House Journal 48th Day Monday, March 16, 2026

A quorum was present.

Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote House Operations, the Speaker permitted the following members to vote via remote means: Baker, Fogelman, Gillman, Koznick, Kresha, McDonald, Quam and Rarick.

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Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote House Operations, the DFL Caucus Leader permitted the following members to vote via remote means: Carroll; Frederick; Hicks; Jones; Keeler; Lee, F.; Liebling; Pursell; Reyer and Smith.

Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote House Operations, the DFL Caucus Leader permitted the following member to vote via remote means between the hours of 3:30 p.m. and 4:00 p.m.: Lillie.

The Chief Clerk proceeded to read the Journal of the preceding day. There being no objection, further reading of the Journal was dispensed with and the Journal was approved as corrected by the Chief Clerk.

REPORTS OF STANDING COMMITTEES AND DIVISIONS

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 391, A bill for an act relating to public safety; providing for enforcement of judicially ordered firearms restrictions for abusing parties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 260C.201, subdivision 3; 518B.01, subdivision 6; 609.2242, subdivision 3; 609.749, subdivision 8.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.201, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3. Domestic child abuse. (a) If the court finds that the child is a victim of domestic child abuse, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 13, it may order any of the following dispositions of the case in addition to or as alternatives to the dispositions authorized under subdivision 1:

(1) restrain any party from committing acts of domestic child abuse;

(2) exclude the abusing party from the dwelling which the family or household members share or from the residence of the child;

(3) on the same basis as is provided in chapter 518, establish temporary visitation with regard to minor children of the adult family or household members;

(4) on the same basis as is provided in chapter 518 or 518A, establish temporary support or maintenance for a period of 30 days for minor children or a spouse;

(5) provide counseling or other social services for the family or household members; or

(6) order the abusing party to participate in treatment or counseling services.

Any relief granted by the order for protection shall be for a fixed period not to exceed one year.

(b) No order excluding the abusing party from the dwelling may be issued unless the court finds that:

(1) the order is in the best interests of the child or children remaining in the dwelling;

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(2) a remaining adult family or household member is able to care adequately for the child or children in the absence of the excluded party; and

(3) the local welfare agency has developed a plan to provide appropriate social services to the remaining family or household members.

(c) Upon a finding that the remaining parent is able to care adequately for the child and enforce an order excluding the abusing party from the home and that the provision of supportive services by the responsible social services agency is no longer necessary, the responsible social services agency may be dismissed as a party to the proceedings. Orders entered regarding the abusing party remain in full force and effect and may be renewed by the remaining parent as necessary for the continued protection of the child for specified periods of time, not to exceed one year.

(d) An order granting relief that was issued after a hearing of which the abusing party received actual notice and at which the abusing party had the opportunity to participate, shall prohibit the abusing party from possessing firearms for the length the order is in effect if the order (1) restrains the abusing party from harassing, stalking, or threatening the child or restrains the abusing party from engaging in other conduct that would place the child in reasonable fear of bodily injury, and (2) includes a finding that the abusing party represents a credible threat to the physical safety of the child or prohibits the abusing party from using, attempting to use, or threatening to use physical force against the child. The order shall inform the abusing party of that party's prohibited status. Except as provided in paragraph (f), the court shall order the abusing party to transfer any firearms that the person possesses, within three business days, to a federally licensed firearms dealer, a law enforcement agency, or a third party who may lawfully receive them. The transfer may be permanent or temporary. A temporary firearm transfer only entitles the receiving party to possess the firearm. A temporary transfer does not transfer ownership or title. An abusing party may not transfer firearms to a third party who resides with the abusing party. If an abusing party makes a temporary transfer, a federally licensed firearms dealer or law enforcement agency may charge the abusing party a reasonable fee to store the person's firearms and may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms. For temporary firearms transfers under this paragraph, a law enforcement agency, federally licensed firearms dealer, or third party shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the transferred firearms and shall return the transferred firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The return of temporarily transferred firearms to an abusing party shall comply with state and federal law. If an abusing party permanently transfers the abusing party's firearms to a law enforcement agency, the agency is not required to compensate the abusing party and may charge the abusing party a reasonable processing fee. A law enforcement agency is not required to accept an abusing party's firearm under this paragraph.

