any licensed provider of health care services, including licensed health care practitioners, hospitals, nursing facilities, laboratories, intermediate care facilities, psychiatric residential treatment facilities, institutions for individuals with intellectual or developmental disabilities, and prison health centers; or

(2) any entity responsible for matching anatomical gift donors to potential recipients.

(e) "Disability" has the meaning given in section 363A.03, subdivision 12.

(f) "Organ transplant" means the transplantation or infusion of a part of a human body into the body of another for the purpose of treating or curing a medical condition.

(g) "Qualified individual" means an individual who, with or without available support networks, the provision of auxiliary aids and services, or reasonable modifications to policies or practices, meets the essential eligibility requirements for the receipt of an anatomical gift.

(h) "Reasonable modifications" include, but are not limited to:

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(1) communication with individuals responsible for supporting an individual with postsurgical and post‑transplantation care, including medication; and

(2) consideration of support networks available to the individual, including family, friends, and home and community-based services, including home and community-based services funded through Medicaid, Medicare, another health plan in which the individual is enrolled, or any program or source of funding available to the individual, in determining whether the individual is able to comply with post-transplant medical requirements.

(i) "Supported decision making" has the meaning given in section 524.5-102, subdivision 16a.

Subd. 2. Prohibition of discrimination. (a) A covered entity may not, on the basis of a qualified individual's race, ethnicity, mental disability, or physical disability:

(1) deem an individual ineligible to receive an anatomical gift or organ transplant;

(2) deny medical or related organ transplantation services, including evaluation, surgery, counseling, and postoperative treatment and care;

(3) refuse to refer the individual to a transplant center or other related specialist for the purpose of evaluation or receipt of an anatomical gift or organ transplant;

(4) refuse to place an individual on an organ transplant waiting list or place the individual at a lower-priority position on the list than the position at which the individual would have been placed if not for the individual's race, ethnicity, or disability; or

(5) decline insurance coverage for any procedure associated with the receipt of the anatomical gift or organ transplant, including post-transplantation and postinfusion care.

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a covered entity may take an individual's disability into account when making treatment or coverage recommendations or decisions, solely to the extent that the physical or mental disability has been found by a physician, following an individualized evaluation of the potential recipient to be medically significant to the provision of the anatomical gift or organ transplant. The provisions of this section may not be deemed to require referrals or recommendations for, or the performance of, organ transplants that are not medically appropriate given the individual's overall health condition.

(c) If an individual has the necessary support system to assist the individual in complying with post-transplant medical requirements, an individual's inability to independently comply with those requirements may not be deemed to be medically significant for the purposes of paragraph (b).

(d) A covered entity must make reasonable modifications to policies, practices, or procedures, when such modifications are necessary to make services such as transplantation-related counseling, information, coverage, or treatment available to qualified individuals with disabilities, unless the entity can demonstrate that making such modifications would fundamentally alter the nature of such services.

(e) A covered entity must take such steps as may be necessary to ensure that no qualified individual with a disability is denied services such as transplantation-related counseling, information, coverage, or treatment because of the absence of auxiliary aids and services, unless the entity can demonstrate that taking such steps would fundamentally alter the nature of the services being offered or result in an undue burden. A covered entity is not required to provide supported decision-making services.

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(f) A covered entity must otherwise comply with the requirements of Titles II and III of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, the Americans with Disabilities Act Amendments Act of 2008, and the Minnesota Human Rights Act.

(g) The provisions of this section apply to each part of the organ transplant process.

Subd. 3. Remedies. In addition to all other remedies available under this chapter, any individual who has been subjected to discrimination in violation of this section may initiate a civil action in a court of competent jurisdiction to enjoin violations of this section.

Sec. 6. REPEALER.

Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 363A.20, subdivision 3; and 363A.27, are repealed.

ARTICLE 4

OTHER CIVIL LAW POLICY

Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 84.775, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Civil citation; authority to issue. (a) A conservation officer or other licensed peace officer may issue a civil citation to a person who operates:

(1) an off-highway motorcycle in violation of sections 84.773, subdivision 1 or 2, clause (1); 84.777; or 84.788 to 84.795; ~~or 84.90;~~

(2) an off-road vehicle in violation of sections 84.773, subdivision 1 or 2, clause (1); 84.777; or 84.798 to 84.804; ~~or 84.90; or~~

(3) an all-terrain vehicle in violation of sections 84.773, subdivision 1 or 2, clause (1); 84.777; ~~84.90;~~ or 84.922 to 84.928.;

(4) a snowmobile in violation of sections 84.777 or 84.82 to 84.872; or

(5) an off-highway motorcycle, an off-road vehicle, an all-terrain vehicle, or a snowmobile in violation of section 84.90 or 97B.001.

(b) A civil citation under paragraph (a) shall require restitution for public and private property damage and impose a penalty of:

(1) ~~$100~~ $250 for the first offense;

(2) ~~$200~~ $500 for the second offense; and

(3) ~~$500~~ $1,000 for third and subsequent offenses.

(c) A conservation officer or other licensed peace officer may issue a civil citation to a person who operates an off-highway motorcycle, off-road vehicle, or all-terrain vehicle in violation of section 84.773, subdivision 2, clause (2) or (3). A civil citation under this paragraph shall require restitution for damage to wetlands and impose a penalty of:

(1) $100 for the first offense;

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(2) $500 for the second offense; and

(3) $1,000 for third and subsequent offenses.

(d) If the peace officer determines that there is damage to property requiring restitution, the commissioner must send a written explanation of the extent of the damage and the cost of the repair by first class mail to the address provided by the person receiving the citation within 15 days of the date of the citation.

(e) An off-road vehicle that is equipped with a snorkel device and receives a civil citation under this section is subject to twice the penalty amounts in paragraphs (b) and (c).

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 84.775, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4. Allocating penalty amounts. Penalty amounts collected from civil citations issued under this section must be paid to the treasury of the unit of government employing the officer that issued the civil citation. Penalties retained by the commissioner shall be credited as follows: to the off-highway motorcycle account under section 84.794 for citations involving off-highway motorcycles; to the off-road vehicle account under section 84.803 for citations involving off-road vehicles; or to the all-terrain vehicle account under section 84.927 for citations involving all-terrain vehicles; or to the snowmobile trails and enforcement account under section 84.83 for citations involving snowmobiles. Penalty amounts credited under this subdivision are dedicated for ~~the enforcement of~~ enforcing off-highway vehicle laws or for enforcing snowmobile laws.

Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, section 169A.63, subdivision 8, is amended to read:

Subd. 8. Administrative forfeiture procedure. (a) A motor vehicle used to commit a designated offense or used in conduct resulting in a designated license revocation is subject to administrative forfeiture under this subdivision.

(b) Within 60 days from when a motor vehicle is seized under subdivision 2, or within a reasonable time after seizure, the appropriate agency shall serve the driver or operator of the vehicle with a notice of the seizure and intent to forfeit the vehicle. Additionally, when a motor vehicle is seized under subdivision 2, or within a reasonable time after that, all persons known to have an ownership, possessory, or security interest in the vehicle must be notified of the seizure and the intent to forfeit the vehicle. For those vehicles required to be registered under chapter 168, the notification to a person known to have a security interest in the vehicle is required only if the vehicle is registered under chapter 168 and the interest is listed on the vehicle's title. Upon motion by the appropriate agency or prosecuting authority, a court may extend the time period for sending notice for a period not to exceed 90 days for good cause shown. Notice mailed by certified mail to the address shown in Department of Public Safety records is sufficient notice to the registered owner of the vehicle. For motor vehicles not required to be registered under chapter 168, notice mailed by certified mail to the address shown in the applicable filing or registration for the vehicle is sufficient notice to a person known to have an ownership, possessory, or security interest in the vehicle. Otherwise, notice may be given in the manner provided by law for service of a summons in a civil action.

(1) a description of the vehicle seized;

(2) the date of seizure; and

(3) notice of the right to obtain judicial review of the forfeiture and of the procedure for obtaining that judicial review, printed in English. This requirement does not preclude the appropriate agency from printing the notice in other languages in addition to English.

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Substantially the following language must appear conspicuously in the notice:

"WARNING: If you were the person arrested when the property was seized, you will automatically lose the above-described property and the right to be heard in court if you do not file a lawsuit and serve the prosecuting authority within 60 days. You may file your lawsuit in conciliation court if the property is worth $15,000 or less; otherwise, you must file in district court. You do not have to pay a filing fee for your lawsuit.

WARNING: If you have an ownership interest in the above-described property and were not the person arrested when the property was seized, you will automatically lose the above-described property and the right to be heard in court if you do not notify the prosecuting authority of your interest in writing within 60 days. "

(d) If notice is not sent in accordance with paragraph (b), and no time extension is granted or the extension period has expired, the appropriate agency shall return the vehicle to the owner. An agency's return of property due to lack of proper notice does not restrict the agency's authority to commence a forfeiture proceeding at a later time.

(e) Within 60 days following service of a notice of seizure and forfeiture under this subdivision, a claimant may file a demand for a judicial determination of the forfeiture. The demand must be in the form of a civil complaint and must be filed with the court administrator in the county in which the seizure occurred, together with proof of service of a copy of the complaint on the prosecuting authority having jurisdiction over the forfeiture. The claimant may serve the complaint by certified mail or any means permitted by court rules. If the value of the seized property is $15,000 or less, the claimant may file an action in conciliation court for recovery of the seized vehicle. A copy of the conciliation court statement of claim ~~must~~ may be served personally or ~~by mail~~ as permitted by the Rules of Conciliation Court Procedure on the prosecuting authority having jurisdiction over the forfeiture within 60 days following service of the notice of seizure and forfeiture under this subdivision. The claimant does not have to pay the court filing fee.

No responsive pleading is required of the prosecuting authority and no court fees may be charged for the prosecuting authority's appearance in the matter. The prosecuting authority may appear for the appropriate agency. Pleadings, filings, and methods of service are governed by the Rules of Civil Procedure and, where applicable, by the Rules of Conciliation Court Procedure.

(f) The complaint must be captioned in the name of the claimant as plaintiff and the seized vehicle as defendant, and must state with specificity the grounds on which the claimant alleges the vehicle was improperly seized, the claimant's interest in the vehicle seized, and any affirmative defenses the claimant may have. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, an action for the return of a vehicle seized under this section may not be maintained by or on behalf of any person who has been served with a notice of seizure and forfeiture unless the person has complied with this subdivision.

(g) If the claimant makes a timely demand for a judicial determination under this subdivision, the forfeiture proceedings must be conducted as provided under subdivision 9.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 259.11, is amended to read:

259.11 ORDER; FILING COPIES.

(a) Upon meeting the requirements of section 259.10, the court shall grant the application unless: (1) it finds that there is an intent to defraud or mislead; (2) section 259.13 prohibits granting the name change; or (3) in the case of the change of a minor child's name, the court finds that such name change is not in the best interests of the child. The court shall set forth in the order the name and age of the applicant's spouse and each child of the applicant, if any, and shall state a description of the lands, if any, in which the applicant and the spouse and children, if any,

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claim to have an interest. The court administrator shall file such order, and record the same in the judgment book. If lands be described therein, a certified copy of the order shall be filed for record, by the applicant, with the county recorder of each county wherein any of the same are situated. Before doing so the court administrator shall present the same to the county auditor who shall enter the change of name in the auditor's official records and note upon the instrument, over an official signature, the words "change of name recorded. " Any such order shall not be filed, nor any certified copy thereof be issued, until the applicant shall have paid to the county recorder and court administrator the fee required by law. No application shall be denied on the basis of the marital status of the applicant.

(b) When a person applies for a name change, the court shall determine whether the person has a criminal history in this or any other state. The court may conduct a search of national records through the Federal Bureau of Investigation by submitting a set of fingerprints and the appropriate fee to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. If it is determined that the person has a criminal history in this or any other state, the court shall, within ten days after the name change application is granted, report the name change to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension. The person whose name is changed shall also report the change to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension within ten days. The court granting the name change application must explain this reporting duty in its order. Any person required to report the person's name change to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension who fails to report the name change as required under this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

(1) a request for a name change as part of an application for a marriage license under section 517.08; or

(2) a request for a name change in conjunction with a marriage dissolution under section 518.27; or

(3) a request for a name change filed under section 259.14.

Sec. 5. [259.14] POSTDISSOLUTION NAME CHANGE.

(a) A person who has resided in this state for at least six months and obtained the person's most recent final marriage dissolution from a district court in this state may apply to the district court in the county where the person resides to change the person's name to the legal name on the person's birth certificate. A person applying for a name change must submit a certified copy of the certificate of dissolution issued pursuant to section 518.148 and a certified copy of the person's birth certificate.

(b) A court shall not require a person applying for a name change to pay filing fees for an application submitted pursuant to this section. Notwithstanding section 259.10, a court shall not require the person applying for a name change to provide proof of the person's identity by two witnesses unless the proof of identity is necessary to determine whether the person has an intent to defraud or mislead the court.

(c) Upon meeting the requirements of this section, the court shall grant the application for a name change unless the court finds that (1) the person has an intent to defraud or mislead the court; or (2) section 259.13 prohibits granting the name change. The court shall notify the person applying for a name change that using a different surname without complying with section 259.13, if applicable, is a gross misdemeanor.

Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 260C.101, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. Other matters relating to children. The juvenile court has original and exclusive jurisdiction in proceedings concerning:

(1) the termination of parental rights to a child in accordance with the provisions of sections 260C.301 to 260C.328;

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(2) permanency matters under sections 260C.503 to 260C.521;

(3) the appointment and removal of a juvenile court guardian for a child, where parental rights have been terminated under the provisions of sections 260C.301 to 260C.328;

(4) judicial consent to the marriage of a child when required by law;

(5) all adoption matters and review of the efforts to finalize the adoption of the child under section 260C.317;

(6) the review of the placement of a child who is in foster care pursuant to a voluntary placement agreement between the child's parent or parents and the responsible social services agency under section 260C.227; or between the child, when the child is over age 18, and the agency under section 260C.229;

(7) the review of voluntary foster care placement of a child for treatment under chapter 260D according to the review requirements of that chapter; ~~and~~

(8) the reestablishment of a legal parent and child relationship under section 260C.329.; and

(9) juvenile court guardianship petitions for at-risk juveniles filed under section 260C.149.

Sec. 7. [260C.149] JUVENILE COURT GUARDIANSHIP FOR AT-RISK JUVENILES.

Subdivision 1. Definitions. For the purposes of this section, the terms defined in this subdivision have the meanings given.

(a) "Abandonment" means the parent's failure to maintain contact with an at-risk juvenile on a regular basis or to demonstrate consistent interest in an at-risk juvenile's well-being beginning at least six months prior to the at-risk juvenile reaching the age of 18, or the death of an at-risk juvenile's parent.

(b) "Abuse" means, at any time in an at-risk juvenile's life, the infliction or threat of:

(1) psychological or emotional harm;

(2) physical injury that was not due to an accident; or

(3) sexual abuse, which includes sex trafficking as defined in section 609.321, subdivision 7a.

(c) "At-risk juvenile" means an unmarried person who is between the ages of 18 and 21 and is potentially eligible for classification under United States Code, title 8, section 1101(a)(27)(J), as amended through December 31, 2021.

(d) "Best interests" has the meaning given in section 260C.511, paragraph (a).

(e) "Guardian" means an adult who has been appointed by the court as the guardian of an at-risk juvenile under this section. A guardian includes but is not limited to a parent.

(f) "Mental injury" has the meaning given in section 260E.03, subdivision 13.

(g) "Neglect" means, at any time prior to an at-risk juvenile reaching the age of 18, the failure to give an at-risk juvenile proper care that causes the juvenile's health or welfare to be harmed or placed at substantial risk of harm or causes mental injury or a substantial risk of mental injury.

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(h) "Petitioner" means the at-risk juvenile who is the subject of the petition.

Subd. 2. Guardianship; purpose. The purpose of the guardianship under this section is to provide an at-risk juvenile with guidance, assistance, financial and emotional support, and referrals to resources necessary to either or both:

(1) meet the at-risk juvenile's needs, which include but are not limited to shelter, nutrition, and access to and receipt of psychiatric, psychological, medical, dental, educational, occupational, or social services; or

(2) protect the at-risk juvenile from sex or labor trafficking or domestic or sexual violence.

Subd. 3. Petition. An at-risk juvenile may petition the juvenile court for the appointment of a guardian. The petition must state the name of the proposed guardian and allege that:

(1) the appointment of a guardian is in the best interests of the at-risk juvenile;

(2) the proposed guardian is capable and reputable;

(3) both the petitioner and the proposed guardian agree to the appointment of a guardianship under this section;

(4) reunification of the at-risk juvenile with one or both parents is not viable because of abandonment, abuse, neglect, or a similar basis that has an effect on an at-risk juvenile comparable to abandonment, abuse, or neglect under Minnesota law; and

(5) it is not in the best interests of the at-risk juvenile to be returned to the at-risk juvenile's or at-risk juvenile's parent's previous country of nationality or last habitual residence.

Subd. 4. Right to counsel. The at-risk juvenile petitioning for a guardianship and the proposed guardian named in the petition each have the right to be represented by counsel of the at-risk juvenile's or guardian's choosing and at the at-risk juvenile's or guardian's own expense.

Subd. 5. Service. The proposed guardian and, if an appointment of a new guardian is sought, the existing guardian for the at-risk juvenile previously appointed under this section are entitled to service in the manner specified in the Minnesota Rules of Juvenile Protection Procedure.

Subd. 6. Notice to parents. The petitioner must provide a copy of the petition to any living parent in any manner and format reasonably calculated to give the parent adequate notice at least 14 days prior to the hearing under subdivision 7. Prior to or at the hearing, the petitioner must file proof that the copy of the petition was provided to any living parents of the petitioner. The court may waive notice to a parent:

(1) if the identity or location of the petitioner's parent is unknown; or

(2) for any other reason that the court may deem appropriate.

Subd. 7. Proceeding. (a) The court shall hear and issue an order on any petition as soon as administratively feasible and prior to the at-risk juvenile reaching 21 years of age.

(b) Venue must be in the county where the at-risk juvenile or the proposed guardian resides.

(c) Nothing in this section authorizes the guardian to abrogate any rights or privileges to which the at-risk juvenile is entitled under law.

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Subd. 8. Order. (a) The court must issue an order awarding a guardianship for the purposes identified in this section if the court finds that:

(1) the proposed guardian is capable and reputable;

(2) the guardianship is in the best interests of the at-risk juvenile;

(3) both the petitioner and the proposed guardian agree to the establishment of a guardianship under this section;

(5) it is not in the best interests of the at-risk juvenile to be returned to the previous country of nationality or last habitual residence of the juvenile or the juvenile's parent or parents.

(b) The order must, where the identity is known, specifically identify the parent or parents whom the court finds have abused, abandoned, or neglected the at-risk juvenile.

(c) The order must contain relevant state statutory citations and written findings of fact to support each of these findings:

(1) the at-risk juvenile is dependent on the juvenile court, and has been placed under the custody of an individual appointed by the juvenile court, through the appointment of a guardian, for the purposes of this statute;

(2) reunification of the at-risk juvenile with one or both parents is not viable because of abandonment, abuse, or neglect or a similar basis that has an effect on an at-risk juvenile comparable to abandonment, abuse, or neglect under Minnesota law; and

(3) it is not in the best interests of the at-risk juvenile to be returned to the at-risk juvenile's or at-risk juvenile's parent's country of nationality or last habitual residence.

Subd. 9. Appointment of new guardian. At any time after the approval of a guardian under subdivision 8, an at-risk juvenile or the currently appointed at-risk juvenile's guardian may petition the juvenile court for appointment of a new guardian. The petition must state the name of the proposed new guardian and set forth the facts supporting the request. The court may appoint a new guardian if the court finds that:

(1) the proposed new guardian is capable and reputable;

(2) the appointment of a new guardian is in the best interests of the at-risk juvenile; and

(3) both the petitioner and the proposed new guardian agree to the establishment of the guardianship.

Subd. 10. Automatic termination of guardianship. A guardianship awarded under this section terminates when the at-risk juvenile attains the age of 21. The court's jurisdiction continues until termination of the guardianship.

Subd. 11. Voluntary termination of guardianship. The at-risk juvenile may request the termination of the guardianship at any time and, upon request, the court shall terminate the guardianship.

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Subd. 12. Relation to other guardianship law. The provisions of sections 260C.325, 260C.328, and 524.5‑101 to 524.5-317 do not apply to petitions for the appointment of a guardianship for an at-risk juvenile under this section.

Sec. 8. [325E.72] DIGITAL FAIR REPAIR.

Subdivision 1. Short title. This act may be cited as the "Digital Fair Repair Act."

Subd. 2. Definitions. (a) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.