(e) An abusing party who is ordered to transfer firearms under paragraph (d) must file proof of transfer as provided for in this paragraph. If the transfer is made to a third party, the third party must sign an affidavit under oath before a notary public either acknowledging that the abusing party permanently transferred the abusing party's firearms to the third party or agreeing to temporarily store the abusing party's firearms until such time as the abusing party is legally permitted to possess firearms. The affidavit shall indicate the serial number, make, and model of all firearms transferred by the abusing party to the third party. The third party shall acknowledge in the affidavit that the third party may be held criminally and civilly responsible under section 624.7144 if the abusing party gains access to a transferred firearm while the firearm is in the custody of the third party. If the transfer is to a law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer, the law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer shall provide proof of transfer to the abusing party. The proof of transfer must specify whether the firearms were permanently or temporarily transferred and include the name of the abusing party, date of transfer, and the serial number, make, and model of all transferred firearms. The abusing party shall provide the court with a signed and notarized affidavit or proof of transfer as described in this section within two business days of the firearms transfer. The court shall seal affidavits and proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph.

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(f) When a court issues an order containing a firearms restriction provided for in paragraph (d), the court shall determine by a preponderance of evidence if an abusing party poses an imminent risk of causing another person substantial bodily harm. Upon a finding of imminent risk, the court shall order that the local law enforcement agency take immediate possession of all firearms in the abusing party's possession. The local law enforcement agency shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the abusing party's firearms and shall return the firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The local law enforcement agency shall, upon written notice from the abusing party, transfer the firearms to a federally licensed firearms dealer or a third party who may lawfully receive them. Before a local law enforcement agency transfers a firearm under this paragraph, the agency shall require the third party or federally licensed firearms dealer receiving the firearm to submit an affidavit or proof of transfer that complies with the requirements for affidavits or proofs of transfer established in paragraph (e). The agency shall file all affidavits or proofs of transfer received with the court within two business days of the transfer. The court shall seal all affidavits or proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph. A federally licensed firearms dealer or third party who accepts a firearm transfer pursuant to this paragraph shall comply with paragraphs (d) and (e) as if accepting transfer from the abusing party. If the law enforcement agency does not receive written notice from the abusing party within three business days, the agency may charge a reasonable fee to store the abusing party's firearms. A law enforcement agency may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the abusing party be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms.

(g) The court shall ensure that all firearms have been transferred and all proofs of transfer submitted as required by paragraphs (d), (e), and (f), by scheduling and holding a compliance hearing. The compliance hearing is governed by section 518B.03.

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 518B.01, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

Subd. 6. Relief by court. (a) Upon notice and hearing, the court may provide relief as follows:

(1) restrain the abusing party from committing acts of domestic abuse;

(2) exclude the abusing party from the dwelling which the parties share or from the residence of the petitioner;

(3) exclude the abusing party from a reasonable area surrounding the dwelling or residence, which area shall be described specifically in the order;

(4) award temporary custody or establish temporary parenting time with regard to minor children of the parties on a basis which gives primary consideration to the safety of the victim and the children. In addition to the primary safety considerations, the court may consider particular best interest factors that are found to be relevant to the temporary custody and parenting time award. Findings under section 257.025, 518.17, or 518.175 are not required with respect to the particular best interest factors not considered by the court. If the court finds that the safety of the victim or the children will be jeopardized by unsupervised or unrestricted parenting time, the court shall condition or restrict parenting time as to time, place, duration, or supervision, or deny parenting time entirely, as needed to guard the safety of the victim and the children. The court's decision on custody and parenting time shall in no way delay the issuance of an order for protection granting other relief provided for in this section. The court must not enter a parenting plan under section 518.1705 as part of an action for an order for protection;

(5) on the same basis as is provided in chapter 518 or 518A, establish temporary support for minor children or a spouse, and order the withholding of support from the income of the person obligated to pay the support according to chapter 518A;

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(6) provide upon request of the petitioner counseling or other social services for the parties, if married, or if there are minor children;

(7) order the abusing party to participate in treatment or counseling services, including requiring the abusing party to successfully complete a domestic abuse counseling program or educational program under section 518B.02;

(8) award temporary use and possession of property and restrain one or both parties from transferring, encumbering, concealing, or disposing of property except in the usual course of business or for the necessities of life, and to account to the court for all such transfers, encumbrances, dispositions, and expenditures made after the order is served or communicated to the party restrained in open court;

(9) exclude the abusing party from the place of employment of the petitioner, or otherwise limit access to the petitioner by the abusing party at the petitioner's place of employment;