(b) "Authorized repair provider" means an individual or business who is unaffiliated with an original equipment manufacturer and who has (1) an arrangement with the original equipment manufacturer, for a definite or indefinite period, under which the original equipment manufacturer grants to the individual or business a license to use a trade name, service mark, or other proprietary identifier to offer the services of diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of digital electronic equipment under the name of the original equipment manufacturer, or (2) other arrangements with the original equipment manufacturer to offer diagnostic, maintenance, or repair services on behalf of the original equipment manufacturer. An original equipment manufacturer that offers diagnostic, maintenance, or repair services for the original equipment manufacturer's digital electronic equipment is considered an authorized repair provider with respect to the digital electronic equipment if the original equipment manufacturer does not have an arrangement described in this paragraph with an unaffiliated individual or business.

(c) "Digital electronic equipment" or "equipment" means any product that depends for its functioning, in whole or in part, on digital electronics embedded in or attached to the product.

(d) "Documentation" means a manual, diagram, reporting output, service code description, schematic diagram, or similar information provided to an authorized repair provider to affect the services of diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of digital electronic equipment.

(e) "Embedded software" means any programmable instructions provided on firmware delivered with digital electronic equipment or with a part for the equipment to operate equipment. Embedded software includes all relevant patches and fixes made by the manufacturer of the equipment or part for these purposes.

(f) "Fair and reasonable terms" for obtaining a part, tool, or documentation means at costs and terms, including convenience of delivery and rights of use, equivalent to what is offered by the original equipment manufacturer to an authorized repair provider, using the net costs that would be incurred by an authorized repair provider to obtain an equivalent part, tool, or documentation from the original equipment manufacturer, accounting for any discounts, rebates, or other incentive programs in arriving at the actual net costs. For documentation, including any relevant updates, fair and reasonable terms means at no charge, except that when the documentation is requested in physical printed form a fee for the reasonable actual costs to prepare and send the copy may be charged.

(g) "Firmware" means a software program or set of instructions programmed on digital electronic equipment or on a part for the equipment to allow the equipment or part to communicate with other computer hardware.

(h) "Independent repair provider" means an individual or business operating in Minnesota that (1) does not have an arrangement described in paragraph (b) with an original equipment manufacturer, (2) is not affiliated with any individual or business that has an arrangement described in paragraph (b), and (3) is engaged in the services of diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of digital electronic equipment. An original equipment manufacturer or, with respect to the original equipment manufacturer, an individual or business that has an arrangement with the original equipment manufacturer or is affiliated with an individual or business that has such an arrangement with that original equipment manufacturer is considered an independent repair provider for purposes of the instances it engages in the services of diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of digital electronic equipment that is not manufactured by or sold under the name of the original equipment manufacturer.

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(i) "Manufacturer of motor vehicle equipment" means a business engaged in the business of manufacturing or supplying components used to manufacture, maintain, or repair a motor vehicle.

(j) "Motor vehicle" means a vehicle that is designed to transport persons or property on a street or highway and is certified by the manufacturer under all applicable federal safety and emissions standards and requirements for distribution and sale in the United States. Motor vehicle does not include:

(1) a motorcycle; or

(2) a recreational vehicle or an auto home equipped for habitation.

(k) "Motor vehicle dealer" means an individual or business that, in the ordinary course of business, (1) is engaged in the business of selling or leasing new motor vehicles to an individual or business pursuant to a franchise agreement, (2) has obtained a license under section 168.27, and (3) is engaged in the services of diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of motor vehicles or motor vehicle engines pursuant to the franchise agreement.

(l) "Motor vehicle manufacturer" means a business engaged in the business of manufacturing or assembling new motor vehicles.

(m) "Original equipment manufacturer" means a business engaged in the business of selling or leasing to any individual or business new digital electronic equipment manufactured by or on behalf of the original equipment manufacturer.

(n) "Owner" means an individual or business that owns or leases digital electronic equipment purchased or used in Minnesota.

(o) "Part" means any replacement part, either new or used, made available by an original equipment manufacturer to affect the services of maintenance or repair of digital electronic equipment manufactured or sold by the original equipment manufacturer.

(p) "Trade secret" has the meaning given in section 325C.01, subdivision 5.

Subd. 3. Requirements. (a) For digital electronic equipment and parts for the equipment sold or used in Minnesota, an original equipment manufacturer must make available on fair and reasonable terms documentation, parts, and tools, inclusive of any updates to information or embedded software, to any independent repair provider or to the owner of digital electronic equipment manufactured by or on behalf of, or sold by, the original equipment manufacturer for purposes of diagnosis, maintenance, or repair. Nothing in this section requires an original equipment manufacturer to make available a part if the part is no longer available to the original equipment manufacturer.

(b) For equipment that contains an electronic security lock or other security-related function, the original equipment manufacturer must make available to the owner and to independent repair providers, on fair and reasonable terms, any special documentation, tools, and parts needed to reset the lock or function when disabled in the course of diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of the equipment. Documentation, tools, and parts may be made available through appropriate secure release systems.

Subd. 4. Enforcement by attorney general. A violation of this section is an unlawful practice under section 325D.44. All remedies, penalties, and authority granted to the attorney general under chapter 8 are available to the attorney general to enforce this section.

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Subd. 5. Limitations. (a) Nothing in this section requires an original equipment manufacturer to divulge a trade secret to an owner or an independent service provider, except as necessary to provide documentation, parts, and tools on fair and reasonable terms.

(b) Nothing in this section alters the terms of any arrangement described in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), in force between an authorized repair provider and an original equipment manufacturer, including but not limited to the performance or provision of warranty or recall repair work by an authorized repair provider on behalf of an original equipment manufacturer pursuant to such arrangement. A provision in the terms of an arrangement described in subdivision 2, paragraph (b), that purports to waive, avoid, restrict, or limit the original equipment manufacturer's obligations to comply with this section is void and unenforceable.

(c) Nothing in this section requires an original equipment manufacturer or an authorized repair provider to provide to an owner or independent repair provider access to information, other than documentation, that is provided by the original equipment manufacturer to an authorized repair provider pursuant to the terms of an arrangement described in subdivision 2, paragraph (b).

Subd. 6. Exclusions. (a) Nothing in this section applies to (1) a motor vehicle manufacturer, manufacturer of motor vehicle equipment, or motor vehicle dealer acting in that capacity, or (2) any product or service of a motor vehicle manufacturer, manufacturer of motor vehicle equipment, or motor vehicle dealer acting in that capacity.

(b) Nothing in this section applies to manufacturers or distributors of a medical device as defined in the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 301 et seq., or a digital electronic product or software manufactured for use in a medical setting including diagnostic, monitoring, or control equipment or any product or service that they offer.

Subd. 7. Applicability. This section applies to equipment sold or in use on or after January 1, 2023.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective January 1, 2023.

Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 357.17, is amended to read:

357.17 NOTARIES PUBLIC.

(a) The maximum fees to be charged and collected by a notary public shall be as follows:

(1) for protest of nonpayment of note or bill of exchange or of nonacceptance of such bill; where protest is legally necessary, and copy thereof, $5;

(2) for every other protest and copy, $5;

(3) for making and serving every notice of nonpayment of note or nonacceptance of bill and copy thereof, $5;

(4) for any affidavit or paper for which provision is not made herein, $5 per folio, and $1 per folio for copies;

(5) for each oath administered, $5;

(6) for acknowledgments of deeds and for other services authorized by law, the legal fees allowed other officers for like services;

(7) for recording each instrument required by law to be recorded by the notary, $5 per folio.

(b) A notary public may charge a fee for performing a marriage in excess of the fees in paragraph (a) if the notary is commissioned pursuant to chapter 359.

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Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 359.04, is amended to read:

359.04 POWERS.

Every notary public so appointed, commissioned, and qualified shall have power throughout this state to administer all oaths required or authorized to be administered in this state; to take and certify all depositions to be used in any of the courts of this state; to take and certify all acknowledgments of deeds, mortgages, liens, powers of attorney, and other instruments in writing or electronic records; to receive, make out, and record notarial protests; to perform civil marriages consistent with this chapter and chapter 517; and to perform online remote notarial acts in compliance with the requirements of sections 358.645 and 358.646.

Sec. 11. [359.115] CIVIL MARRIAGE OFFICIANT.

A notary public shall have the power to solemnize civil marriages throughout the state if the notary public has filed a copy of the notary public's notary commission with the local registrar of a county in this state. When a local registrar records a commission for a notary public, the local registrar shall provide a certificate of filing to the notary whose commission is recorded. A notary public shall endorse and record the county where the notary public's commission is recorded upon each certificate of civil marriage granted by the notary.

Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 517.04, is amended to read:

517.04 PERSONS AUTHORIZED TO PERFORM CIVIL MARRIAGES.

Civil marriages may be solemnized throughout the state by an individual who has attained the age of 21 years and is a judge of a court of record, a retired judge of a court of record, a court administrator, a retired court administrator with the approval of the chief judge of the judicial district, a former court commissioner who is employed by the court system or is acting pursuant to an order of the chief judge of the commissioner's judicial district, a notary commissioned pursuant to chapter 359, the residential school superintendent of the Minnesota State Academy for the Deaf and the Minnesota State Academy for the Blind, a licensed or ordained minister of any religious denomination, or by any mode recognized in section 517.18. For purposes of this section, a court of record includes the Office of Administrative Hearings under section 14.48.

Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 517.08, subdivision 1b, is amended to read:

Subd. 1b. Term of license; fee; premarital education. (a) The local registrar shall examine upon oath the parties applying for a license relative to the legality of the contemplated civil marriage. Examination upon oath of the parties under this section may include contemporaneous video or audio transmission or receipt of a verified statement signed by both parties attesting to the legality of the marriage. The local registrar may accept civil marriage license applications, signed by both parties, by mail, facsimile, or electronic filing. Both parties must present proof of age to the local registrar. If one party is unable to appear in person, the party appearing may complete the absent applicant's information. The local registrar shall provide a copy of the civil marriage application to the party who is unable to appear, who must verify the accuracy of the appearing party's information in a notarized statement. The verification statement must be accompanied by a copy of proof of age of the party. The civil marriage license must not be released until ~~the verification statement and~~ proof of age has been received by the local registrar. If the local registrar is satisfied that there is no legal impediment to it, including the restriction contained in section 259.13, the local registrar shall issue the license, containing the full names of the parties before and after the civil marriage, and county and state of residence, with the county seal attached, and make a record of the date of issuance. The license shall be valid for a period of six months. Except as provided in paragraph (b), the local registrar shall collect from the applicant a fee of $115 for administering the oath, issuing, recording, and filing all papers required, and preparing and transmitting to the state registrar of vital records the reports of civil marriage

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required by this section. If the license should not be used within the period of six months due to illness or other extenuating circumstances, it may be surrendered to the local registrar for cancellation, and in that case a new license shall issue upon request of the parties of the original license without fee. A local registrar who knowingly issues or signs a civil marriage license in any manner other than as provided in this section shall pay to the parties aggrieved an amount not to exceed $1,000.

(b) The civil marriage license fee for parties who have completed at least 12 hours of premarital education is $40. In order to qualify for the reduced license fee, the parties must submit at the time of applying for the civil marriage license a statement that is signed, dated, and notarized or marked with a church seal from the person who provided the premarital education on their letterhead confirming that it was received. The premarital education must be provided by a licensed or ordained minister or the minister's designee, a person authorized to solemnize civil marriages under section 517.18, or a person authorized to practice marriage and family therapy under section 148B.33. The education must include the use of a premarital inventory and the teaching of communication and conflict management skills.

(c) The statement from the person who provided the premarital education under paragraph (b) must be in the following form:

"I, .......................... (name of educator), confirm that .......................... (names of both parties) received at least 12 hours of premarital education that included the use of a premarital inventory and the teaching of communication and conflict management skills. I am a licensed or ordained minister, a person authorized to solemnize civil marriages under Minnesota Statutes, section 517.18, or a person licensed to practice marriage and family therapy under Minnesota Statutes, section 148B.33."

The names of the parties in the educator's statement must be identical to the legal names of the parties as they appear in the civil marriage license application. Notwithstanding section 138.17, the educator's statement must be retained for seven years, after which time it may be destroyed.

(d) If section 259.13 applies to the request for a civil marriage license, the local registrar shall grant the civil marriage license without the requested name change. Alternatively, the local registrar may delay the granting of the civil marriage license until the party with the conviction:

(1) certifies under oath that 30 days have passed since service of the notice for a name change upon the prosecuting authority and, if applicable, the attorney general and no objection has been filed under section 259.13; or

(2) provides a certified copy of the court order granting it. The parties seeking the civil marriage license shall have the right to choose to have the license granted without the name change or to delay its granting pending further action on the name change request.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective retroactively from January 1, 2021.

Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 604.21, is amended to read:

604.21 INDEMNITY AGREEMENTS IN DESIGN PROFESSIONAL SERVICES CONTRACTS VOID.

(a) A provision contained in, or executed in connection with, a design professional services contract is void and unenforceable to the extent it attempts to require an indemnitor to indemnify, to hold harmless, or to defend an indemnitee from or against liability for loss or damage resulting from the negligence or fault of anyone other than the indemnitor or others for whom the indemnitor is legally liable.

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(b) For purposes of this section, "design professional services contract" means a contract under which some portion of the work or services is to be performed or supervised by a person licensed under section 326.02, and is furnished in connection with any actual or proposed maintenance of or improvement to real property, highways, roads, or bridges.

(c) This section does not apply to the extent that the obligation to indemnify, to hold harmless, or to defend an indemnitee is ~~able to be~~ covered by insurance.

(d) This section does not apply to agreements referred to in section 337.03 or 337.04.

(e) A provision contained in, or executed in connection with, a design professional services contract for any actual or proposed maintenance of, or improvement to, real property, highways, roads, or bridges located in Minnesota that makes the contract subject to the laws of another state or requires that any litigation, arbitration, or other dispute resolution process on the contract occur in another state is void and unenforceable.

(f) This section supersedes any other inconsistent provision of law.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, section 609.5314, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3. Judicial determination. (a) Within 60 days following service of a notice of seizure and forfeiture under this section, a claimant may file a demand for a judicial determination of the forfeiture. The demand must be in the form of a civil complaint and must be filed with the court administrator in the county in which the seizure occurred, together with proof of service of a copy of the complaint on the prosecuting authority for that county. The claimant may serve the complaint on the prosecuting authority by certified mail or any means permitted by court rules. If the value of the seized property is $15,000 or less, the claimant may file an action in conciliation court for recovery of the seized property. A copy of the conciliation court statement of claim may be served personally or as permitted by the Rules of Conciliation Court Procedure on the prosecuting authority having jurisdiction over the forfeiture within 60 days following service of the notice of seizure and forfeiture under this subdivision. The claimant does not have to pay the court filing fee. No responsive pleading is required of the prosecuting authority and no court fees may be charged for the prosecuting authority's appearance in the matter. The district court administrator shall schedule the hearing as soon as practicable after, and in any event no later than 90 days following, the conclusion of the criminal prosecution. The proceedings are governed by the Rules of Civil Procedure and, where applicable, by the Rules of Conciliation Court Procedure.

(b) The complaint must be captioned in the name of the claimant as plaintiff and the seized property as defendant, and must state with specificity the grounds on which the claimant alleges the property was improperly seized and the plaintiff's interest in the property seized. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, an action for the return of property seized under this section may not be maintained by or on behalf of any person who has been served with a notice of seizure and forfeiture unless the person has complied with this subdivision.

(c) If the claimant makes a timely demand for judicial determination under this subdivision, the appropriate agency must conduct the forfeiture under section 609.531, subdivision 6a. The limitations and defenses set forth in section 609.5311, subdivision 3, apply to the judicial determination.

(d) If a demand for judicial determination of an administrative forfeiture is filed under this subdivision and the court orders the return of the seized property, the court may order sanctions under section 549.211. If the court orders payment of these costs, they must be paid from forfeited money or proceeds from the sale of forfeited property from the appropriate law enforcement and prosecuting agencies in the same proportion as they would be distributed under section 609.5315, subdivision 5.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

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Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 609.748, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. Restraining order; court jurisdiction. (a) A person who is a victim of harassment or the victim's guardian or conservator may seek a restraining order from the district court in the manner provided in this section.

(b) The parent, guardian or conservator, or stepparent of a minor who is a victim of harassment may seek a restraining order from the district court on behalf of the minor.

(c) A minor may seek a restraining order if the minor demonstrates that the minor is emancipated and the court finds that the order is in the best interests of the emancipated minor. A minor demonstrates the minor is emancipated by a showing that the minor is living separate and apart from parents and managing the minor's own financial affairs, and shows, through an instrument in writing or other agreement, or by the conduct of the parties that all parents who have a legal parent and child relationship with the minor have relinquished control and authority over the minor.

(d) An application for relief under this section may be filed in the county of residence of either party or in the county in which the alleged harassment occurred. There are no residency requirements that apply to a petition for a harassment restraining order.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment."

Delete the title and insert:

"A bill for an act relating to state government; modifying various data practices, human rights, and civil law provisions; classifying data; adopting the Uniform Registration of Canadian Money Judgments Act; imposing penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 5B.02; 5B.05; 5B.10, subdivision 1; 13.045, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4a; 13.32, subdivisions 1, 3, 5, by adding subdivisions; 84.775, subdivisions 1, 4; 259.11; 260C.101, subdivision 2; 357.17; 359.04; 363A.03, by adding a subdivision; 363A.08, by adding a subdivision; 363A.11, subdivision 2; 363A.21, subdivision 1; 517.04; 517.08, subdivision 1b; 604.21; 609.748, subdivision 2; 626A.35, by adding a subdivision; Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, sections 169A.63, subdivision 8; 299C.72, subdivision 2; 363A.50; 609.5314, subdivision 3; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 13; 259; 260C; 325E; 359; 548; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 363A.20, subdivision 3; 363A.27."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Moran from the Committee on Ways and Means to which was referred:

H. F. No. 1888, A bill for an act relating to health; providing for registration of transfer care specialists; authorizing a transfer care specialist to remove a dead human body from the place of death; providing for refrigeration of dead human bodies for certain time periods; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 149A.01, subdivisions 2, 3; 149A.02, subdivision 13a, by adding subdivisions; 149A.03; 149A.09; 149A.11; 149A.60; 149A.61, subdivisions 4, 5; 149A.62; 149A.63; 149A.65, subdivision 2; 149A.70, subdivisions 3, 4, 5, 7; 149A.90, subdivisions 2, 4, 5; 149A.94, subdivision 1; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 149A.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 9, line 15, delete "$......." and insert "$1,170"

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Page 13, after line 24, insert:

"Sec. 25. APPROPRIATION.

$219,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the state government special revenue fund to the commissioner of health for the regulation of transfer care specialists under Minnesota Statutes, chapter 149A, and for additional reporting requirements under Minnesota Statutes, section 149A.94. The state government special revenue fund base for this appropriation is $132,000 in fiscal year 2024 and $61,000 in fiscal year 2025."

Amend the title as follows:

Page 1, line 4, after the semicolon, insert "appropriating money;"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Becker-Finn from the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law to which was referred:

H. F. No. 2725, A bill for an act relating to judiciary; establishing a statutory procedure to assess the competency of a defendant to stand trial; providing for contested hearings; establishing continuing supervision for certain defendants found incompetent to stand trial; establishing requirements to restore certain defendants to competency; providing for jail-based competency restoration programs; establishing forensic navigators; requiring forensic navigators to provide services to certain defendants; establishing dismissal plans for certain defendants found incompetent to stand trial; establishing a planning and implementation committee; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 253B.07, subdivision 2a; 253B.10, subdivision 1; 480.182; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 611.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"ARTICLE 1

COMPETENCY TO STAND TRIAL

Section 1. [611.40] APPLICABILITY.

Notwithstanding Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.01, sections 611.40 to 611.59 shall govern the proceedings for adults when competency to stand trial is at issue. This section does not apply to juvenile courts. A competency examination ordered under Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.04, must follow the procedure in section 611.43.

Sec. 2. [611.41] DEFINITIONS.

Subdivision 1. Definitions. For the purposes of sections 611.40 to 611.58, the following terms have the meanings given.

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Subd. 2. Alternative program. "Alternative program" means any mental health or substance use disorder treatment or program that is not a certified competency restoration program but may assist a defendant in attaining competency.

Subd. 3. Cognitive impairment. "Cognitive impairment" means a condition that impairs a person's memory, perception, communication, learning, or other ability to think. Cognitive impairment may be caused by any factor including traumatic, developmental, acquired, infectious, and degenerative processes.

Subd. 4. Community-based treatment program. "Community-based treatment program" means treatment and services provided at the community level, including but not limited to community support services programs as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 6; day treatment services as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 8; mental health crisis services as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 14c; outpatient services as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 21; residential treatment services as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 23; assertive community treatment services provided under section 256B.0622; adult rehabilitation mental health services provided under section 256B.0623; home and community-based waivers; and supportive housing. Community‑based treatment program does not include services provided by a state-operated treatment program.

Subd. 5. Competency restoration program. "Competency restoration program" means a structured program of clinical and educational services that is certified and designed to identify and address barriers to a defendant's ability to understand the criminal proceedings, consult with counsel, and participate in the defense.

Subd. 6. Court examiner. "Court examiner" means a person appointed to serve the court, and who is a physician or licensed psychologist who has a doctoral degree in psychology.

Subd. 7. Defendant with recurring incidents. "Defendant with recurring incidents" means an individual who has been charged by citation or complaint with ten or more misdemeanor offenses within an eight-month period.

Subd. 8. Forensic navigator. "Forensic navigator" means a person who meets the certification and continuing education requirements under section 611.55, subdivision 4, and provides the services under section 611.55, subdivision 2.

Subd. 9. Head of the program. "Head of the program" means the head of the competency restoration program or the head of the community-based treatment program, treatment facility, or state-operated treatment program.

Subd. 10. Jail-based program. "Jail-based program" means a competency restoration program that operates within a correctional facility that meets the capacity standards governing jail facilities and is licensed by the commissioner of corrections under section 241.021.

Subd. 11. Locked treatment facility. "Locked treatment facility" means a community-based treatment program, treatment facility, or state-operated treatment program that is locked and is licensed by the Department of Health or Department of Human Services.

Subd. 12. Mental illness. "Mental illness" means an organic disorder of the brain or a clinically significant disorder of thought, mood, perception, orientation, memory, or behavior that is detailed in a diagnostic codes list published by the commissioner of human services, and that seriously limits a person's capacity to function in primary aspects of daily living such as personal relations, living arrangements, work, and recreation.

Subd. 13. State-operated treatment program. "State-operated treatment program" means any state-operated program, including community behavioral health hospitals, crisis centers, residential facilities, outpatient services, and other community-based services developed and operated by the state and under the control of the commissioner of human services, for a person who has a mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical dependency.

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Subd. 14. Supervisory agency. "Supervisory agency" means the entity responsible for supervising adults in a county, including the Department of Corrections, county probation officers, or a community corrections agency in a Community Corrections Act county, or the designee of that entity.

Subd. 15. Suspend the criminal proceedings. "Suspend the criminal proceedings" means nothing can be heard or decided on the merits of the criminal charges except that the court retains jurisdiction in all other matters, including but not limited to bail, conditions of release, probation conditions, no contact orders, and appointment of counsel.

Subd. 16. Targeted misdemeanor. "Targeted misdemeanor" has the meaning given in section 299C.10, subdivision 1, paragraph (e).

Subd. 17. Treatment facility. "Treatment facility" means a non-state-operated hospital, residential treatment provider, crisis residential withdrawal management center, or corporate foster care home qualified to provide care and treatment for persons who have a mental illness, developmental disability, or chemical dependency.

Sec. 3. [611.42] COMPETENCY MOTION PROCEDURES.

Subdivision 1. Competency to stand trial. A defendant is incompetent and shall not plead, be tried, or be sentenced if, due to a mental illness or cognitive impairment, the defendant lacks the ability to:

(1) rationally consult with counsel;

(2) understand the proceedings; or

(3) participate in the defense.

Subd. 2. Waiver of counsel in competency proceedings. (a) A defendant must not be allowed to waive counsel if the defendant lacks ability to:

(1) knowingly, voluntarily, and intelligently waive the right to counsel;

(2) appreciate the consequences of proceeding without counsel;

(3) comprehend the nature of the charge;

(4) comprehend the nature of the proceedings;

(5) comprehend the possible punishment; or

(6) comprehend any other matters essential to understanding the case.

(b) The court must not proceed under this law before a lawyer consults with the defendant and has an opportunity to be heard.

Subd. 3. Competency motion. (a) At any time, the prosecutor or defense counsel may make a motion challenging the defendant's competency, or the court on its initiative may raise the issue. The defendant's consent is not required to bring a competency motion. The motion shall be supported by specific facts but shall not include communications between the defendant and defense counsel if disclosure would violate attorney-client privilege. By bringing the motion, the defendant does not waive attorney-client privilege.

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(b) If competency is at issue, the court shall appoint a forensic navigator to provide the forensic navigator services described in section 611.55 for the defendant, including development of a specific plan to identify appropriate housing and services if the defendant is released from custody or any charges are dismissed.

(c) In felony, gross misdemeanor, and targeted misdemeanor cases, if the court determines there is a reasonable basis to doubt the defendant's competence and there is probable cause for the charge, the court must suspend the criminal proceedings and order an examination of the defendant under section 611.43.

(d) In misdemeanor cases, other than cases involving a targeted misdemeanor, if the court determines there is a reasonable basis to doubt the defendant's competence and there is probable cause for the charge, the court must suspend the criminal proceedings and either order an examination of the defendant under section 611.43 or dismiss the case as provided in paragraph (e). The court shall dismiss a case unless dismissal would be contrary to public interest. For purposes of this paragraph, public interest includes determining whether a defendant has the ability to access housing, food, income, disability verification, medications, and treatment for medical conditions, or otherwise address any basic needs.

(e) If the court indicates an intent to dismiss a misdemeanor charge, the court shall direct the forensic examiner to complete a dismissal plan as described in section 611.55, subdivision 3. The court may dismiss the charge upon receipt of the dismissal plan without holding a hearing unless any party objects. The court must order that the dismissal plan be completed and submitted:

(1) within 48 hours, excluding weekends and holidays, if the defendant is in custody; or

(2) within ten days if the defendant is not in custody.

(f) If competency is at issue, the court may appoint advisory counsel under Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 5, for an unrepresented defendant for the proceedings under this section.

Subd. 4. Dismissal, referrals for services, and collaboration. (a) Except as provided in this subdivision, when the court determines there is a reasonable basis to doubt the defendant's competence and orders an examination of the defendant, a forensic navigator must complete a dismissal plan with the defendant as described in section 611.55, subdivision 3, submit the dismissal plan to the court, and provide a written copy to the defendant before the court or prosecutor dismisses any charges based on a belief or finding that the defendant is incompetent.

(b) If for any reason a forensic navigator has not been appointed, the court must make every reasonable effort to coordinate with any resources available to the court and refer the defendant for possible assessment and social services, including but not limited to services for engagement under section 253B.041, before dismissing any charges based on a finding that the defendant is incompetent.

(c) If working with the forensic navigator or coordinating a referral to services would cause an unreasonable delay in the release of a defendant being held in custody, the court may dismiss the charges and release the defendant. If a defendant has not been engaged for assessment and referral before release, the court may coordinate with the forensic navigator or any resources available to the court to engage the defendant for up to 90 days after release.

(d) Courts may partner and collaborate with county social services, community-based treatment programs, locked treatment facilities, state-operated treatment programs, treatment facilities, jails, and any other resource available to the court to provide referrals to services when a defendant's competency is at issue or a defendant has been found incompetent to stand trial.

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Sec. 4. [611.43] COMPETENCY EXAMINATION AND REPORT.

Subdivision 1. Competency examination. (a) If the court orders an examination pursuant to section 611.42, subdivision 3, the court shall appoint a court examiner to examine the defendant and report to the court on the defendant's competency to stand trial. A court examiner may obtain from court administration and review the report of any prior or subsequent examination under this section or under Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.

(b) If the defendant is not entitled to release, the court shall order the defendant to participate in an examination where the defendant is being held, or the court may order that the defendant be confined in a treatment facility, locked treatment facility, or a state-operated treatment facility until the examination is completed.

(c) If the defendant is entitled to release, the court shall order the defendant to appear for an examination. If the defendant fails to appear at an examination, the court may amend the conditions of release.

(d) A competency examination ordered under Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.04, shall proceed under subdivision 2.

Subd. 2. Report of examination. (a) The court-appointed examiner's written report shall be filed with the court and served on the prosecutor and defense counsel by the court. The report shall be filed no more than 30 days after the order for examination of a defendant in custody. If the defendant is out of custody or confined in a noncorrectional program or treatment facility, the report shall be filed no more than 60 days after the order for examination, unless extended by the court for good cause. The report shall not include opinions concerning the defendant's mental condition at the time of the alleged offense or any statements made by the defendant regarding the alleged criminal conduct, unless necessary to support the examiner's opinion regarding competence or incompetence.

(b) The report shall include an evaluation of the defendant's mental health, cognition, and the factual basis for opinions about:

(1) any diagnoses made, and the results of any testing conducted with the defendant;

(2) the defendant's competency to stand trial;

(3) the level of care and education required for the defendant to attain, be restored to, or maintain competency;

(4) a recommendation of the least restrictive setting appropriate to meet the defendant's needs for restoration and immediate safety;

(5) the impact of any substance use disorder on the defendant, including the defendant's competency, and any recommendations for treatment;

(6) the likelihood the defendant will attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future;

(7) whether the defendant poses a substantial likelihood of physical harm to self or others; and

(8) whether the defendant poses a substantial risk to public safety.

(c) If the court examiner determines that the defendant presents an imminent risk of serious danger to another, is imminently suicidal, or otherwise needs emergency intervention, the examiner must promptly notify the court, prosecutor, defense counsel, and those responsible for the care and custody of the defendant.

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(d) If the court examiner's opinion is that the defendant is incompetent to proceed, the report must include an opinion as to whether the defendant possesses capacity to make decisions regarding neuroleptic medication unless the examiner is unable to render an opinion on capacity. If the examiner is unable to render an opinion on capacity, the report must document the reasons why the examiner is unable to render that opinion.

(e) If the defendant appears for the examination but does not participate, the court examiner shall submit a report and, if sufficient information is available, may render an opinion on competency and an opinion as to whether the unwillingness to participate resulted from a mental illness, cognitive impairment, or other factors.

(f) If the court examiner determines the defendant would benefit from services for engagement in mental health treatment under section 253B.041 or any other referral to social services, the court examiner may recommend referral of the defendant to services where available.

Subd. 3. Additional examination. If either the prosecutor or defense counsel intends to retain an independent examiner, the party shall provide notice to the court and opposing counsel no later than ten days after the date of receipt of the court-appointed examiner's report. If an independent examiner is retained, the independent examiner's report shall be filed no more than 30 days after the date a party files notice of intent to retain an independent examiner, unless extended by the court for good cause.

Subd. 4. Admissibility of defendant's statements. When a defendant is examined under this section, any statement made by the defendant for the purpose of the examination and any evidence derived from the examination is admissible at the competency proceedings, but not in the criminal proceedings.

Sec. 5. [611.44] CONTESTED HEARING PROCEDURES.

Subdivision 1. Request for hearing. (a) The prosecutor or defense counsel may request a hearing on the court‑appointed examiner's competency report by filing a written objection no later than ten days after the report is filed.

(b) A hearing shall be held as soon as possible but no longer than 30 days after the request, unless extended by agreement of the prosecutor and defense counsel, or by the court for good cause.

(c) If an independent court examiner is retained, the hearing may be continued up to 14 days after the date the independent court examiner's report is filed. The court may continue the hearing for good cause.

Subd. 2. Competency hearing. (a) The court may admit all relevant and reliable evidence at the competency hearing. The court-appointed examiner is considered the court's witness and may be called and questioned by the court, prosecutor, or defense counsel. The report of the court-appointed examiner shall be admitted into evidence without further foundation.

(b) Defense counsel may testify, subject to the prosecutor's cross-examination, but shall not violate attorney‑client privilege. Testifying does not automatically disqualify defense counsel from continuing to represent the defendant. The court may inquire of defense counsel regarding the attorney-client relationship and the defendant's ability to communicate with counsel. The court shall not require counsel to divulge communications protected by attorney-client privilege, and the prosecutor shall not cross-examine defense counsel concerning responses to the court's inquiry.

Subd. 3. Determination without hearing. If neither party files an objection, the court shall determine the defendant's competency based on the reports of all examiners.

Subd. 4. Burden of proof and decision. The defendant is presumed incompetent unless the court finds by a preponderance of the evidence that the defendant is competent.

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Sec. 6. [611.45] COMPETENCY FINDINGS.

Subdivision 1. Findings. (a) The court must rule on the defendant's competency to stand trial no more than 14 days after the examiner's report is submitted to the court. If there is a contested hearing, the court must rule no more than 30 days after the date of the hearing.

(b) If the court finds the defendant competent, the court shall enter an order and the criminal proceedings shall resume.

(c) If the court finds the defendant incompetent, the court shall enter a written order and suspend the criminal proceedings. The matter shall proceed under section 611.46.

Subd. 2. Appeal. The defense may appeal a competency determination to the court of appeals. The appeal is governed by Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 28. A verbatim record shall be made in all competency proceedings.

Subd. 3. Dismissal of criminal charge. (a) If the court finds the defendant incompetent, and the charge is a misdemeanor other than a targeted misdemeanor, the charge must be dismissed.

(b) In targeted misdemeanor and gross misdemeanor cases, the charges must be dismissed 30 days after the date of the finding of incompetence, unless the prosecutor, before the expiration of the 30-day period, files a written notice of intent to prosecute when the defendant regains competency. If a notice has been filed and the charge is a targeted misdemeanor, charges must be dismissed within 90 days after the finding of incompetency or when the defendant would be entitled to custody credit of 90 days, whichever is earlier. If a notice has been filed and the charge is a gross misdemeanor, charges must be dismissed within two years after the finding of incompetency or when the defendant would be entitled to custody credit of one year, whichever is earlier.

(c) In felony cases, except as provided in paragraph (d), the charges must be dismissed three years after the date of the finding of incompetency, unless the prosecutor, before the expiration of the three-year period, files a written notice of intent to prosecute when the defendant regains competency. If a notice has been filed, charges must be dismissed within five years after the finding of incompetency or when the defendant would be entitled to custody credit equal to the maximum sentence for the crime with which the defendant is charged, whichever is earlier.

(d) The requirement that felony charges be dismissed under paragraph (c) does not apply if:

(1) the court orders continuing supervision pursuant to section 611.49, subdivision 3; or

(2) the defendant is charged with a violation of sections 609.185 (murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the second degree); 609.195 (murder in the third degree); 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree); 609.2112 (criminal vehicular homicide); 609.2114, subdivision 1 (criminal vehicular operation, death to an unborn child); 609.2661 (murder of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.2663 (murder of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.2664 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree); or 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the second degree).

Sec. 7. [611.46] INCOMPETENT TO STAND TRIAL AND CONTINUING SUPERVISION.

Subdivision 1. Order to competency restoration. (a) If the court finds the defendant incompetent and the charges have not been dismissed, the court shall order the defendant to participate in a program to restore the defendant's competence. The court may order participation in a competency restoration program provided outside of a jail, a jail-based competency restoration program, or an alternative program. The court must determine the least‑restrictive program appropriate to meet the defendant's needs and public safety. In making this determination, the court must consult with the forensic navigator and consider any recommendations of the court examiner on the level of care and education required for the defendant to attain competency.

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(b) The court shall order the defendant to participate in a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail unless such a program is unavailable or inaccessible to the defendant within a reasonable time. If a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail is unavailable or inaccessible, the court shall order the defendant to participate in either a jail-based program or an alternative program as provided in subdivisions 4 and 5.

(c) The court may only order the defendant to participate in competency restoration at a community-based treatment program, locked treatment facility, or treatment facility under this section if the head of the program determines that admission is clinically appropriate and consents to the defendant's admission. The court may only order the defendant to participate in competency restoration at a state-operated treatment program under this section if the commissioner of human services or a designee determines that admission of the defendant is clinically appropriate and consents to the defendant's admission.

(d) If the defendant is confined in jail and has not received competency restoration services within 30 days of the finding of incompetency, the court shall review the case with input from the prosecutor and defense counsel and must:

(1) dismiss the case;

(2) order the defendant to participate in an appropriate competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail;

(3) conditionally release the defendant, including but not limited to conditions that the defendant participate in a competency restoration program when one becomes available and accessible; or

(4) find the defendant unlikely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future and proceed under section 611.49.

(e) Upon the order to a competency restoration program or alternative program, the court may order any hospital, treatment facility, or correctional facility that has provided care or supervision to the defendant in the previous two years to provide copies of the defendant's medical records to the competency restoration program or alternative program. This information shall be provided in a consistent and timely manner and pursuant to all applicable laws.

(f) If at any time the defendant refuses to participate in a competency restoration program or an alternative program, the head of the program shall notify the court and any entity responsible for supervision of the defendant.

(g) At any time, the head of the program may discharge the defendant from the program or facility. The head of the program must notify the court, prosecutor, defense counsel, and any entity responsible for the supervision of the defendant prior to any planned discharge. Whenever possible, this notification shall be made five business days prior to the discharge.

Subd. 2. Supervision. (a) Upon a finding of incompetency, if the defendant is entitled to release, the court must determine whether the defendant requires pretrial supervision. The court must weigh public safety risks against the defendant's interests in remaining free from supervision while presumed innocent in the criminal proceedings. The court may use a validated and equitable risk assessment tool to determine whether supervision is necessary.

(b) If the court determines that the defendant requires pretrial supervision, the court shall appoint a supervisory agency to conduct pretrial supervision and report violations to the court. The supervisory agency shall be responsible for the supervision of the defendant until ordered otherwise by the court.

(c) Upon application by the prosecutor, the entity or its designee assigned to supervise the defendant, or court services alleging that the defendant violated a condition of release and is a risk to public safety, the court shall follow the procedures under Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 6. Any hearing on the alleged violation of release conditions shall be held no more than 15 days after the date of issuance of a summons or within 72 hours if the defendant is apprehended on a warrant.

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(d) If the court finds a violation, the court may revise the conditions of release. In addition to the considerations required by the Rules of Criminal Procedure, when determining the conditions of release, the court must consider whether a condition is likely to result in the pretrial detention of the defendant and whether it is more probable than not that the detention will interfere with the defendant attaining competency. The court shall impose the least restrictive conditions of release and bail that will provide ongoing access to a competency restoration program or alternative program under this section.

(e) The court must review conditions of release and bail on request of any party and may amend the conditions of release or make any other reasonable order upon receipt of information that the pretrial detention of a defendant has interfered with the defendant attaining competency.

Subd. 3. Certified competency restoration programs; procedure. (a) If the court orders a defendant to participate in a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail, the court shall specify whether the program is a community-based treatment program or provided in a locked treatment facility.

(b) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent at a review hearing held after the initial determination of competency, the court may order the defendant to continue participation in a competency restoration program as follows:

(1) if the defendant is not being held in a locked treatment facility and:

(i) the highest underlying charge is a targeted misdemeanor, for up to one year from the date the defendant was ordered to participate in a competency restoration program;

(ii) the highest underlying charge is a gross misdemeanor, for up to two years from the date the defendant was ordered to participate in a competency restoration program; or

(iii) the highest underlying charge is a felony, for up to five years from the date the defendant was ordered to participate in a competency restoration program; and

(2) if the defendant is being held in a locked treatment facility solely due to the order to participate in a certified competency restoration program and:

(i) the highest underlying charge is a targeted misdemeanor, for a number of days that does not result in the defendant being held for more than 90 days in a locked treatment facility in connection with the underlying criminal charge and competency proceeding;

(ii) the highest underlying charge is a gross misdemeanor, for up to 180 additional days provided the cumulative number of days does not result in the defendant being held for more than 365 days in a locked treatment facility in connection with the underlying criminal charge and competency proceeding; or

(iii) the highest underlying charge is a felony, for up to 180 additional days.

(c) The head of the program may recommend that a court examiner provide an updated competency examination and report to the court at any time.

(d) If the defendant has not attained competency within the time periods described in paragraph (b), the court shall dismiss the criminal charges or proceed pursuant to section 611.49. Nothing in this section prohibits the court from determining that a defendant is unlikely to attain competency at any other time.

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Subd. 4. Jail-based competency restoration programs; procedure. (a) A defendant is eligible to participate in a jail-based competency restoration program if the defendant has been found incompetent; the defendant has not met the conditions of release, including posting bail, ordered pursuant to rule 6.02 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure; and a court-appointed examiner has recommended jail-based competency restoration as the least restrictive setting to meet the person's needs.

(b) A defendant may not be ordered to participate in a jail-based competency restoration program for more than 90 days. If after 90 days of the order to a jail-based program the defendant has not attained competency, the court must proceed under section 611.49 to determine if the defendant is likely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future. If the court finds the defendant is likely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future, the court must determine if a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail is available and appropriate to meet the needs of the defendant and public safety, and may order the defendant to participate in the program. If the court does not find an appropriate program, the court must review the case with input from the prosecutor and defense counsel and must dismiss the case or conditionally release the defendant with conditions that include but are not limited to a requirement that the defendant participate in a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail when one is available and appropriate.

(c) Nothing in this section prohibits transitioning a defendant to a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail if the transition is appropriate or the defendant satisfies the conditions of release or bail.

(d) If a defendant is in custody and is ordered to a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail, the court may order time-limited placement in a jail-based program until transfer, if a jail-based program is available within a reasonable distance to the county where the defendant is present.

(e) When the court orders time-limited placement in a jail-based competency restoration program, the court's order must include a period of no more than 30 days by which the defendant must be transferred. If the defendant cannot be transferred to the certified competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail in the ordered time, the court shall determine whether to continue the defendant in the program or conditionally release the defendant and proceed under subdivision 5. If the defendant is transitioned to a competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail or an alternative program, the provisions of subdivision 2 shall apply.