(10) order the abusing party to have no contact with the petitioner whether in person, by telephone, mail, or electronic mail or messaging, through a third party, or by any other means;

(11) order the abusing party to pay restitution to the petitioner;

(12) order the continuance of all currently available insurance coverage without change in coverage or beneficiary designation;

(13) order, in its discretion, other relief as it deems necessary for the protection of a family or household member, including orders or directives to the sheriff or other law enforcement or corrections officer as provided by this section;

(14) direct the care, possession, or control of a pet or companion animal owned, possessed, or kept by the petitioner or respondent or a child of the petitioner or respondent; and

(15) direct the respondent to refrain from physically abusing or injuring any pet or companion animal, without legal justification, known to be owned, possessed, kept, or held by either party or a minor child residing in the residence or household of either party as an indirect means of intentionally threatening the safety of such person.

(b) Any relief granted by the order for protection shall be for a period not to exceed two years, except when the court determines a longer period is appropriate. When a referee presides at the hearing on the petition, the order granting relief becomes effective upon the referee's signature.

(c) An order granting the relief authorized in paragraph (a), clause (1), may not be vacated or modified in a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation, except that the court may hear a motion for modification of an order for protection concurrently with a proceeding for dissolution of marriage upon notice of motion and motion. The notice required by court rule shall not be waived. If the proceedings are consolidated and the motion to modify is granted, a separate order for modification of an order for protection shall be issued.

(d) An order granting the relief authorized in paragraph (a), clause (2) or (3), is not voided by the admittance of the abusing party into the dwelling from which the abusing party is excluded.

(e) If a proceeding for dissolution of marriage or legal separation is pending between the parties, the court shall provide a copy of the order for protection to the court with jurisdiction over the dissolution or separation proceeding for inclusion in its file.

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(f) An order for restitution issued under this subdivision is enforceable as civil judgment.

(g) An order granting relief shall prohibit the abusing party from possessing firearms for the length the order is in effect if the order (1) restrains the abusing party from harassing, stalking, or threatening the petitioner or restrains the abusing party from engaging in other conduct that would place the petitioner in reasonable fear of bodily injury, and (2) includes a finding that the abusing party represents a credible threat to the physical safety of the petitioner or prohibits the abusing party from using, attempting to use, or threatening to use physical force against the petitioner. The order shall inform the abusing party of that party's prohibited status. Except as provided in paragraph (i), the court shall order the abusing party to transfer any firearms that the person possesses, within three business days, to a federally licensed firearms dealer, a law enforcement agency, or a third party who may lawfully receive them. The transfer may be permanent or temporary. A temporary firearm transfer only entitles the receiving party to possess the firearm. A temporary transfer does not transfer ownership or title. An abusing party may not transfer firearms to a third party who resides with the abusing party. If an abusing party makes a temporary transfer, a federally licensed firearms dealer or law enforcement agency may charge the abusing party a reasonable fee to store the person's firearms and may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms. For temporary firearms transfers under this paragraph, a law enforcement agency, federally licensed firearms dealer, or third party shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the transferred firearms and shall return the transferred firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The return of temporarily transferred firearms to an abusing party shall comply with state and federal law. If an abusing party permanently transfers the abusing party's firearms to a law enforcement agency, the agency is not required to compensate the abusing party and may charge the abusing party a reasonable processing fee. A law enforcement agency is not required to accept an abusing party's firearm under this paragraph.

(h) An abusing party who is ordered to transfer firearms under paragraph (g) must file proof of transfer as provided for in this paragraph. If the transfer is made to a third party, the third party must sign an affidavit under oath before a notary public either acknowledging that the abusing party permanently transferred the abusing party's firearms to the third party or agreeing to temporarily store the abusing party's firearms until such time as the abusing party is legally permitted to possess firearms. The affidavit shall indicate the serial number, make, and model of all firearms transferred by the abusing party to the third party. The third party shall acknowledge in the affidavit that the third party may be held criminally and civilly responsible under section 624.7144 if the abusing party gains access to a transferred firearm while the firearm is in the custody of the third party. If the transfer is to a law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer, the law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer shall provide proof of transfer to the abusing party. The proof of transfer must specify whether the firearms were permanently or temporarily transferred and include the name of the abusing party, date of transfer, and the serial number, make, and model of all transferred firearms. The abusing party shall provide the court with a signed and notarized affidavit or proof of transfer as described in this section within two business days of the firearms transfer. The court shall seal affidavits and proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph.