Subd. 5. Alternative programs; procedure. (a) A defendant is eligible to participate in an alternative program if the defendant has been found incompetent, the defendant is entitled to release, and a certified competency restoration program outside of a jail is not available.

(b) As soon as the court has reason to believe that no competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail will be available within a reasonable time, the court must consult a forensic navigator to determine if there are available alternative programs that are likely to assist the defendant in attaining competency and may order the defendant to participate in appropriate alternative programs.

(c) If at any time while the defendant is participating in an alternative program the court or the forensic navigator determines that an appropriate competency restoration program that takes place outside of a jail will be available, the court must order the defendant to participate and transfer the defendant as soon as possible unless the court determines that the defendant is receiving appropriate competency restoration services in the alternative program.

(d) If after 90 days of the order to an alternative program the defendant has not attained competency, the court must proceed under section 611.49 to determine if the defendant is likely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future. If the court finds the defendant is likely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future, the court must determine if a competency restoration program is available and appropriate to meet the needs of the defendant and public safety and may order the defendant to the program. If the court does not find an appropriate program, the court must review the case with input from the prosecutor and defense counsel and must dismiss the case or continue the defendant in the alternative program.

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(e) If the defendant has not attained competency within 180 days from the date of the initial order, the court shall dismiss the criminal charges or order the defendant to participate in a competency restoration program pursuant to subdivision 2.

Subd. 6. Reporting to the court. (a) The court examiner must provide an updated report to the court at least once every six months as to the defendant's competency and a description of the efforts made to restore the defendant to competency.

(b) At any time, the head of the program may notify the court and recommend that a court examiner provide an updated competency examination and report.

(c) The court shall furnish copies of the report to the prosecutor, defense counsel, and the facility or program where the defendant is being served.

(d) The report may make recommendations for continued services to ensure continued competency. If the defendant is found guilty, these recommendations may be considered by the court in imposing a sentence, including any conditions of probation.

Subd. 7. Contested hearings. The prosecutor or defense counsel may request a hearing on the court examiner's competency opinion by filing written objections to the competency report no later than ten days after receiving the report. All parties are entitled to notice before the hearing. If the hearing is held, it shall conform with the procedures of section 611.44.

Subd. 8. Competency determination. (a) The court must determine whether the defendant is competent based on the updated report from the court examiner no more than 14 days after receiving the report.

(b) If the court finds the defendant competent, the court must enter an order and the criminal proceedings shall resume.

(c) If the court finds the defendant incompetent, the court may order the defendant to continue participating in a program as provided in this section or dismiss the criminal charges.

Sec. 8. [611.47] ADMINISTRATION OF MEDICATION.

Subdivision 1. Motion. When a court finds that a defendant is incompetent or any time thereafter, upon the motion of the prosecutor or treating medical provider, the court shall hear and determine whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of neuroleptic medication.

Subd. 2. Certification report. (a) If the defendant's treating medical practitioner is of the opinion that the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding neuroleptic medication, the treating medical practitioner shall certify in a report that the lack of capacity exists and which conditions under subdivision 3 are applicable. The certification report shall contain an assessment of the current mental status of the defendant and the opinion of the treating medical practitioner that involuntary neuroleptic medication has become medically necessary and appropriate under subdivision 3, paragraph (b), clause (1) or (2), or in the patient's best medical interest under subdivision 3, paragraph (b), clause (3). The certification report shall be filed with the court when a motion for a hearing is made under this section.

(b) A certification report made pursuant to this section shall include a description of the neuroleptic medication proposed to be administered to the defendant and its likely effects and side effects, including effects on the defendant's condition or behavior that would affect the defendant's ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner.

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(d) The court may appoint a court examiner to examine the defendant and report to the court and parties as to whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of neuroleptic medication. If the patient refuses to participate in an examination, the court examiner may rely on the patient's clinically relevant medical records in reaching an opinion.

(e) The defendant is entitled to a second court examiner under this section, if requested by the defendant.

Subd. 3. Determination. (a) The court shall consider opinions in the reports prepared under subdivision 2 as applicable to the issue of whether the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of neuroleptic medication and shall proceed under paragraph (b).

(b) The court shall hear and determine whether any of the following is true:

(1) the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding neuroleptic medication, as defined in section 253B.092, subdivision 5, the defendant's mental illness requires medical treatment with neuroleptic medication, and, if the defendant's mental illness is not treated with neuroleptic medication, it is probable that serious harm to the physical or mental health of the patient will result. Probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant requires evidence that the defendant is presently suffering adverse effects to the defendant's physical or mental health, or the defendant has previously suffered these effects as a result of a mental illness and the defendant's condition is substantially deteriorating or likely to deteriorate without administration of neuroleptic medication. The fact that a defendant has a diagnosis of a mental illness does not alone establish probability of serious harm to the physical or mental health of the defendant;

(2) the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding neuroleptic medication, as defined in section 253B.092, subdivision 5, neuroleptic medication is medically necessary, and the defendant is a danger to others, in that the defendant has inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial bodily harm on another while in custody, or the defendant had inflicted, attempted to inflict, or made a serious threat of inflicting substantial bodily harm on another that resulted in being taken into custody, and the defendant presents, as a result of mental illness or cognitive impairment, a demonstrated danger of inflicting substantial bodily harm on others. Demonstrated danger may be based on an assessment of the defendant's present mental condition, including a consideration of past behavior of the defendant and other relevant information; or

(3) the defendant lacks capacity to make decisions regarding neuroleptic medication, as defined in section 253B.092, subdivision 5, and the state has shown by clear and convincing evidence that:

(i) the state has charged the defendant with a serious crime against the person or property;

(ii) involuntary administration of neuroleptic medication is substantially likely to render the defendant competent to stand trial;

(iii) the medication is unlikely to have side effects that interfere with the defendant's ability to understand the nature of the criminal proceedings or to assist counsel in the conduct of a defense in a reasonable manner;

(iv) less intrusive treatments are unlikely to have substantially the same results and involuntary medication is necessary; and

(v) neuroleptic medication is in the patient's best medical interest in light of his or her medical condition.

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(1) what the patient would choose to do in the situation if the patient had capacity, including evidence such as a durable power of attorney for health care under chapter 145C;

(2) the defendant's family, community, moral, religious, and social values;

(3) the medical risks, benefits, and alternatives to the proposed treatment;

(4) past efficacy and any extenuating circumstances of past use of neuroleptic medications; and

(5) any other relevant factors.

(d) In determining whether the defendant possesses capacity to consent to neuroleptic medications, the court:

(1) must presume that a defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding administration of neuroleptic medication unless that presumption is overcome by sufficient evidence to the contrary;

(2) must find that a defendant has the capacity to make decisions regarding the administration of neuroleptic medication if the defendant:

(i) has an awareness of the nature of the defendant's situation and the possible consequences of refusing treatment with neuroleptic medications;

(ii) has an understanding of treatment with neuroleptic medications and the risks, benefits, and alternatives; and

(iii) communicates verbally or nonverbally a clear choice regarding treatment with neuroleptic medications that is a reasoned one not based on a symptom of the defendant's mental illness, even though it may not be in the defendant's best interests; and

(3) must not conclude that a defendant's decision is unreasonable based solely on a disagreement with the medical practitioner's recommendation.

(e) If consideration of the evidence presented on the factors in paragraph (c) weighs in favor of authorizing involuntary administration of neuroleptic medication, and the court finds any of the conditions described in paragraph (b) to be true, the court shall issue an order authorizing involuntary administration of neuroleptic medication to the defendant when and as prescribed by the defendant's medical practitioner, including administration by a treatment facility or correctional facility. The court order shall specify which medications are authorized and may limit the maximum dosage of neuroleptic medication that may be administered. The order shall be valid for no more than one year. An order may be renewed by filing another petition under this section and following the process in this section. The order shall terminate no later than the closure of the criminal case in which it is issued. The court shall not order involuntary administration of neuroleptic medication under paragraph (b), clause (3), unless the court has first found that the defendant does not meet the criteria for involuntary administration of neuroleptic medication under paragraph (b), clause (1), and does not meet the criteria under paragraph (b), clause (2).

(f) A copy of the order must be given to the defendant, the defendant's attorney, the county attorney, and the treatment facility or correctional facility where the defendant is being served. The treatment facility, correctional facility, or treating medical practitioner may not begin administration of the neuroleptic medication until it notifies the patient of the court's order authorizing the treatment.

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Subd. 4. Emergency administration. A treating medical practitioner may administer neuroleptic medication to a defendant who does not have capacity to make a decision regarding administration of the medication if the defendant is in an emergency situation. Medication may be administered for so long as the emergency continues to exist, up to 14 days, if the treating medical practitioner determines that the medication is necessary to prevent serious, immediate physical harm to the patient or to others. If a request for authorization to administer medication is made to the court within the 14 days, the treating medical practitioner may continue the medication through the date of the first court hearing, if the emergency continues to exist. The treating medical practitioner shall document the emergency in the defendant's medical record in specific behavioral terms.

Subd. 5. Administration without judicial review. Neuroleptic medications may be administered without judicial review under this subdivision if:

(1) the defendant has been prescribed neuroleptic medication prior to admission to a facility or program, but lacks the present capacity to consent to the administration of that neuroleptic medication; continued administration of the medication is in the patient's best interest; and the defendant does not refuse administration of the medication. In this situation, the previously prescribed neuroleptic medication may be continued for up to 14 days while the treating medical practitioner is requesting a court order authorizing administering neuroleptic medication or an amendment to a current court order authorizing administration of neuroleptic medication. If the treating medical practitioner requests a court order under this section within 14 days, the treating medical practitioner may continue administering the medication to the patient through the hearing date or until the court otherwise issues an order; or

(2) the defendant does not have the present capacity to consent to the administration of neuroleptic medication, but prepared a health care power of attorney or a health care directive under chapter 145C requesting treatment or authorizing an agent or proxy to request treatment, and the agent or proxy has requested the treatment.

Subd. 6. Defendants with capacity to make informed decision. If the court finds that the defendant has the capacity to decide whether to take neuroleptic medication, a facility or program may not administer medication without the patient's informed written consent or without the declaration of an emergency, or until further review by the court.

Subd. 7. Procedure when patient defendant refuses medication. If physical force is required to administer the neuroleptic medication, the facility or program may only use injectable medications. If physical force is needed to administer the medication, medication may only be administered in a setting where the person's condition can be reassessed and medical personnel qualified to administer medication are available, including in the community or a correctional facility. The facility or program may not use a nasogastric tube to administer neuroleptic medication involuntarily.

Sec. 9. [611.48] REVIEW HEARINGS.

The prosecutor or defense counsel may apply to the court for a hearing to review the defendant's competency restoration programming. All parties are entitled to notice before the hearing. The hearing shall be held no later than 30 days after the date of the request, unless extended upon agreement of the prosecutor and defense counsel or by the court for good cause.

Sec. 10. [611.49] UNLIKELY TO ATTAIN COMPETENCY.

Subdivision 1. Applicability. The court may find a defendant unlikely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future when:

(1) the most recent court examiner's report states that the defendant is not likely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future;

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(2) the defendant has not been restored to competency within one year of the finding of incompetence; or

(3) the defendant has not received timely competency restoration services under section 611.46, subdivision 3 or 4.

Subd. 2. Procedure. (a) The court must determine whether there is a substantial probability that the defendant will attain competency within the reasonably foreseeable future.

(b) If the court finds that there is a substantial probability that the defendant will attain competency within the reasonably foreseeable future, the court shall find the defendant incompetent and proceed under section 611.46, subdivision 7.

(c) If the court finds that there is not a substantial probability the defendant will attain competency within the reasonably foreseeable future, the court must either:

(1) dismiss the case unless the defendant is charged with a violation of section 609.185 (murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the second degree); 609.195 (murder in the third degree); 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree); 609.2112 (criminal vehicular homicide); 609.2114, subdivision 1 (criminal vehicular operation, death to an unborn child); 609.2661 (murder of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.2663 (murder of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.2664 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree); or 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the second degree);

(2) dismiss the case and issue an order to the designated agency in the county of financial responsibility or the county where the defendant is present to conduct a prepetition screening pursuant to section 253B.07; or

(3) order the continued supervision of the defendant under subdivision 3.

(d) Any party may request a hearing by submitting a written objection to the court-appointed examiner's report no more than ten days after the report is submitted. If a hearing is held under this subdivision, there is a presumption that the defendant will not attain competency within the reasonably foreseeable future. A party attempting to overcome that presumption must prove by a preponderance of the evidence that there is a substantial probability that restoration efforts will be successful within the reasonably foreseeable future.

Subd. 3. Continued supervision. (a) The court may order continued supervision of a defendant who is a danger to public safety and is charged with a felony violation of section 518B.01, subdivision 14; 609.165; 609.185; 609.19; 609.195; 609.20; 609.205; 609.2112; 609.2113; 609.2114; 609.221; 609.222; 609.223; 609.2231; 609.224; 609.2242; 609.2247; 609.228; 609.229; 609.2325; 609.233; 609.235; 609.24; 609.245; 609.25; 609.255; 609.2661; 609.2662; 609.2663; 609.2664; 609.2665; 609.267; 609.2671; 609.268; 609.322; 609.342; 609.343; 609.344; 609.345; 609.3451; 609.3458; 609.377; 609.3775; 609.378; 609.487; 609.498, subdivision 1; 609.561; 609.562; 609.563; 609.582, subdivision 1 or 2; 609.66, subdivision 1e; 609.687; 609.71; 609.713; 609.748, subdivision 6; 609.749; 609.855, subdivision 5; 624.713; or 629.75.

(b) Any party may request a hearing on the issue of continued supervision by submitting a written objection no more than ten days after the order for continued supervision.

(c) Any time the court orders the continued supervision of a defendant under this subdivision, the court shall clarify the willing entity or person responsible to the court for the supervision of the defendant, including but not limited to directing an appointed forensic navigator to be responsible for continued supervision.

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(d) The court must determine the most appropriate setting that is not a jail or locked treatment facility to meet the defendant's needs and public safety. The court shall consider the recommendations of the most-recent court examiner's report and consult with any resources available to the court.

(e) Notwithstanding the reporting requirements of section 611.46, subdivision 5, the court examiner must provide an updated report to the court one year after the initial order for continued supervision as to the defendant's competency and a description of the efforts made to restore the defendant to competency.

(f) If after one year of continued supervision under this section the court finds that there is a substantial probability that the defendant will attain competency within the reasonably foreseeable future, the court shall rule the defendant incompetent and proceed under section 611.46, subdivision 7.

(g) If after one year of continued supervision under this section the court finds that there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will attain competency within the reasonably foreseeable future, the court must consult the prosecutor and defense counsel and:

(1) dismiss the case; or

(2) if the defendant poses a danger to public safety, order continuing supervision.

(h) If the court orders continuing supervision under paragraph (g), the court must order an annual review of the defendant's status, including ordering that an updated competency examination and report be submitted to the court. At the annual review, the court must determine if the defendant has attained competency, if there is a substantial probability that the defendant will attain competency in the foreseeable future, and if the defendant poses a danger to public safety. If the court finds the defendant competent, the court must enter an order and the criminal proceedings shall resume. If the court finds that the defendant poses a danger to public safety, the court may continue the supervision. If the court finds that the defendant does not pose a danger to public safety, the court shall dismiss the charges. The court may not order continued supervision for more than ten years after a finding that a defendant is incompetent.

(h) At any time, the head of the program may notify the court and recommend that a court examiner provide an updated competency examination and report. At any time, the head of the program may discharge a defendant from the program or facility. The head of the program must notify the court, prosecutor, defense counsel, and the entity responsible for supervision of the defendant five business days prior to any planned discharge.

(i) The court may provide, partner, or contract for pretrial supervision services or continued supervision if the defendant is found incompetent and unlikely to attain competency in the reasonably foreseeable future.

Sec. 11. [611.50] DEFENDANT'S PARTICIPATION AND CONDUCT OF HEARINGS.

Subdivision 1. Place of hearing. Upon request of the prosecutor, defense counsel, or head of the treatment facility or state-operated treatment program, and approval by the court and the treatment facility or state-operated treatment program, a hearing may be held at a treatment facility or state-operated treatment program. A hearing may be conducted by interactive video conference consistent with the Rules of Criminal Procedure.

Subd. 2. Absence permitted. When a medical professional treating the defendant submits a written report stating that participating in a hearing under this statute is not in the best interest of the defendant and would be detrimental to the defendant's mental or physical health, the court shall notify the defense counsel and the defendant and allow the hearing to proceed without the defendant's participation.

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Subd. 3. Disruption of hearing. At any hearing required under this section, the court, on its motion or on the motion of any party, may exclude or excuse a defendant who is seriously disruptive, refuses to participate, or who is incapable of comprehending and participating in the proceedings. In such instances, the court shall, with specificity on the record, state the behavior of the defendant or other circumstances which justify proceeding in the absence of the defendant.

Subd. 4. Issues not requiring defendant's participation. The defendant's incompetence does not preclude the defense counsel from making an objection or defense before trial that can be fairly determined without the defendant's participation.

Sec. 12. [611.51] CREDIT FOR CONFINEMENT.

If the defendant is convicted, any time spent confined in a secured setting while being assessed and restored to competency must be credited as time served.

Sec. 13. EFFECTIVE DATE.

This article is effective July 1, 2023, and applies to competency determinations initiated on or after that date.

ARTICLE 2

COMPETENCY RESTORATION SERVICES

Section 1. [611.55] FORENSIC NAVIGATOR SERVICES.

Subdivision 1. Definition. As used in this section, "board" means the State Competency Restoration Board established in section 611.56.

Subd. 2. Availability of forensic navigator services. The board must provide or contract for enough forensic navigator services to meet the needs of adult defendants in each judicial district who are found incompetent to stand trial.

Subd. 3. Duties. (a) Forensic navigators shall serve as an impartial party in all legal matters relating to the defendant and the criminal case. Nothing shall be construed to permit the forensic navigator to provide legal counsel as a representative of the court, prosecutor, or defense counsel.

(b) Forensic navigators shall provide services to assist defendants with mental illnesses and cognitive impairments. Services may include, but are not limited to:

(1) developing dismissal plans;

(2) assisting defendants in participating in court-ordered examinations and hearings;

(3) coordinating timely placement in court-ordered competency restoration programs;

(4) providing competency restoration education;

(5) reporting to the court on the progress of defendants found incompetent to stand trial;

(6) providing coordinating services to help defendants access needed mental health, medical, housing, financial, social, transportation, precharge and pretrial diversion, and other necessary services provided by other programs and community service providers;

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(7) communicating with and offering supportive resources to defendants and family members of defendants; and

(8) providing consultation and education to court officials on emerging issues and innovations in serving defendants with mental illnesses in the court system.

(c) If a defendant's charges are dismissed, the appointed forensic navigator may continue assertive outreach with the individual for up to 90 days to assist in attaining stability in the community.

Subd. 4. Dismissal plans. (a) The forensic navigator must prepare dismissal plans with the defendant and submit them to the court. Dismissal plans must be submitted before the time the court makes a competency finding pursuant to section 611.45. The dismissal plan must include:

(1) a confirmed housing address the defendant will use upon release, including but not limited to emergency shelters;

(2) if possible, the dates, times, locations, and contact information for any appointments made to further coordinate support and assistance for the defendant in the community, including but not limited to mental health and substance use disorder treatment, or a list of referrals to services; and

(3) any other referrals, resources, or recommendations the forensic navigator or court deems necessary.

(b) Dismissal plans and any supporting records or other data submitted with those plans are not accessible to the public.

Sec. 2. [611.56] STATE COMPETENCY RESTORATION BOARD.

Subdivision 1. Establishment; membership. (a) The State Competency Restoration Board is established in the judicial branch. The board is not subject to the administrative control of the judiciary. The board shall consist of seven members, including:

(1) three members appointed by the supreme court, at least one of whom must be a defense attorney, one a county attorney, and one public member; and

(2) four members appointed by the governor.

(b) The appointing authorities may not appoint an active judge to be a member of the board, but may appoint a retired judge.

(c) All members must demonstrate an interest in maintaining a high quality, independent forensic navigator program and a thorough process for certification of competency restoration programs. Members shall be familiar with the Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, particularly rule 20; chapter 253B; and sections 611.40 to 611.59. Following the initial terms of appointment, at least one member appointed by the supreme court must have previous experience working as a forensic navigator. At least three members of the board shall live outside the First, Second, Fourth, and Tenth Judicial Districts. The terms, compensation, and removal of members shall be as provided in section 15.0575. The members shall elect the chair from among the membership for a term of two years.

Subd. 2. Duties and responsibilities. (a) The board shall create and administer a statewide, independent competency restoration system that certifies competency restoration programs and uses forensic navigators to promote prevention and diversion of people with mental illnesses and cognitive impairments from entering the legal system, support defendants with mental illness and cognitive impairments, support defendants in the competency process, and assist courts and partners in coordinating competency restoration services.

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(b) The board shall:

(1) approve and recommend to the legislature a budget for the board and the forensic navigator program;

(2) establish procedures for distribution of funding under this section to the forensic navigator program;

(3) establish forensic navigator standards, administrative policies, procedures, and rules consistent with statute, rules of court, and laws that affect a forensic navigator's work;

(4) establish certification requirements for competency restoration programs; and

(5) carry out the programs under sections 611.57, 611.58, and 611.59.

(1) adopt standards, policies, or procedures necessary to ensure quality assistance for defendants found incompetent to stand trial and charged with a felony, gross misdemeanor, or targeted misdemeanor, or for defendants found incompetent to stand trial who have recurring incidents;

(2) establish district forensic navigator offices as provided in subdivision 4; and

(3) propose statutory changes to the legislature and rule changes to the supreme court that would facilitate the effective operation of the forensic navigator program.

Subd. 3. Administrator. The board shall appoint a program administrator who serves at the pleasure of the board. The program administrator shall attend all meetings of the board and the Certification Advisory Committee, but may not vote, and shall:

(1) carry out all administrative functions necessary for the efficient and effective operation of the board and the program, including but not limited to hiring, supervising, and disciplining program staff and forensic navigators;

(2) implement, as necessary, resolutions, standards, rules, regulations, and policies of the board;

(3) keep the board fully advised as to its financial condition, and prepare and submit to the board the annual program and budget and other financial information as requested by the board;

(4) recommend to the board the adoption of rules and regulations necessary for the efficient operation of the board and the program; and

(5) perform other duties prescribed by the board.

Subd. 4. District offices. The board may establish district forensic navigator offices in counties, judicial districts, or other areas where the number of defendants receiving competency restoration services requires more than one full-time forensic navigator and establishment of an office is fiscally responsible and in the best interest of defendants found to be incompetent.

Subd. 5. Administration. The board may contract with the Office of State Court Administrator for administrative support services for the fiscal years following fiscal year 2022.

Subd. 6. Fees and costs; civil actions on contested case. Sections 15.039 and 15.471 to 15.474 apply to the State Competency Restoration Board.

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Sec. 3. [611.57] CERTIFICATION ADVISORY COMMITTEE.

Subdivision 1. Establishment. The Certification Advisory Committee is established to provide the State Competency Restoration Board with advice and expertise related to the certification of competency restoration programs, including jail-based programs.

Subd. 2. Membership. (a) The Certification Advisory Committee consists of the following members:

(1) a mental health professional, as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 18, with community behavioral health experience, appointed by the governor;

(2) a board-certified forensic psychiatrist with experience in competency evaluations, providing competency restoration services, or both, appointed by the governor;

(3) a board-certified forensic psychologist with experience in competency evaluations, providing competency restoration services, or both, appointed by the governor;

(4) a member of a human services board established pursuant to section 402.01, appointed by the governor;

(5) the direct care and treatment deputy commissioner or a designee;

(6) the president of the Minnesota Association of County Social Service Administrators or a designee;

(7) the president of the Minnesota Association of Community Mental Health Providers or a designee;

(8) the president of the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association or a designee; and

(9) the executive director of the National Alliance on Mental Illness Minnesota or a designee.

(b) Members of the advisory committee serve without compensation and at the pleasure of the appointing authority. Vacancies shall be filled by the appointing authority consistent with the qualifications of the vacating member required by this subdivision.

Subd. 3. Meetings. At its first meeting, the advisory committee shall elect a chair and may elect a vice-chair. The advisory committee shall meet at least monthly or upon the call the chair. The advisory committee shall meet sufficiently enough to accomplish the tasks identified in this section. Meetings of the advisory committee are subject to Minnesota Statutes, chapter 13D.

Subd. 4. Duties. The Certification Advisory Committee shall consult with the Department of Human Services, the Department of Health, and the Department of Corrections; make recommendations to the State Competency Restoration Board regarding competency restoration curriculum, certification requirements for competency restoration programs including jail-based programs, and certification of individuals to provide competency restoration services; and provide information and recommendations on other issues relevant to competency restoration as requested by the board.

Sec. 4. [611.58] COMPETENCY RESTORATION CURRICULUM AND CERTIFICATION.

Subdivision 1. Curriculum. (a) By January 1, 2023, the board must recommend a competency restoration curriculum to educate and assist defendants found incompetent in attaining the ability to:

(1) rationally consult with counsel;

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(2) understand the proceedings; and

(3) participate in the defense.

(b) The curriculum must be flexible enough to be delivered in community and correctional settings by individuals with various levels of education and qualifications, including but not limited to professionals in criminal justice, health care, mental health care, and social services. The board must review and update the curriculum as needed.

Subd. 2. Certification and distribution. By January 1, 2023, the board must develop a process for certifying individuals to deliver the competency restoration curriculum and make the curriculum available to every certified competency restoration program and forensic navigator in the state. Each competency restoration program in the state must use the competency restoration curriculum under this section as the foundation for delivering competency restoration education and must not substantially alter the content.

Sec. 5. [611.59] COMPETENCY RESTORATION PROGRAMS.

Subdivision 1. Certification. The board, in consultation with the Certification Advisory Committee, shall develop procedures to certify that the standards in this section are met, including procedures for regular recertification of competency restoration programs. The board shall maintain a list of certified competency restoration programs on the board's website to be updated at least once every year.

Subd. 2. Competency restoration provider standards. Except for jail-based programs, a competency restoration provider must:

(1) be able to provide the appropriate mental health or substance use disorder treatment ordered by the court, including but not limited to treatment in inpatient, residential, and home-based settings;

(2) ensure that competency restoration education certified by the board is provided to defendants and that regular assessments of defendants' progress in attaining competency are documented;

(3) designate a head of the program knowledgeable in the processes and requirements of the competency to stand trial procedures; and

(4) develop staff procedures or designate a person responsible to ensure timely communication with the court system.

Subd. 3. Jail-based competency restoration standards. Jail-based competency restoration programs must be housed in correctional facilities licensed by the Department of Corrections under section 241.021 and must:

(1) have a designated program director who meets minimum qualification standards set by the board, including understanding the requirements of competency to stand trial procedures;

(2) provide minimum mental health services including:

(i) multidisciplinary staff sufficient to monitor defendants and provide timely assessments, treatment, and referrals as needed, including at least one medical professional licensed to prescribe psychiatric medication;

(ii) prescribing, dispensing, and administering any medication deemed clinically appropriate by qualified medical professionals; and

(iii) policies and procedures for the administration of involuntary medication;

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(3) ensure that competency restoration education certified by the board is provided to defendants and regular assessments of defendants' progress in attaining competency to stand trial are documented;

(4) develop staff procedures or designate a person responsible to ensure timely communication with the court system; and

(5) designate a space in the correctional facility for the program.

Subd. 2. Program evaluations. (a) The board shall collect the following data:

(1) the total number of competency examinations ordered in each judicial district separated by county;

(2) the age, race, and number of unique defendants and for whom at least one competency examination was ordered in each judicial district separated by county;

(3) the age, race, and number of unique defendants found incompetent at least once in each judicial district separated by county; and

(4) all available data on the level of charge and adjudication of cases with a defendant found incompetent and whether a forensic navigator was assigned to the case.

(b) By February 15 of each year, the board must report to the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over human services, public safety, and the judiciary on the data collected under this subdivision and may include recommendations for statutory or funding changes related to competency restoration.

ARTICLE 3

CONFORMING CHANGES AND APPROPRIATIONS

Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 253B.07, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:

Subd. 2a. Petition originating from criminal proceedings. (a) If criminal charges are pending against a defendant, the court shall order simultaneous competency and civil commitment examinations in accordance with Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.04, when the following conditions are met:

(1) the prosecutor or defense counsel doubts the defendant's competency and a motion is made challenging competency, or the court on its initiative raises the issue under section 611.42 or Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.01; and

(2) the prosecutor and defense counsel agree simultaneous examinations are appropriate.

No additional examination under subdivision 3 is required in a subsequent civil commitment proceeding unless a second examination is requested by defense counsel appointed following the filing of any petition for commitment.

(b) Only a court examiner may conduct an assessment as described in section 611.43 or Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rules 20.01, subdivision 4, and 20.02, subdivision 2.

(c) Where a county is ordered to consider civil commitment following a determination of incompetency under section 611.45 or Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.01, the county in which the criminal matter is pending is responsible to conduct prepetition screening and, if statutory conditions for commitment are satisfied, to file the commitment petition in that county. By agreement between county attorneys, prepetition screening and filing the petition may be handled in the county of financial responsibility or the county where the proposed patient is present.

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(d) Following an acquittal of a person of a criminal charge under section 611.026, the petition shall be filed by the county attorney of the county in which the acquittal took place and the petition shall be filed with the court in which the acquittal took place, and that court shall be the committing court for purposes of this chapter. When a petition is filed pursuant to subdivision 2 with the court in which acquittal of a criminal charge took place, the court shall assign the judge before whom the acquittal took place to hear the commitment proceedings unless that judge is unavailable.

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 253B.10, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Administrative requirements. (a) When a person is committed, the court shall issue a warrant or an order committing the patient to the custody of the head of the treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program. The warrant or order shall state that the patient meets the statutory criteria for civil commitment.

(b) The commissioner shall prioritize patients being admitted from jail or a correctional institution who are:

(1) ordered confined in a state-operated treatment program for an examination under section 611.43 or Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rules 20.01, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), and 20.02, subdivision 2;

(2) under civil commitment for competency treatment and continuing supervision under section 611.46 or Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.01, subdivision 7;

(3) found not guilty by reason of mental illness under Minnesota Rules of Criminal Procedure, rule 20.02, subdivision 8, and under civil commitment or are ordered to be detained in a state-operated treatment program pending completion of the civil commitment proceedings; or

(4) committed under this chapter to the commissioner after dismissal of the patient's criminal charges.

Patients described in this paragraph must be admitted to a state-operated treatment program within 48 hours. The commitment must be ordered by the court as provided in section 253B.09, subdivision 1, paragraph (d).

(c) Upon the arrival of a patient at the designated treatment facility, state-operated treatment program, or community-based treatment program, the head of the facility or program shall retain the duplicate of the warrant and endorse receipt upon the original warrant or acknowledge receipt of the order. The endorsed receipt or acknowledgment must be filed in the court of commitment. After arrival, the patient shall be under the control and custody of the head of the facility or program.

(d) Copies of the petition for commitment, the court's findings of fact and conclusions of law, the court order committing the patient, the report of the court examiners, and the prepetition report, and any medical and behavioral information available shall be provided at the time of admission of a patient to the designated treatment facility or program to which the patient is committed. Upon a patient's referral to the commissioner of human services for admission pursuant to subdivision 1, paragraph (b), any inpatient hospital, treatment facility, jail, or correctional facility that has provided care or supervision to the patient in the previous two years shall, when requested by the treatment facility or commissioner, provide copies of the patient's medical and behavioral records to the Department of Human Services for purposes of preadmission planning. This information shall be provided by the head of the treatment facility to treatment facility staff in a consistent and timely manner and pursuant to all applicable laws.

Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 480.182, is amended to read:

480.182 STATE ASSUMPTION OF CERTAIN COURT COSTS.

Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the state courts will pay for the following court-related programs and costs:

(1) court interpreter program costs, including the costs of hiring court interpreters;

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(2) guardian ad litem program and personnel costs;

(3) examination costs, not including hospitalization or treatment costs, for mental commitments and related proceedings under chapter 253B;

(4) examination costs under chapter 611 or rule 20 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure;

(5) in forma pauperis costs;

(6) costs for transcripts mandated by statute, except in appeal cases and postconviction cases handled by the Board of Public Defense;

(7) jury program costs; and

(8) witness fees and mileage fees specified in sections 253B.23, subdivision 1; 260B.152, subdivision 2; 260B.331, subdivision 3, clause (1); 260C.152, subdivision 2; 260C.331, subdivision 3, clause (1); 357.24; 357.32; and 627.02.

Sec. 4. STATE COMPETENCY RESTORATION BOARD; APPROPRIATIONS.

Subdivision 1. Operations. $....... in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the general fund to the State Competency Restoration Board for staff and establishment of the office.

Subd. 2. Forensic navigators. $....... in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the general fund to the State Competency Restoration Board for the costs associated with providing forensic navigator services in each judicial district.

Subd. 3. Competency restoration programs and providers. $....... in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the general fund to the State Competency Restoration Board to establish certification standards for competency restoration programs and providers in each of the ten judicial districts."

Delete the title and insert:

"A bill for an act relating to judiciary; establishing a statutory procedure to assess the competency of a defendant to stand trial; providing for contested hearings; establishing continuing supervision for certain defendants found incompetent to stand trial; establishing requirements to restore certain defendants to competency; providing for administration of medication; establishing forensic navigators; requiring forensic navigators to provide services to certain defendants; establishing dismissal plans for certain defendants found incompetent to stand trial; providing for jail-based competency restoration programs; establishing the State Competency Restoration Board and certification advisory committee; requiring a report; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 253B.07, subdivision 2a; 253B.10, subdivision 1; 480.182; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 611."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means.

The report was adopted.

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Liebling from the Committee on Health Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3403, A bill for an act relating to professional licensing; establishing a preliminary application procedure for individuals seeking professional licenses; permitting licensing boards to charge application fees; authorizing appeals; requiring reports; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 214.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, delete lines 9 to 12 and insert:

"Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meaning given.

(b) "Conviction" has the meaning given in section 609.02, subdivision 5.

(d) "State licensor" or "licensor" means a state agency or examining and licensing board, including a health‑related licensing board and non-health-related licensing board that issues an occupational or professional license, registration, or certificate and considers before issuing the license, registration, or certificate any criminal record or conviction of an applicant that may make an applicant ineligible to receive the license, registration, or certificate.

Subd. 2. Scope. (a) This section does not apply to a license, registration, or certificate issued by a state licensor if the license, registration, or certificate does not require an applicant to report to the state licensor as part of the application process the applicant's criminal record or does not require an applicant to obtain a criminal background check or study as part of the application process to obtain the license, registration, or certificate.

(b) The preliminary application process described under this section may only be utilized by an individual who has a criminal record."

Renumber the subdivisions in sequence

Page 1, line 14, delete "a person" and insert "an individual"

Page 1, line 15, delete everything after "criminal" and insert "record or conviction"

Page 1, line 16, delete "misconduct"

Page 1, line 17, delete "person" and insert "individual"

Page 1, line 21, delete "a copy of" and insert "information about"

Page 1, line 22, delete "or complete a background check or background study if required by statute"

Page 2, line 1, delete everything after "licensor" and insert a period

Page 2, delete line 2

Page 2, line 16, after "criminal" insert "record or"

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Page 2, line 17, delete everything before "that"

Page 2, line 21, after "criminal" insert "record or" and delete "or other record of alleged misconduct"

Page 2, line 30, after "criminal" insert "records or" and delete "or other records of alleged"

Page 2, line 31, delete "misconduct"

Page 2, line 32, delete "the applicant"

Page 2, line 33, before "is" insert "the applicant"

Page 3, line 1, before "provided" insert "the applicant" and delete "or"

Page 3, line 2, before "provided" insert "the applicant" and delete the period and insert "; or"

Page 3, after line 2, insert:

"(4) changes to state law were enacted after the date the decision was issued, making the applicant ineligible under state law to receive a license, registration, or certificate.

(f) Nothing in this section shall preclude a licensor from issuing a license, registration, or certificate to an applicant that includes limitations or conditions on the license, registration, or certificate based on a criminal conviction or alleged misconduct of the applicant.

(g) By August 1 of each year, each state licensor shall submit to the commissioner of management and budget the number of applicants who submitted preliminary applications to the licensor in accordance with this section and the number of applicants who subsequently applied for a license, registration, or certificate for the previous fiscal year. The state licensor shall also submit the total amount of initial application fees that were not paid by these applicants pursuant to paragraph (c), or, if the licensor does not collect a fee for issuing a license, registration, or certificate, the cost of processing the preliminary application fee that was not covered pursuant to paragraph (c). Each fiscal year, an amount necessary to pay each state licensor the rest of each initial application fee or the rest of the cost of processing each preliminary application if an initial application fee was not collected by the licensor is appropriated from the general fund to the appropriate state licensor."

Page 3, lines 8 and 12, after "criminal" insert "record or" and delete "or other record of alleged misconduct"

Amend the title as follows:

Page 1, line 4 after "reports;" insert "appropriating money;"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means.

The report was adopted.

Lillie from the Committee on Legacy Finance to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3438, A bill for an act relating to legacy; appropriating money to maintain dedicated funding website.

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Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"ARTICLE 1

OUTDOOR HERITAGE FUND

Section 1. APPROPRIATIONS.

The sums shown in the columns marked "Appropriations" are appropriated to the agencies and for the purposes specified in this article. The appropriations are from the outdoor heritage fund for the fiscal year indicated for each purpose. The figures "2022" and "2023" used in this article mean that the appropriations listed under the figure are available for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2022, and June 30, 2023, respectively. The "first year" is fiscal year 2022. The "second year" is fiscal year 2023. The "biennium" is fiscal years 2022 and 2023. The appropriations in this article are onetime appropriations.

Sec. 2. OUTDOOR HERITAGE FUND

Subdivision 1. Total Appropriation

$-0-

$159,049,000

This appropriation is from the outdoor heritage fund. The amounts that may be spent for each purpose are specified in the following subdivisions.

Subd. 2. Prairies

-0-

35,033,000

(a) Accelerating the Wildlife Management Area Program, Phase XIV

$5,660,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Pheasants Forever to acquire in fee and restore and enhance lands for wildlife management area purposes under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8. Subject to evaluation criteria in Minnesota Rules, part 6136.0900, priority must be given to acquiring lands that are eligible for the native prairie bank under Minnesota Statutes, section 84.96, or lands adjacent to protected native prairie. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(b) RIM Grasslands Reserve, Phase IV

$4,536,000 the second year is to the Board of Water and Soil Resources to acquire permanent conservation easements and to restore and enhance grassland habitat under Minnesota Statutes, sections 103F.501 to 103F.531. Of this amount, up to $73,000 is

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to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the final report.

(c) Prairie Chicken Habitat Partnership of the Southern Red River Valley, Phase VIII

$4,440,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Pheasants Forever, in cooperation with the Minnesota Prairie Chicken Society, to acquire land in fee and restore and enhance lands within the southern Red River Valley for wildlife management purposes under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8, or lands to be designated and managed as waterfowl production areas in Minnesota, in cooperation with the United States Fish and Wildlife Service. Subject to evaluation criteria in Minnesota Rules, part 6136.0900, priority must be given to acquiring lands that are eligible for the native prairie bank under Minnesota Statutes, section 84.96, or lands adjacent to protected native prairie. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(d) Minnesota Prairie Recovery Program, Phase XII

$4,512,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with The Nature Conservancy to acquire land in fee and restore and enhance native prairie, grasslands, wetlands, and savanna. Subject to evaluation criteria in Minnesota Rules, part 6136.0900, priority must be given to acquiring lands that are eligible for the native prairie bank under Minnesota Statutes, section 84.96, or lands adjacent to protected native prairie. Annual income statements and balance sheets for income and expenses from land acquired with this appropriation must be submitted to the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council no later than 180 days following the close of The Nature Conservancy's fiscal year. A list of proposed land acquisitions, restorations, and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan and must be consistent with the priorities identified in the Minnesota Prairie Conservation Plan.

(e) Enhanced Public Land - Open Landscapes, Phase II

$2,557,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Pheasants Forever, in cooperation with the Minnesota Sharp-Tailed Grouse Society, to acquire land in fee under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8, and restore and enhance lands for wildlife management purposes. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

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(f) RIM Buffers for Wildlife and Water, Phase X

$4,392,000 the second year is to the Board of Water and Soil Resources to acquire permanent conservation easements and restore habitat under Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.515, to protect, restore, and enhance habitat by expanding the riparian buffer program under the clean water fund for additional wildlife benefits from buffers on private land. Of this amount, up to $111,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the final report.

(g) Northern Tallgrass Prairie National Wildlife Refuge Land Acquisition, Phase XIII

$3,870,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with The Nature Conservancy, in cooperation with the United States Fish and Wildlife Service, to acquire land in fee or permanent conservation easements and restore and enhance lands within the Northern Tallgrass Prairie Habitat Preservation Area in western Minnesota for addition to the Northern Tallgrass Prairie National Wildlife Refuge. Subject to evaluation criteria in Minnesota Rules, part 6136.0900, priority must be given to acquiring lands that are eligible for the native prairie bank under Minnesota Statutes, section 84.96, or lands adjacent to protected native prairie. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan and must be consistent with the priorities in the Minnesota Prairie Conservation Plan.

(h) Martin County DNR WMA Acquisition, Phase VI

$1,978,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements to acquire land in fee and restore and enhance strategic prairie grassland, wetland, and other wildlife habitat in Martin and Watonwan Counties for wildlife management area purposes under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8, as follows: $1,512,000 to Fox Lake Conservation League, Inc.; $417,000 to Ducks Unlimited; and $49,000 to The Conservation Fund. A list of proposed acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(i) DNR Grassland Enhancement, Phase XIV

$3,088,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to accelerate the restoration and enhancement of prairies, grasslands, and savannas in wildlife management areas, in scientific and natural areas, in aquatic management areas, on lands in the native prairie bank, in bluff prairies on state forest land in

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southeastern Minnesota, and in waterfowl production areas and refuge lands of the United States Fish and Wildlife Service. A list of proposed land restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

Subd. 3. Forests

-0-

13,261,000

(a) Minnesota Forest Recovery Project, Phase II

$4,585,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with The Nature Conservancy in cooperation with the Department of Natural Resources and Minnesota Land Trust to acquire permanent conservation easements and restore and enhance degraded forests in Beltrami, Cass, Cook, Itasca, Lake, Koochiching, and St. Louis Counties. Of this amount, up to $179,000 is to the easement holder to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed permanent conservation easements, restorations, and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(b) Camp Ripley Sentinel Landscape Protection Program ACUB, Phase X

$2,983,000 the second year is to the Board of Water and Soil Resources, in cooperation with the Morrison County Soil and Water Conservation District, to acquire permanent conservation easements and restore and enhance forest wildlife habitat within the boundaries of the Minnesota National Guard Camp Ripley Sentinel Landscape and Army Compatible Use Buffer. Up to $189,000 to the Board of Water and Soil Resources is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the final report.

(c) Minnesota Forests for the Future, Phase IX

$2,501,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to acquire lands in conservation easements and to restore and enhance forests, wetlands, and shoreline habitat through working forest permanent conservation easements under the Minnesota forests for the future program according to Minnesota Statutes, section 84.66. A conservation easement acquired with money appropriated under this paragraph must comply with Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 13. The accomplishment plan must include an easement monitoring and enforcement plan. Of this amount, up to $220,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the

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accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan. A list of permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the final report.

(d) Big Woods Protection at Stieg Woods

$1,020,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with the city of Rogers to acquire land in fee and restore and enhance forest habitat for wildlife in Hennepin County. A list of proposed acquisitions, restorations, and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(e) DNR Forest Habitat Enhancement, Phase II

$2,172,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to restore and enhance wildlife habitat within the northern forest region in wildlife management areas, scientific and natural areas, aquatic management areas, and state forests. A list of proposed land restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

Subd. 4. Wetlands

-0-

26,771,000

(a) Accelerating the Waterfowl Production Area Acquisition Program, Phase XIV

$5,537,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Pheasants Forever, in cooperation with the United States Fish and Wildlife Service, to acquire land in fee and restore and enhance wetlands and grasslands to be designated and managed as waterfowl production areas in Minnesota. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(b) Wetland Habitat Protection and Restoration Program, Phase VII

$3,330,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Minnesota Land Trust to acquire permanent conservation easements and restore and enhance prairie, wetland, and other habitat on permanently protected conservation easements within high-priority wetland habitat complexes in the prairie and forest/prairie transition regions. Of this amount, up to $240,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund, as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed conservation easement acquisitions, restorations, and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

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(c) Wild-Rice Shoreland Protection, Phase VIII

$1,470,000 the second year is to the Board of Water and Soil Resources to acquire permanent conservation easements on wild‑rice lake shoreland habitat for native wild-rice bed protection. Of this amount, up to $91,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the final report.

(d) Shallow Lake and Wetland Protection and Restoration Program, Phase XI

$4,779,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Ducks Unlimited to acquire land in fee for wildlife management purposes under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8, and to restore and enhance prairie lands, wetlands, and land buffering shallow lakes. A list of proposed acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(e) RIM Wetlands, Phase XI

$4,199,000 the second year is to the Board of Water and Soil Resources to acquire permanent conservation easements and to restore wetlands and native grassland habitat under Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.515. Of this amount, up to $78,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the final report.

(f) Living Shallow Lake Enhancement and Wetland Restoration Initiative, Phase VIII

$5,155,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Ducks Unlimited to restore and enhance shallow lakes and wetlands on public lands and wetlands under permanent conservation easement for wildlife management. A list of proposed shallow lake enhancements and wetland restorations must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(g) Accelerated Shallow Lakes and Wetland Enhancement, Phase XIV

$2,301,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to enhance and restore shallow lakes and wetland habitat statewide. A list of proposed shallow lake and wetland restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

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Subd. 5. Habitats

-0-

83,361,000

(a) Dakota County Habitat Protection/Restoration, Phase VIII

$6,066,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Dakota County to acquire permanent conservation easements and land in fee and to restore and enhance riparian and other wildlife habitats in Dakota County. A list of proposed land acquisitions and restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(b) Integrating Habitat and Clean Water

$2,358,000 the second year is to the Board of Water and Soil Resources to acquire permanent conservation easements and restore and enhance wildlife habitat identified in One Watershed, One Plan for stacked benefit to wildlife and clean water. Up to $65,000 of the total amount is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed acquisitions must be included as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(c) Protecting Coldwater Fisheries on Minnesota's North Shore, Phase II

$3,395,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Minnesota Land Trust to acquire permanent conservation easements and to restore and enhance wildlife habitat in priority coldwater tributaries to Lake Superior. Of this amount, up to $240,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed conservation easement acquisitions, restorations, and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(d) Southeast Minnesota Protection and Restoration, Phase X

$5,358,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements as follows: (1) $1,817,000 to The Nature Conservancy to acquire lands in fee for wildlife management under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8; for scientific and natural areas under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 5; for state forests under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 7; and for aquatic management areas under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 14, and to restore and enhance wildlife habitat; (2) $1,430,000 to The Trust for Public Land to acquire lands in fee for wildlife management under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8; for scientific

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and natural areas under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 5; for state forests under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 7; and for aquatic management areas under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 14; and (3) $2,111,000 to Minnesota Land Trust to acquire permanent conservation easements and to restore and enhance wildlife habitat, of which $216,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(e) Mississippi Headwaters Habitat Corridor Project, Phase VII

$5,465,000 the second year is to acquire lands in fee and permanent conservation easements and to restore wildlife habitat in the Mississippi headwaters. Of this amount, (1) $3,814,000 is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements as follows: $54,000 is to the Mississippi Headwaters Board and $3,760,000 is to The Trust for Public Land; and (2) $1,651,000 is to the Board of Water and Soil Resources, of which up to $150,000 is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed acquisitions must be included as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(f) Shell Rock River Watershed Habitat Restoration Program, Phase XI

$1,438,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with the Shell Rock River Watershed District to acquire land in fee and to restore and enhance habitat in the Shell Rock River watershed. A list of proposed acquisitions, restorations, and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(g) DNR Wildlife Management Area and Scientific and Natural Area Acquisition, Phase XIV

$1,426,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to acquire in fee and restore and enhance lands for wildlife management purposes under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8, and to acquire land in fee for scientific and natural area purposes under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 5. Subject to evaluation criteria in Minnesota Rules, part 6136.0900, priority must be given to acquiring lands that are eligible for the native prairie bank under Minnesota Statutes, section 84.96, or lands adjacent to protected native prairie. A list of proposed land acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

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(h) Cannon River Watershed Habitat Restoration and Protection Program, Phase XI

$2,636,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with The Trust for Public Land, in cooperation with Great River Greening and Clean River Partners, to acquire lands in fee in the Cannon River watershed for wildlife management under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8; to acquire lands in fee for aquatic management purposes under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 14; to acquire lands in fee for scientific and natural areas under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 5; to acquire lands in fee for state forests under Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 7; to acquire lands in fee for county forests or natural areas; and to restore and enhance lands in the Cannon River watershed. Of this amount, $1,651,000 is to The Trust for Public Land; $828,000 is to Great River Greening; and $157,000 is to Clean River Partners. Subject to evaluation criteria in Minnesota Rules, part 6136.0900, priority must be given to acquiring lands that are eligible for the native prairie bank under Minnesota Statutes, section 84.96, or lands adjacent to protected native prairie. A list of proposed land acquisitions and restorations must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(i) Washington County Habitat Protection and Restoration Partnership

$4,288,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements to acquire permanent conservation easements and to restore and enhance wildlife habitat on public lands and easements in Washington County as follows: $968,000 is to Washington County and $3,320,000 is to Minnesota Land Trust, of which up to $288,000 to Minnesota Land Trust is to establish monitoring and enforcement funds as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed permanent conservation easements, restorations, and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(j) Metro Big Rivers, Phase XII

$8,200,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements to acquire land in fee and permanent conservation easements and to restore and enhance natural habitat systems associated with the Mississippi, Minnesota, and St. Croix Rivers and their tributaries within the metropolitan area as follows: $1,100,000 to Minnesota Valley National Wildlife Refuge Trust, Inc.; $643,000 to Friends of the Mississippi River; $742,000 to Great River Greening; $2,927,000 to Trust for Public Land; and $2,788,000 to Minnesota Land Trust, of which up to $216,000 to

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Minnesota Land Trust is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of proposed land acquisitions and permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(k) St. Croix Watershed Habitat Protection and Restoration, Phase III

$3,704,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements as follows: (1) $1,449,000 to The Trust for Public Land to acquire land in fee; (2) $2,160,000 to Minnesota Land Trust to acquire permanent conservation easements and to restore and enhance natural habitat systems in the St. Croix River watershed. Of this amount, up to $192,000 to Minnesota Land Trust is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17; and (3) $95,000 to the Wild Rivers Conservancy to coordinate and administer the program under this paragraph. A list of proposed land acquisitions and permanent conservation easements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(l) Fisheries Habitat Protection on Strategic North Central Minnesota Lakes, Phase VIII

$4,536,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements to acquire land in fee and permanent conservation easements and to restore and enhance wildlife habitat to sustain healthy fish habitat on coldwater lakes in Aitkin, Cass, Crow Wing, and Hubbard Counties as follows: $1,853,000 to Northern Waters Land Trust; and $2,683,000 to Minnesota Land Trust, of which up to $216,000 to Minnesota Land Trust is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(m) Sauk River Watershed Habitat Protection and Restoration, Phase IV

$4,091,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for agreements to acquire lands in fee and permanent conservation easements and restore and enhance wildlife habitat in the Sauk River watershed as follows: $1,601,000 to Sauk River Watershed District; $1,245,000 to Pheasants Forever; and $1,245,000 to Minnesota Land Trust. Up to $192,000 to Minnesota Land Trust is to establish a monitoring and enforcement fund as approved in the accomplishment plan and subject to Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 17. A list of acquisitions must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

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(n) DNR Aquatic Habitat Restoration and Enhancement, Phase V

$5,177,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to restore and enhance aquatic habitat in degraded streams and aquatic management areas and to facilitate fish passage. A list of proposed land restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(o) Klondike Clean Water Retention Project, Phase II

$988,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Two Rivers Watershed District to construct a multipurpose water impoundment project in Kittson and Roseau Counties to provide fish and wildlife habitat. A list of restoration and enhancement projects must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(p) Buffalo River Watershed Stream Habitat Program, Phase II

$2,407,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with the Buffalo-Red River Watershed District to restore and enhance aquatic and upland habitat associated with the Buffalo River and tributaries in the Buffalo River watershed. A list of proposed restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(q) St. Louis River Restoration Initiative, Phase IX

$4,916,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to restore and enhance priority aquatic, riparian, and forest habitats in the St. Louis River estuary. Of this amount, up to $964,000 is for an agreement with Minnesota Land Trust. A list of proposed restorations must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(r) DNR Fish Passage Enhancement through Targeted Culvert Replacement, Phase I

$852,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources to restore and enhance fish passage in coldwater streams through targeted culvert replacement in Lake County. A list of proposed restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(s) Restoring and Enhancing Minnesota's Important Bird Areas, Phase III

$2,140,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Audubon Minnesota to restore and enhance wildlife habitat within important bird areas in northwestern Minnesota or Minnesota Prairie Conservation Plan priority areas. A list of proposed land restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

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(t) Enhance Metro and North Shore Trout Stream Habitats

$1,158,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with Trout Unlimited to restore and enhance habitat for trout and other species in and along coldwater rivers, lakes, and streams in the metro, North Shore, and southeast regions of Minnesota. A list of proposed restorations and enhancements must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(u) Daylighting Phalen Creek

$3,312,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an agreement with the Lower Phalen Creek Project to restore and enhance priority aquatic and riparian habitats associated with Phalen Creek in St. Paul. A list of proposed restorations must be provided as part of the required accomplishment plan.

(v) Conservation Partners Legacy Grant Program: Statewide and Metro Habitat, Phase XIV

$9,450,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for a program to provide competitive matching grants of up to $500,000 to local, regional, state, and national organizations for enhancing, restoring, or protecting forests, wetlands, prairies, or habitat for fish, game, or wildlife in Minnesota. Of this amount, at least $2,500,000 is for grants in the seven-county metropolitan area and cities with a population of 50,000 or greater. Grants must not be made for activities required to fulfill the duties of owners of lands subject to conservation easements. Grants must not be made from the appropriation in this paragraph for projects that have a total project cost exceeding $1,000,000. Of the total appropriation, $450,000 may be spent for personnel costs and other direct and necessary administrative costs. Grantees may acquire land or interests in land. Easements must be permanent. Grants may not be used to establish easement stewardship accounts. Land acquired in fee must be open to hunting and fishing during the open season unless otherwise provided by law. The program must require a match of at least ten percent from nonstate sources for all grants. The match may be cash or in-kind resources. For grant applications of $25,000 or less, the commissioner must provide a separate, simplified application process. Subject to Minnesota Statutes, the commissioner of natural resources must, when evaluating projects of equal value, give priority to organizations that have a history of receiving, or a charter to receive, private contributions for local conservation or habitat projects. For grant requests to acquire land in fee or a conservation easement, the commissioner must give priority to projects associated with or within one mile of existing wildlife management areas under

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Minnesota Statutes, section 86A.05, subdivision 8; scientific and natural areas under Minnesota Statutes, sections 84.033 and 86A.05, subdivision 5; or aquatic management areas under Minnesota Statutes, sections 86A.05, subdivision 14, and 97C.02. All restoration or enhancement projects must be on land permanently protected by a permanent covenant ensuring perpetual maintenance and protection of restored and enhanced habitat, by a conservation easement or public ownership, or in public waters as defined in Minnesota Statutes, section 103G.005, subdivision 15. Priority must be given to restoration and enhancement projects on public lands. Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 13, applies to grants awarded under this paragraph. This appropriation is available until June 30, 2026. No less than five percent of the amount of each grant must be held back from reimbursement until the grant recipient has completed a grant accomplishment report by the deadline and in the form prescribed by and satisfactory to the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council. The commissioner must provide notice of the grant program in the summary of game and fish law prepared under Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.051, subdivision 2.

Subd. 6. Administration

-0-

623,000

(a) Contract Management

$300,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for contract management duties assigned in this section. The commissioner must provide an accomplishment plan in the form specified by the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council on expending this appropriation. The accomplishment plan must include a copy of the grant contract template and reimbursement manual. No money may be expended before the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council approves the accomplishment plan.

(b) Technical Evaluation Panel

$200,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for a technical evaluation panel to conduct up to 25 restoration and enhancement evaluations under Minnesota Statutes, section 97A.056, subdivision 10.

(c) Initial Development Plan Coordinator

$123,000 the second year is to the commissioner of natural resources for an initial development plan coordinator position to coordinate, manage, and report on the initial development, restoration, and enhancement of fee title acquisitions in wildlife management areas and aquatic management areas that were acquired with money from the outdoor heritage fund.

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Subd. 7. Availability of Appropriation

(a) Money appropriated in this section may not be spent on activities unless they are directly related to and necessary for a specific appropriation and are specified in the accomplishment plan approved by the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council. Money appropriated in this section must not be spent on indirect costs or other institutional overhead charges that are not directly related to and necessary for a specific appropriation. Money appropriated to acquire land in fee may be used to restore, enhance, and provide for public use of the land acquired with the appropriation. Public-use facilities must have a minimal impact on habitat in acquired lands.

(b) Money appropriated in this section is available as follows:

(1) money appropriated for acquiring real property is available until June 30, 2026;

(2) money appropriated for restoring and enhancing land acquired with an appropriation in this article is available for four years after the acquisition date with a maximum end date of June 30, 2030;

(3) money appropriated for restoring or enhancing other land is available until June 30, 2027;

(4) notwithstanding clauses (1) to (3), money appropriated for a project that receives at least 15 percent of its funding from federal funds is available until a date sufficient to match the availability of federal funding to a maximum of six years if the federal funding was confirmed and included in the original approved draft accomplishment plan; and

(5) money appropriated for other projects is available until the end of the fiscal year in which it is appropriated.

Subd. 8. Payment Conditions and Capital Equipment Expenditures

All agreements referred to in this section must be administered on a reimbursement basis unless otherwise provided in this section. Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.41, expenditures directly related to each appropriation's purpose made on or after July 1, 2022, or the date of accomplishment plan approval, whichever is later, are eligible for reimbursement unless otherwise provided in this section. For the purposes of administering appropriations and legislatively authorized agreements paid out of the outdoor heritage fund, an expense must be considered reimbursable by the administering agency when the recipient presents the agency with an invoice or binding agreement with the landowner and the recipient attests that the goods have been

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received or the landowner agreement is binding. Periodic reimbursement must be made upon receiving documentation that the items articulated in the accomplishment plan approved by the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council have been achieved, including partial achievements as evidenced by progress reports approved by the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council. Reasonable amounts may be advanced to projects to accommodate cash flow needs, support future management of acquired lands, or match a federal share. The advances must be approved as part of the accomplishment plan. Capital equipment expenditures for specific items in excess of $10,000 must be itemized in and approved as part of the accomplishment plan.

Subd. 9. Mapping

Each direct recipient of money appropriated in this section, as well as each recipient of a grant awarded pursuant to this section, must provide geographic information to the Lessard-Sams Outdoor Heritage Council for mapping of any lands acquired in fee with funds appropriated in this section and open to the public taking of fish and game. The commissioner of natural resources must include the lands acquired in fee with money appropriated in this section on maps showing public recreation opportunities. Maps must include information on and acknowledgment of the outdoor heritage fund, including a notation of any restrictions.

Subd. 10. Carryforwards

(a) The availability of the appropriation for Laws 2018, chapter 208, section 2, subdivision 5, paragraph (n), for Buffalo River Watershed Stream Habitat Program, is extended to June 30, 2023.

(b) The availability of the appropriation for Laws 2017, chapter 91, article 1, section 2, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), for Carnelian Creek Conservation Corridor, is extended to June 30, 2025.

EFFECTIVE DATE. Subdivision 10 is effective the day following final enactment.

ARTICLE 2

CLEAN WATER FUND

Section 1. CLEAN WATER FUND APPROPRIATIONS.

Subdivision 1. Department of Agriculture. (a) $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of agriculture to monitor trout streams in southeastern Minnesota for the presence of neonicotinoids.

(b) The commissioner of agriculture must monitor and test for microplastics and nanoplastics as part of the monitoring and testing work funded under Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 2, section 3, paragraphs (a) and (i).

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Subd. 2. Pollution Control Agency. (a) $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency to monitor tributaries, including trout streams, near the shores of Lake Superior for perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances.

(b) $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency for enhanced monitoring of private wells in Washington County for perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances.

(c) $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency to monitor the Mississippi River for metals, perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances, and other contaminants detected in Pig's Eye Lake.

(d) $400,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency to monitor groundwater and surface waters in the Battle Creek Watershed for perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances.

(e) $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency to collect lead sinkers and other activities to improve water quality as part of the Get the Lead Out program.

(f) $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency to develop protocols to be used by agencies and departments for sampling and testing groundwater, surface water, public drinking water, and private wells for microplastics and nanoplastics and to begin implementation. The commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency may transfer money appropriated under this paragraph to the commissioners of agriculture, natural resources, and health to implement the protocols developed under this paragraph and for the testing, monitoring, and assessment required under this section.

(g) The commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency must monitor and assess for microplastics and nanoplastics as part of the monitoring and assessment work funded under Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 2, section 4, paragraphs (a) and (c).

(h) For the purposes of this section:

(1) "microplastics" means small pieces of plastic debris in the environment that result from the disposal and breakdown of consumer products and industrial waste and that are less than five millimeters in length;

(2) "nanoplastics" means particles with a size ranging from one to 1,000 nanometers that are unintentionally produced from the manufacture or degradation of plastic objects and that exhibit a colloidal behavior; and

(3) "plastic" means an organic or petroleum derivative synthetic or a semisynthetic organic solid that is moldable and to which additives or other substances may have been added. Plastic does not include natural polymers that have not been chemically modified.

Subd. 3. Department of Natural Resources. (a) $402,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of natural resources to prepare a report on Minnesota's peatlands in cooperation with the Board of Water and Soil Resources. Of this amount, $45,000 is transferred to the commissioner of the Pollution Control Agency and $31,000 is transferred to the Board of Water and Soil Resources. The report must:

(1) include an assessment of the current state of Minnesota's peatlands;

(2) identify current threats and efforts to protect and restore the state's peatlands;

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(3) include an assessment of the level of peat extraction in the state;

(4) provide an estimate of the carbon storage provided by the state's peatlands;

(5) include recommendations for steps the state could take to further protect and restore peatlands; and

(6) be submitted to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over environment and natural resources by January 15, 2023.

(b) $500,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the commissioner of natural resources for a grant to Conservation Corps Minnesota for restoration and enhancement activities to improve water quality, including stream bank stabilization.

(c) The commissioner of natural resources must assess for microplastics and nanoplastics as part of the assessment work funded under Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 2, section 5, paragraphs (b) and (c).

Subd. 4. Board of Water and Soil Resources. (a) $7,665,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the Board of Water and Soil Resources to purchase and restore permanent conservation sites via easements or contracts to treat and store water on the land for water quality improvement purposes and related technical assistance. Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.515, applies to this program. The board must give priority to leveraging federal money by enrolling targeted new lands or enrolling environmentally sensitive lands that have expiring federal conservation agreements. The board may enter into new agreements and amend past agreements with landowners as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.515, subdivision 5, to allow for restoration. Up to $436,000 is for deposit in a monitoring and enforcement account.

(b) $7,665,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the Board of Water and Soil Resources to purchase and restore peatlands via easements or contracts to treat and store water on the land for water quality improvement purposes and related technical assistance. Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.515, applies to this program. The board must give priority to leveraging federal money by enrolling targeted new lands or enrolling environmentally sensitive lands that have expiring federal conservation agreements. The board may enter into new agreements and amend past agreements with landowners as required by Minnesota Statutes, section 103F.515, subdivision 5, to allow for restoration. Up to $436,000 is for deposit in a monitoring and enforcement account.

Subd. 5. Metropolitan Council. $7,665,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the Metropolitan Council for grants to cities and other public water suppliers to replace the privately owned portion of residential lead drinking water service lines. Grants from this appropriation must first be used to supplement any federal money provided to the state as principal forgiveness or grants under Public Law 117-58, the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, to cover 100 percent of the cost to replace privately owned residential lead service lines.

Subd. 6. University of Minnesota. $437,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the Board of Regents of the University of Minnesota to optimize detection methods, determine environmental occurrence, and evaluate the risk to Minnesota's fish populations of the toxic tire-derived chemical 6PPDq.

Subd. 7. Public Facilities Authority. $7,665,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the clean water fund to the Public Facilities Authority for grants to cities and other public water suppliers to replace the privately owned portion of residential lead drinking water service lines. Grants from this appropriation must first be used to supplement any federal money provided to the state as principal forgiveness or grants under Public Law 117-58, the Infrastructure Investment and Jobs Act, to cover 100 percent of the cost to replace privately owned residential lead service lines.

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Subd. 8. Availability and other requirements. All appropriations in this section are onetime and are subject to the requirements and availability provisions provided under Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 2.

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 114D.30, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. Membership; appointment. (a) The commissioners of natural resources, agriculture, health, and the Pollution Control Agency, the executive director of the Board of Water and Soil Resources, the Board of Regents of the University of Minnesota, and the Metropolitan Council shall each appoint one person from their respective entity to serve as a nonvoting member of the council. Two members of the house of representatives, including one member from the majority party and one member from the minority party, appointed by the speaker and two senators, including one member from the majority party and one member from the minority party, appointed according to the rules of the senate shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority as ~~nonvoting~~ voting members of the council. ~~Members appointed under this paragraph serve as nonvoting members of the council.~~

(b) Seventeen voting members of the council shall be appointed by the governor as follows:

(1) two members representing statewide farm organizations;

(2) two members representing business organizations;

(3) two members representing environmental organizations;

(4) one member representing soil and water conservation districts;

(5) one member representing watershed districts;

(6) one member representing nonprofit organizations focused on improvement of Minnesota lakes or streams;

(7) two members representing organizations of county governments, one member representing the interests of rural counties and one member representing the interests of counties in the seven-county metropolitan area;

(8) two members representing organizations of city governments;

(9) one member representing township officers;

(10) one member representing the interests of tribal governments;

(11) one member representing statewide hunting organizations; and

(12) one member representing statewide fishing organizations.

Members appointed under this paragraph must not be registered lobbyists or legislators. In making appointments, the governor must attempt to provide for geographic balance. The members of the council appointed by the governor are subject to the advice and consent of the senate.

Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 114D.30, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

Subd. 7. ~~Biennial~~ Report to legislature. By ~~December 1 of~~ January 15 each ~~even-numbered~~ year, the council ~~shall~~ must submit a report to the legislature on the activities for which money has been or will be spent for the current ~~biennium~~ fiscal year, the activities for which money is recommended to be spent in the next ~~biennium~~ fiscal year, and the impact on economic development of the implementation of efforts to protect and restore groundwater

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and the impaired waters program. The report due on December 1, 2014, must include an evaluation of the progress made through June 30, 2014, in implementing this chapter and the provisions of article XI, section 15, of the Minnesota Constitution relating to clean water, the need for funding of future implementation, and recommendations for the sources of funding.

Sec. 4. VOYAGEURS NATIONAL PARK GRANT; EXTENSION.

The portion of the appropriation from the clean water fund in Laws 2017, chapter 91, article 2, section 5, paragraph (i), granted to St. Louis County for the Ash River sanitary sewer collection and treatment facility planning project is available until June 30, 2023.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

ARTICLE 3

PARKS AND TRAILS FUND

Section 1. Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 3, section 2, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Total Appropriation

$54,797,000

$ ~~55,884,000~~ 62,431,000

The amounts that may be spent for each purpose are specified in the following sections.

Sec. 2. Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 3, section 3, is amended to read:

Sec. 3. DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

$33,081,000

$ ~~33,735,000~~ 37,687,000

(a) $21,712,000 the first year and ~~$22,149,000~~ $24,743,000 the second year are for state parks, recreation areas, and trails to:

(1) connect people to the outdoors;

(2) acquire land and create opportunities;

(3) maintain existing holdings; and

(4) improve cooperation by coordinating with partners to implement the 25-year long-range parks and trails legacy plan.

(b) $10,857,000 the first year and ~~$11,074,000~~ $12,371,000 the second year are for grants for parks and trails of regional significance outside the seven-county metropolitan area under Minnesota Statutes, section 85.535. The grants awarded under this paragraph must be based on the lists of recommended projects submitted to the legislative committees under Minnesota Statutes, section 85.536, subdivision 10, from the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission established under Minnesota Statutes, section 85.536. Grants funded under this

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paragraph must support parks and trails of regional or statewide significance that meet the applicable definitions and criteria for regional parks and trails contained in the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Strategic Plan adopted by the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission on April 22, 2015. Grant recipients identified under this paragraph must submit a grant application to the commissioner of natural resources. Up to 2.5 percent of the appropriation may be used by the commissioner for the actual cost of issuing and monitoring the grants for the commission. Of the amount appropriated, $456,000 the first year and ~~$456,000~~ $483,000 the second year are for the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission to carry out its duties under Minnesota Statutes, section 85.536, including the continued development of a statewide system plan for regional parks and trails outside the seven-county metropolitan area.

(c) By January 15, 2022, the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission must submit a list of projects that contains the commission's recommendations for funding from the parks and trails fund for fiscal year 2023 to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over the environment and natural resources and the parks and trails fund.

(d) By January 15, 2022, the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission must submit a report that contains the commission's criteria for funding from the parks and trails fund, including the criteria used to determine if a park or trail is of regional significance, to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees and divisions with jurisdiction over the environment and natural resources and the parks and trails fund.

(e) $512,000 the first year and ~~$512,000~~ $573,000 the second year are for coordination and projects between the department, the Metropolitan Council, and the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission; enhanced web-based information for park and trail users; and support of activities of the Parks and Trails Legacy Advisory Committee.

(f) The commissioner must contract for services with Conservation Corps Minnesota for restoration, maintenance, and other activities under this section for at least $850,000 the first year and $850,000 the second year.

(g) Grant recipients of an appropriation under this section must give consideration to contracting with Conservation Corps Minnesota for restoration, maintenance, and other activities.

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Sec. 3. Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 3, section 4, is amended to read:

Sec. 4. METROPOLITAN COUNCIL

$21,712,000

$ ~~22,149,000~~ 24,743,000

(a) $21,712,000 the first year and ~~$22,149,000~~ $24,743,000 the second year are for distribution according to Minnesota Statutes, section 85.53, subdivision 3.

(b) Money appropriated under this section and distributed to implementing agencies must be used only to fund the list of projects approved by the elected representatives of each of the metropolitan parks implementing agencies. Projects funded by the money appropriated under this section must be substantially consistent with the project descriptions and dollar amounts approved by each elected body. Any money remaining after completing the listed projects may be spent by the implementing agencies on projects to support parks and trails.

(c) Grant agreements entered into by the Metropolitan Council and recipients of money appropriated under this section must ensure that the money is used to supplement and not substitute for traditional sources of funding.

(d) The implementing agencies receiving appropriations under this section must give consideration to contracting with Conservation Corps Minnesota for restoration, maintenance, and other activities.

Sec. 4. Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 3, section 7, is amended to read:

Sec. 7. COORDINATION AND PROJECTS; EXTENSION.

The portion of the appropriation in Laws 2017, chapter 91, article 3, section 3, paragraph (e), from the parks and trails fund for coordination and projects between the department, the Metropolitan Council, and the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission; enhanced web-based information for park and trail users; and support of activities of the Parks and Trails Legacy Advisory Committee is available until June 30, ~~2022~~ 2024.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

Sec. 5. PARKS AND TRAILS COORDINATION; EXTENSION.

The appropriation in Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 2, article 3, section 3, paragraph (e), from the parks and trails fund for coordination and projects between the Department of Natural Resources, the Metropolitan Council, and the Greater Minnesota Regional Parks and Trails Commission; enhanced web-based information for park and trail users; and support of activities of the Parks and Trails Legacy Advisory Committee is available until June 30, 2024.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

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Sec. 6. CITY OF CROOKSTON GRANT; EXTENSION.

The availability of the grant to the city of Crookston for the Central Park project from the fiscal year 2020 parks and trails fund appropriation under Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 2, article 3, section 3, paragraph (b), is extended to June 30, 2024.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

ARTICLE 4

ARTS AND CULTURAL HERITAGE FUND

Section 1. Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 2, article 4, section 2, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4. Minnesota Historical Society

15,572,000

17,383,000

(a) These amounts are appropriated to the governing board of the Minnesota Historical Society to preserve and enhance access to Minnesota's history and its cultural and historical resources. Grant agreements entered into by the Minnesota Historical Society and other recipients of appropriations in this subdivision must ensure that these funds are used to supplement and not substitute for traditional sources of funding. Funds directly appropriated to the Minnesota Historical Society must be used to supplement and not substitute for traditional sources of funding. Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.28, for historic preservation projects that improve historic structures, the amounts are available until June 30, 2023. The Minnesota Historical Society or grant recipients of the Minnesota Historical Society using arts and cultural heritage funds under this subdivision must give consideration to Conservation Corps Minnesota and Northern Bedrock Historic Preservation Corps, or an organization carrying out similar work, for projects with the potential to need historic preservation services. Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.28, or any other law to the contrary, the availability of any appropriation or grant of money from this subdivision that would not otherwise cancel, lapse, or expire on or before June 20, 2022, is extended to June 30, 2023.

(b) Historical Grants and Programs

(1) Statewide Historic and Cultural Grants

$5,846,000 in fiscal year 2020 and $7,004,000 in fiscal year 2021 are for statewide historic and cultural grants to local, county, regional, or other historical or cultural organizations or for activities to preserve significant historic and cultural resources. Money must be distributed through a competitive grant process. The Minnesota Historical Society must administer the money using established grant mechanisms, with assistance from the advisory committee created under Laws 2009, chapter 172, article 4, section 2, subdivision 4, paragraph (b), item (ii).

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(2) Statewide History Programs

$5,846,000 in fiscal year 2020 and $7,004,000 in fiscal year 2021 are for historic and cultural programs and purposes related to the heritage of the state. Of this amount, $250,000 each year must be used by the Minnesota Historical Society to either produce or purchase and to distribute a book to engage and educate elementary school students on Minnesota's natural resources, legacy, culture, and history. The book should be made available for free to educators and libraries and through state historical society sites to provide to a targeted grade of elementary school students.

(3) History Partnerships

$2,500,000 each year is for history partnerships involving multiple organizations, which may include the Minnesota Historical Society, to preserve and enhance access to Minnesota's history and cultural heritage in all regions of the state.

(4) Statewide Survey of Historical and Archaeological Sites

$500,000 in fiscal year 2020 and $500,000 in fiscal year 2021 are for one or more contracts to be competitively awarded to conduct statewide surveys or investigations of Minnesota's sites of historical, archaeological, and cultural significance. Results of the surveys or investigations must be published in a searchable form and available to the public on a cost-free basis. The Minnesota Historical Society, the Office of the State Archaeologist, the Indian Affairs Council, and the State Historic Preservation Office must each appoint a representative to an oversight board to select contractors and direct the conduct of the surveys or investigations. The oversight board must consult with the Department of Transportation and Department of Natural Resources.

(5) Digital Library

$375,000 in fiscal year 2020 and $375,000 in fiscal year 2021 are for a digital library project to preserve, digitize, and share Minnesota images, documents, and historical materials. The Minnesota Historical Society must cooperate with the Minitex interlibrary loan system and must jointly share this appropriation for these purposes.

(6) Grants

$200,000 the first year is for a grant to the Minnesota Military Museum to create and conduct a statewide story-sharing program to honor the distinct service of post-9/11 veterans in anticipation of the 2021 anniversary.

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$115,000 the first year is for a grant to the Minnesota Military Museum to care for, catalog, and display the recently acquired collection of the personal and professional effects belonging to General John W. Vessey, Minnesota's most decorated veteran.

$40,000 the first year is for a grant to the Isanti County Historical Society to relocate, update, and preserve the Moody School and the Grandy Union Church.

$150,000 the first year is for a grant to the commissioner of natural resources to maintain the history of the Grindstone River Dam at Hinckley.

Any unencumbered balance remaining under this subdivision the first year does not cancel but is available the second year.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

Sec. 2. Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 4, section 2, is amended to read:

Sec. 2. ARTS AND CULTURAL HERITAGE

Subdivision 1. Total Appropriation

$ 73,132,000

$ ~~76,617,000~~ 88,713,000

The amounts that may be spent for each purpose are specified in the following subdivisions.

Subd. 2. Availability of Appropriation

Money appropriated in this article must not be spent on activities unless they are directly related to and necessary for a specific appropriation. Money appropriated in this article must not be spent on institutional overhead charges that are not directly related to and necessary for a specific appropriation. Money appropriated in this article must be spent in accordance with Minnesota Management and Budget MMB Guidance to Agencies on Legacy Fund Expenditure. Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.28, and unless otherwise specified in this article, fiscal year 2022 appropriations are available until June 30, 2023, and fiscal year 2023 appropriations are available until June 30, 2024. If a project receives federal funds, the period of the appropriation is extended to equal the availability of federal funding.

Subd. 3. Minnesota State Arts Board

34,372,000

~~36,010,000~~ 41,695,000

(a) The amounts in this subdivision are appropriated to the Minnesota State Arts Board for arts, arts education, arts preservation, and arts access. Grant agreements entered into by the

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Minnesota State Arts Board and other recipients of appropriations in this subdivision must ensure that these funds are used to supplement and not substitute for traditional sources of funding. Each grant program established in this appropriation must be separately administered from other state appropriations for program planning and outcome measurements, but may take into consideration other state resources awarded in the selection of applicants and grant award size.

(b) Arts and Arts Access Initiatives

$27,497,000 the first year and ~~$28,808,000~~ $33,356,000 the second year are to support Minnesota artists and arts organizations in creating, producing, and presenting high-quality arts activities; to preserve, maintain, and interpret art forms and works of art so that they are accessible to Minnesota audiences; to overcome barriers to accessing high-quality arts activities; and to instill the arts into the community and public life in this state.

$5,156,000 the first year and ~~$5,401,000~~ $6,254,000 the second year are for high-quality, age-appropriate arts education for Minnesotans of all ages to develop knowledge, skills, and understanding of the arts.

(d) Arts and Cultural Heritage

$1,719,000 the first year and ~~$1,801,000~~ $2,085,000 the second year are for events and activities that represent, preserve, and maintain the diverse cultural arts traditions, including folk and traditional artists and art organizations, represented in this state.

(e) Up to 4.5 percent of the funds appropriated in paragraphs (b) to (d) may be used by the board for administering grant programs, delivering technical services, providing fiscal oversight for the statewide system, and ensuring accountability in fiscal year 2022 and fiscal year 2023.

(f) Up to 30 percent of the remaining total appropriation to each of the categories listed in paragraphs (b) to (d) is for grants to the regional arts councils. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, regional arts council grants or other arts council grants for touring programs, projects, or exhibits must ensure the programs, projects, or exhibits are able to tour in their own region as well as all other regions of the state.

(g) Any unencumbered balance remaining under this subdivision the first year does not cancel but is available the second year.

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Subd. 4. Minnesota Historical Society

15,588,000

~~17,497,000~~ 20,169,000

(a) The amounts in this subdivision are appropriated to the governing board of the Minnesota Historical Society to preserve and enhance access to Minnesota's history and its cultural and historical resources. Grant agreements entered into by the Minnesota Historical Society and other recipients of appropriations in this subdivision must ensure that these funds are used to supplement and not substitute for traditional sources of funding. Funds directly appropriated to the Minnesota Historical Society must be used to supplement and not substitute for traditional sources of funding. Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.28, for historic preservation projects that improve historic structures, the amounts are available until June 30, 2025. The Minnesota Historical Society or grant recipients of the Minnesota Historical Society using arts and cultural heritage funds under this subdivision must give consideration to Conservation Corps Minnesota and Northern Bedrock Historic Preservation Corps, or an organization carrying out similar work, for projects with the potential to need historic preservation services.

(b) Historical Grants and Programs

(1) Statewide Historic and Cultural Grants

$5,982,000 the first year and ~~$7,000,000~~ $8,049,000 the second year are for statewide historic and cultural grants to local, county, regional, or other historical or cultural organizations or for activities to preserve significant historic and cultural resources. Money must be distributed through a competitive grant process. The Minnesota Historical Society must administer the money using established grant mechanisms, with assistance from the advisory committee created under Laws 2009, chapter 172, article 4, section 2, subdivision 4, paragraph (b), item (ii).

(2) Statewide History Programs

$6,213,000 the first year and ~~$6,990,000~~ $8,056,000 the second year are for historic and cultural programs and purposes related to the heritage of the state. Of this amount, $213,000 the first year must be used by the Board of Directors of the Minnesota Historical Society to either produce or purchase and distribute a book to engage and educate elementary school students on Minnesota's natural resources, legacy, culture, and history. The book should be made available cost-free to educators and libraries and through state historical society sites to provide to a targeted grade of elementary school students.

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(3) History Partnerships

$2,450,000 the first year and ~~$2,550,000~~ $2,954,000 the second year are for history partnerships involving multiple organizations, which may include the Minnesota Historical Society, to preserve and enhance access to Minnesota's history and cultural heritage in all regions of the state.

(4) Statewide Survey of Historical and Archaeological Sites

$475,000 the first year and ~~$525,000~~ $606,000 the second year are for one or more contracts to be competitively awarded to conduct statewide surveys or investigations of Minnesota's sites of historical, archaeological, and cultural significance. Results of the surveys or investigations must be published in a searchable form and available to the public cost-free. The Minnesota Historical Society, the Office of the State Archaeologist, the Indian Affairs Council, and the State Historic Preservation Office must each appoint a representative to an oversight board to select contractors and direct the conduct of the surveys or investigations. The oversight board must consult with the Department of Transportation and Department of Natural Resources.

(5) Digital Library

$368,000 the first year and ~~$382,000~~ $443,000 the second year are for a digital library project to preserve, digitize, and share Minnesota images, documents, and historical materials. The Minnesota Historical Society must cooperate with the Minitex interlibrary loan system and must jointly share this appropriation for these purposes.

(6) Grants

(i) $100,000 the first year is and $8,000 the second year are for a grant to the Litchfield Opera House to restore and renovate the historic Litchfield Opera House.

(ii) ~~$50,000~~ $54,000 the second year is for a grant to the city of South St. Paul to relocate the gatehouses in the BridgePoint Business Park that remain from the Armour & Company meatpacking campus.

Any unencumbered balance remaining under this subdivision the first year does not cancel but is available the second year.

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Subd. 5. Department of Education

2,710,000

~~2,710,000~~ 3,148,000

(a) $2,500,000 the first year and ~~$2,500,000~~ $2,904,000 the second year are appropriated to the commissioner of education for grants to the 12 Minnesota regional library systems to provide educational opportunities in the arts, history, literary arts, and cultural heritage of Minnesota. This money must be allocated using the formulas in Minnesota Statutes, section 134.355, subdivisions 3, 4, and 5, with the remaining 25 percent to be distributed to all qualifying systems in an amount proportionate to the number of qualifying system entities in each system. For purposes of this subdivision, "qualifying system entity" means a public library, a regional library system, a regional library system headquarters, a county, or an outreach service program. This money may be used to sponsor programs provided by regional libraries or to provide grants to local arts and cultural heritage programs for programs in partnership with regional libraries. This money must be distributed in ten equal payments per year. Notwithstanding Minnesota Statutes, section 16A.28, the appropriations encumbered on or before June 30, 2023, as grants or contracts in this subdivision are available until June 30, 2025.

(b) $110,000 ~~each~~ the first year is and $128,000 the second year are appropriated to the commissioner of education for a water safety grant program. The commissioner of education must allocate grants to eligible applicants. Eligible applicants include nonprofit organizations and city and county parks and recreation programs providing swimming lessons to youth. Eligible applicants are not required to partner with other entities. Grant funds must primarily be used to provide scholarships to low‑income and at-risk children for swimming lessons. Up to 15 percent of the grant funds may also be used to hire water safety instructors or lifeguards or train water safety instructors or lifeguards in nationally recognized water safety practices and instruction. This appropriation is available until June 30, 2023.

(c) $100,000 ~~each~~ the first year is and $116,000 the second year are appropriated to the commissioner of education for a grant to the entity designated by the Library of Congress as the Minnesota Center for the Book to provide statewide programming related to the Minnesota Book Awards and for additional programming throughout the state related to the Center for the Book designation.

Subd. 6. Department of Administration

11,383,000

~~11,225,000~~ 13,051,000

(a) The amounts in this subdivision are appropriated to the commissioner of administration for grants to the named organizations for the purposes specified in this subdivision. The commissioner of administration may use a portion of this appropriation for costs that are directly related to and necessary for the administration of grants in this subdivision.

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(b) Grant agreements entered into by the commissioner and recipients of appropriations under this subdivision must ensure that money appropriated in this subdivision is used to supplement and not substitute for traditional sources of funding.

$1,950,000 the first year and ~~$1,950,000~~ $2,265,000 the second year are for Minnesota Public Radio to create programming and expand news service on Minnesota's cultural heritage and history.

(d) Association of Minnesota Public Educational Radio Stations

$1,950,000 the first year and ~~$1,950,000~~ $2,265,000 the second year are to the Association of Minnesota Public Educational Radio Stations for production and acquisition grants in accordance with Minnesota Statutes, section 129D.19. Of this amount, $200,000 the first year is for statewide programming to produce and distribute the Veterans' Voices program to educate and engage communities regarding Minnesota veterans' contributions, knowledge, skills, and experiences with an emphasis on the untold stories of veterans from diverse communities. The funds are available until June 30, 2023.

(e) Public Television

$4,460,000 the first year and ~~$4,460,000~~ $5,181,000 the second year are to the Minnesota Public Television Association for production and acquisition grants according to Minnesota Statutes, section 129D.18.

(f) Wilderness Inquiry

$400,000 the first year and ~~$400,000~~ $465,000 the second year are to Wilderness Inquiry for the Canoemobile program, which provides students with an outdoor educational experience aligned with the Minnesota history graduation standards.

(g) Como Park Zoo

$1,500,000 the first year and ~~$1,500,000~~ $1,742,000 the second year are for a grant to the Como Park Zoo and Conservatory for program development that features education programs and habitat enhancement, special exhibits, music appreciation programs, and historical garden access and preservation.

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(h) Science Museum of Minnesota

$700,000 the first year and ~~$700,000~~ $813,000 the second year are to the Science Museum of Minnesota for arts, arts education, and arts access and to preserve Minnesota's history and cultural heritage, including student and teacher outreach, statewide educational initiatives, and community-based exhibits that preserve Minnesota's history and cultural heritage.

(i) Appetite for Change

$75,000 ~~each~~ the first year is and $87,000 the second year are to the nonprofit Appetite for Change for the Community Cooks programming, which will preserve the cultural heritage of growing and cooking food in Minnesota.

(j) Lake Superior Zoo

$75,000 the first year and ~~$75,000~~ $87,000 the second year are to the Lake Superior Zoo to develop educational exhibits and programs.

(k) Midwest Outdoors Unlimited

$25,000 the first year and ~~$25,000~~ $29,000 the second year are for a grant to Midwest Outdoors Unlimited to preserve Minnesota's outdoor history, culture, and heritage by connecting individuals and youth with disabilities to the state's natural resources.

(l) Veterans Memorial Grants

$75,000 the first year and ~~$75,000~~ $87,000 the second year are for a competitive grants program to provide grants to local units of government for veterans memorials to preserve the culture and heritage of Minnesota. The local unit of government must provide a nonstate cash match equal to the amount of the grant received under this paragraph.

(m) Disabled Veterans Rest Camp

$128,000 the first year is and $10,000 the second year are for a grant to the Disabled Veterans Rest Camp on Big Marine Lake in Washington County for landscape improvements around the new cabins, including a retaining wall around a water drainage holding pond and security fencing with vehicle control gates along the entrance road.

(n) The TAP

$15,000 the first year and ~~$15,000~~ $17,000 the second year are for a grant to The TAP in St. Paul to support mental health in disability communities through spoken art forms, community supports, and community engagement.

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(o) Kasson WPA Restoration

$30,000 the first year is and $2,000 the second year are for a grant to the city of Kasson to restore the wall and pillars of the historical Works Progress Administration (WPA) project at Veterans Memorial Park.

Subd. 7. Minnesota Zoo

1,900,000

~~2,000,000~~ 2,315,000

The amounts in this subdivision are appropriated to the Minnesota Zoological Board for programs and development of the Minnesota Zoological Garden and to provide access and education related to programs on the cultural heritage of Minnesota.

Subd. 8. Minnesota Humanities Center

4,775,000

~~4,775,000~~ 5,546,000

(a) These amounts are appropriated to the Board of Directors of the Minnesota Humanities Center for the purposes specified in this subdivision. The Minnesota Humanities Center may use up to 4.5 percent of the following grants, and up to five percent of the appropriations specific to competitive grants programs, to cover the cost of administering, planning, evaluating, and reporting these grants. The Minnesota Humanities Center must develop a written plan to issue the grants under this subdivision and must submit the plan for review and approval by the commissioner of administration. The written plan must require the Minnesota Humanities Center to create and adhere to grant policies that are similar to those established according to Minnesota Statutes, section 16B.97, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clause (1).

No grants awarded under this subdivision may be used for travel outside the state of Minnesota. The grant agreement must specify the repercussions for failing to comply with the grant agreement.

(b) Programs and Purposes

$1,250,000 the first year and ~~$1,250,000~~ $1,452,000 the second year are for programs and purposes of the Minnesota Humanities Center.

$925,000 the first year and ~~$925,000~~ $1,074,000 the second year are for arts and cultural heritage grants to children's museums for arts and cultural exhibits and related educational outreach programs. Of this amount:

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(1) $375,000 the first year and ~~$375,000~~ $435,000 the second year are for the Minnesota Children's Museum for interactive exhibits and outreach programs on arts and cultural heritage; and

(2) $550,000 ~~each~~ the first year is and $639,000 the second year are for grants to other children's museums to be distributed through a competitive grant process for program development. The Minnesota Humanities Center must administer these funds using established mechanisms.

(d) Community Identity and Heritage Grant Program

$2,500,000 the first year and ~~$2,500,000~~ $2,904,000 the second year are for a competitive grants program to provide grants to organizations or individuals working to create, celebrate, and teach the art, culture, and heritage of diverse Minnesota communities, including but not limited to Asian and Pacific Island communities, the Somali diaspora and other African immigrant communities, Indigenous communities with a focus on the 11 Tribes in Minnesota, the African American community, the Latinx community, and other underrepresented cultural groups, including communities of Black, Indigenous, and people of color, to celebrate the cultural diversity of Minnesota. An individual or organization that receives a grant under this paragraph must do at least one of the following:

(1) preserve and honor the cultural heritage of Minnesota;

(2) provide education and student outreach on cultural diversity;

(3) support the development of culturally diverse humanities programming by individuals and organizations; or

(4) empower communities in building identity and culture.

(e) Civics Programs

$100,000 the first year and ~~$100,000~~ $116,000 the second year are for grants to the Minnesota Civic Education Coalition: Minnesota Civic Youth, the Learning Law and Democracy Foundation, and YMCA Youth in Government to conduct civics education programs for the civic and cultural development of Minnesota youth. Civics education is the study of constitutional principles and the democratic foundation of our national, state, and local institutions and the study of political processes and structures of government, grounded in the understanding of constitutional government under the rule of law.

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Subd. 9. Indian Affairs Council

2,000,000

~~2,000,000~~ 2,323,000

$2,000,000 the first year and ~~$2,000,000~~ $2,323,000 the second year are appropriated to the Indian Affairs Council for grants for preserving Dakota and Ojibwe Indian languages and for protecting Indian graves. The money must be distributed as follows:

(1) $700,000 the first year and ~~$700,000~~ $813,000 the second year are to provide grants to Minnesota Tribal Nations to preserve Dakota and Ojibwe Indian languages and to foster education programs and services for Dakota and Ojibwe languages;

(2) $460,000 the first year and ~~$460,000~~ $534,000 the second year are for grants to Dakota and Ojibwe Indian language immersion educational institutions;

(3) $700,000 the first year and ~~$700,000~~ $813,000 the second year are to provide grants to preserve the Dakota and Ojibwe Indian languages through support of projects and services and to support educational programs and immersion efforts in Dakota and Ojibwe Indian languages;

(4) $50,000 the first year and ~~$50,000~~ $58,000 the second year are to the Indian Affairs Council for a Dakota and Ojibwe Indian language working group coordinated by the Indian Affairs Council; and

(5) $90,000 the first year and ~~$90,000~~ $105,000 the second year are to carry out responsibilities under Minnesota Statutes, section 307.08, to comply with Public Law 101-601, the federal Native American Graves Protection and Repatriation Act.

Subd. 10. Department of Agriculture

400,000

~~400,000~~ 465,000

These amounts are appropriated to the commissioner of agriculture for grants to county agricultural societies to enhance arts access and education and to preserve and promote Minnesota's history and cultural heritage as embodied in its county fairs. The grants must be distributed in equal amounts to each of the 95 county fairs. The grants are in addition to the aid distribution to county agricultural societies under Minnesota Statutes, section 38.02. The commissioner of agriculture must develop grant‑making criteria and guidance for expending money under this subdivision to provide funding for projects and events that provide access to the arts or the state's agricultural, historical, and cultural heritage. The commissioner must seek input from all interested parties.

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Subd. 11. Legislative Coordinating Commission

4,000

-0-

The amount in this subdivision is appropriated for the Legislative Coordinating Commission to maintain the website required under Minnesota Statutes, section 3.303, subdivision 10."

Delete the title and insert:

"A bill for an act relating to legacy; appropriating money from outdoor heritage fund, clean water fund, parks and trails fund, and arts and cultural heritage fund; modifying terms of Clean Water Council; modifying prior appropriations; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 114D.30, subdivisions 2, 7; Laws 2019, First Special Session chapter 2, article 4, section 2, subdivision 4; Laws 2021, First Special Session chapter 1, article 3, sections 2, subdivision 1; 3; 4; 7; article 4, section 2."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means.

The report was adopted.

Liebling from the Committee on Health Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3470, A bill for an act relating to health; adding a project to the hospital construction moratorium exception; amending Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, section 144.551, subdivision 1.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Moran from the Committee on Ways and Means to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3560, A bill for an act relating to health; modifying requirements for specialty and guest dentist licensure; modifying requirements for display of and procedure for licenses and registration certificates; providing dental therapy licensure by credentials; modifying application and initial fees; providing civil penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 150A.06, subdivisions 1c, 2c, 6, by adding a subdivision; 150A.09; 150A.091, subdivisions 2, 5, 8, 9, by adding subdivisions; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 150A.091, subdivisions 3, 15, 17.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 9, after line 9, insert:

"Sec. 12. APPROPRIATION.

$3,000 in fiscal year 2023 is appropriated from the state government special revenue fund to the Board of Dentistry for costs related to administrative fines and new credential application processing."

Renumber the sections in sequence

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Amend the title as follows:

Page 1, line 5, after the second semicolon, insert "appropriating money;"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Moran from the Committee on Ways and Means to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3631, A bill for an act relating to health; modifying licensure requirements for the practice of medicine and acupuncture; strengthening forms of disciplinary action for physicians and physician's assistants; repealing professional corporation rules; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 147.03, subdivision 1; 147.037, subdivision 1; 147A.16; 147B.02, subdivision 7; Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, section 147.141; repealing Minnesota Rules, parts 5610.0100; 5610.0200; 5610.0300.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Moran from the Committee on Ways and Means to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3765, A bill for an act relating to natural resources; appropriating money from environment and natural resources trust fund; providing extensions.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 2, line 7, delete "10,697,000" and insert "10,328,000"

Page 7, line 14, delete "$492,000" and insert "$123,000"

Page 21, line 13, delete "26,097,000" and insert "26,466,000"

Page 23, line 25, delete "$7,018,000" and insert "$7,387,000"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Liebling from the Committee on Health Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3786, A bill for an act relating to health care; modifying the definition of intractable pain; modifying the criteria for prescribing controlled substance for the treatment of intractable pain; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 152.125.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, delete lines 10 and 11 and insert:

"(b) "Drug diversion" means the unlawful transfer of prescription drugs from their licit medical purpose to the illicit marketplace."

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Page 2, delete lines 7 to 10 and insert:

"(d) "Palliative care" has the meaning provided in section 144A.75, subdivision 12."

Page 4, line 2, delete "or" and after "physician" insert a comma

Page 4, line 3, after "nurse" insert ", or physician assistant"

Page 4, line 21, after "must" insert "mutually agree to the treatment and"

Page 4, line 22, after "the" insert "prescriber's and the"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means.

The report was adopted.

Moran from the Committee on Ways and Means to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3805, A bill for an act relating to public safety; removing the sunset of the Capitol Area Security Advisory Committee; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 299E.04, subdivision 5.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Nelson, M., from the Committee on State Government Finance and Elections to which was referred:

H. F. No. 4017, A bill for an act relating to retirement; state auditor's volunteer fire relief association working group; simplifying maximum benefit levels, modifying certification of service credit process, modifying distributions to alternate payees pursuant to a domestic relations order, clarifying payment of supplemental benefits, and making conforming changes; amending Minnesota Statutes 2020, sections 424A.003; 424A.015, subdivision 2; 424A.05, subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision; Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, sections 353G.11, subdivision 1; 424A.02, subdivisions 3, 3a; 424A.091, subdivision 3; 424A.093, subdivision 1; 424A.10, subdivision 2; 424B.10, subdivision 1b; 424B.13, subdivision 4; 424B.22, subdivision 4; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2021 Supplement, section 424A.02, subdivisions 2a, 2b, 2c.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"ARTICLE 1

MINNESOTA STATE RETIREMENT SYSTEM

Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 352.27, is amended to read:

352.27 FEDERALLY PROTECTED PURCHASE OF SERVICE CREDIT FOR ~~BREAK IN SERVICE TO PROVIDE UNIFORMED~~ PERIODS OF MILITARY SERVICE.

(a) An employee who is absent from employment by reason of service in the uniformed services, as defined in United States Code, title 38, section 4303(13), and who returns to state service upon discharge from service in the uniformed service within the time frames required in United States Code, title 38, section 4312(e), may obtain

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service credit for the period of the uniformed service as further specified in this section, provided that the employee did not separate from uniformed service with a dishonorable or bad conduct discharge or under other than honorable conditions.

(b) The employee may obtain credit by paying into the fund an equivalent employee contribution based upon the contribution rate or rates in effect at the time that the uniformed service was performed multiplied by the full and fractional years being purchased and applied to the annual salary rate. The annual salary rate is the average annual salary during the purchase period that the employee would have received if the employee had continued to be employed in covered employment rather than ~~to provide~~ having performed uniformed service, or, if the determination of that rate is not reasonably certain, the annual salary rate is the employee's average salary rate during the 12-month period of covered employment rendered immediately preceding the period of the uniformed service.

(c) The equivalent employer contribution and, if applicable, the equivalent additional employer contribution provided in this chapter must be paid by the department employing the employee from funds available to the department at the time and in the manner provided in this chapter, using the employer and additional employer contribution rate or rates in effect at the time that the uniformed service was performed, applied to the same annual salary rate or rates used to compute the equivalent employee contribution.

(d) If the employee equivalent contributions provided in this section are not paid in full, the employee's allowable service credit must be prorated by multiplying the full and fractional number of years of uniformed service eligible for purchase by the ratio obtained by dividing the total employee contribution received by the total employee contribution otherwise required under this section.

(e) To receive service credit under this section, the equivalent employee contributions specified in ~~this section~~ paragraph (b) must be transmitted to the Minnesota State Retirement System during the period which begins with the date on which the individual returns to state service and which has a duration of three times the length of the uniformed service period, but not to exceed five years. If the determined payment period is less than ~~one year~~ three years, the contributions required under ~~this section~~ paragraph (b) to receive service credit ~~may~~ must be made within ~~one year~~ three years of the discharge date.

(f) The amount of service credit obtainable under this section may not exceed five years unless a longer purchase period is required under United States Code, title 38, section 4312.

(g) The employing unit shall pay interest on all equivalent employee and employer contribution amounts payable under this section. Interest must be at the applicable annual rate or rates specified in section 356.59, subdivision 2, compounded annually, from the end of each fiscal year of the leave or the break in service to the end of the month in which the payment is received.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

Sec. 2. [352.272] STATE-AUTHORIZED PURCHASE OF SERVICE CREDIT FOR PERIODS OF MILITARY SERVICE.

Subdivision 1. Service credit purchase authorized. (a) Unless prohibited under paragraph (b), an employee is eligible to purchase service credit, not to exceed five cumulative years of service credit, for one or more periods of service in the uniformed services, as defined in United States Code, title 38, section 4303(13), if:

(1) the employee has at least three years of service credit with the general state employees retirement plan or the correctional state employees retirement plan under this chapter;

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(2) the duration of the employee's current period of employment is at least six months; and

(3) one of the following applies:

(i) the employee's service in the uniformed services occurred before becoming a state employee as defined in section 352.01, subdivision 2; or

(ii) the employee did not obtain service credit for a period of military service under section 352.27.

(b) A service credit purchase is prohibited if:

(1) the employee separated from uniformed service with a dishonorable or bad conduct discharge or under other than honorable conditions; or

(2) the employee has purchased or otherwise received service credit from any Minnesota public employee pension plan for the same period of service in the uniformed services.

(c) When purchasing a period of service, if the period of service in the uniformed services is one year or less, then the employee must purchase the full period of service. If the period of service in the uniformed services is longer than one year, the employee may purchase the full period, not to exceed five cumulative years, or may purchase a portion of the period of service. If the employee purchases a portion of the period of service in the uniformed services, the portion must:

(1) not be less than one year; and

(2) be in increments of six months of service.

Subd. 2. Application and documentation. To purchase service credit under subdivision 1, an employee must apply to the executive director to make the purchase. The application must include all necessary documentation of the employee's qualifications to make the purchase, signed written permission to allow the executive director to request and receive necessary verification of applicable facts and eligibility requirements, and any other relevant information that the executive director may require. The employee must submit with the application payment of the administrative fee in the amount of $250 to cover the costs of calculating the purchase payment amount under section 356.551. If the employee proceeds with the purchase, the administrative fee will be credited toward the purchase payment amount.

Subd. 3. Purchase payment amount; service credit grant. (a) The purchase payment amount is the amount determined under section 356.551 for the period or periods of service requested, except that, for purposes of calculating the purchase payment amount to purchase service credit for service in the uniformed services that occurred before becoming a state employee or between periods of employment as a state employee, section 356.551, subdivision 2, paragraph (c), does not apply.

(b) Service credit must be granted by the applicable plan to the purchasing employee upon the executive director's receipt of the purchase payment amount. The service credit purchased under this section may not be used for the purpose of determining a disability benefit under section 352.113 or 352.95.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment.

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Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2020, section 352.91, subdivision 3f, is amended to read:

Subd. 3f. Additional Department of Human Services personnel. (a) "Covered correctional service" means service by a state employee in one of the employment positions specified in paragraph (b) in the state-operated forensic services program or the Minnesota Sex Offender Program if at least 75 percent of the employee's working time is spent in direct contact with patients and the determination of this direct contact is certified to the executive director by the commissioner of human services.

(b) The employment positions are:

(1) behavior analyst 2;

(2) behavior analyst 3;

(3) certified occupational therapy assistant 1;

(4) certified occupational therapy assistant 2;

(5) chemical dependency counselor senior;

(6) client advocate;

(7) clinical program therapist 2;

(8) clinical program therapist 3;

(9) clinical program therapist 4;

(10) customer services specialist principal;

(11) dental assistant registered;

(12) dental hygienist;