(i) When a court issues an order containing a firearms restriction provided for in paragraph (g), the court shall determine by a preponderance of evidence if an abusing party poses an imminent risk of causing another person substantial bodily harm. Upon a finding of imminent risk, the court shall order that the local law enforcement agency take immediate possession of all firearms in the abusing party's possession. The local law enforcement agency shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the abusing party's firearms and shall return the firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The local law enforcement agency shall, upon written notice from the abusing party, transfer the firearms to a federally licensed firearms dealer or a third party who may lawfully receive them. Before a local law enforcement agency transfers a firearm under this paragraph, the agency shall require the third party or federally licensed firearms dealer receiving the firearm to submit an affidavit or proof of transfer that complies with the requirements for affidavits or proofs of transfer

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established in paragraph (h). The agency shall file all affidavits or proofs of transfer received with the court within two business days of the transfer. The court shall seal all affidavits or proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph. A federally licensed firearms dealer or third party who accepts a firearm transfer pursuant to this paragraph shall comply with paragraphs (g) and (h) as if accepting transfer from the abusing party. If the law enforcement agency does not receive written notice from the abusing party within three business days, the agency may charge a reasonable fee to store the abusing party's firearms. A law enforcement agency may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the abusing party be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms.

(j) The court shall ensure that all firearms have been transferred and all proofs of transfer submitted as required by paragraphs (g), (h), and (i), by scheduling and holding a compliance hearing. The compliance hearing is governed by section 518B.03.

Sec. 3. [518B.03] COMPLIANCE HEARING; IMMUNITY; SANCTIONS; PROTECTIONS.

Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.

(b) "Subject" means a person who is subject to a court order prohibiting the person from possessing firearms issued pursuant to section 260C.201, 518B.01, 609.2242, 609.749, or 629.715.

(c) "Transfer order" is a court order requiring that a subject transfer any firearms that the person possesses to comply with a firearms prohibition imposed pursuant to section 260C.201, 518B.01, 609.2242, 609.749, or 629.715.

Subd. 2. Scope; timing. (a) This section governs a hearing required to determine if a subject has complied with a transfer order.

(b) Compliance hearings must be held within ten business days of a court issuing a transfer order.

Subd. 3. Waiver. The court may waive the hearing requirement on its own motion or upon request of either the prosecutor or subject if the court determines that the subject has complied with the transfer order, including filing of a proof of transfer or affidavit of transfer, or otherwise submitted a credible declaration of nonpossession.

Subd. 4. Noncompliance finding; sanctions. If the court finds that there is probable cause to believe that the subject is not in compliance with a transfer order or fails to appear at a compliance hearing, the court must take appropriate action under the circumstances, including but not limited to issuing a warrant for the subject's arrest. The court may also initiate a contempt proceeding under section 588.01, subdivision 3, to impose remedial sanctions on its own motion, or upon the motion of the prosecutor, and issue an order requiring the subject to appear, with additional sanctions for failure to appear; provide proof of compliance with the order; and show cause why the subject should not be held in contempt of court.

Subd. 5. Immunity. The act of voluntarily surrendering firearms, providing testimony relating to the surrender of firearms, or complying with a transfer order, and any information directly or indirectly derived from such act or testimony, may not be used against the subject in any criminal prosecution, except a prosecution for perjury, giving a false statement, or otherwise failing to comply with the transfer order. Every transfer order must contain language consistent with the statutory immunity set forth in this subdivision.

Subd. 6. Privilege against self-incrimination. (a) If a subject invokes the privilege against self-incrimination at the time of issuance of the order or at a subsequent hearing, the court may afford the subject an opportunity to demonstrate that compliance with a transfer order would expose that person to a realistic threat of self-incrimination in a subsequent or pending criminal proceeding. The court may conduct this portion of the proceeding ex parte or receive evidence in camera, without the presence of the prosecuting attorney.

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(b) If the subject establishes such a realistic threat of self-incrimination regarding possible criminal prosecution that is not addressed by the immunity from prosecution set forth in subdivision 5, the court must afford the relevant prosecuting attorney an opportunity to offer an immunity agreement tailored specifically to the firearms implicated by the potential self-incrimination. To achieve the purposes of this section, any immunity offered should be narrowly tailored to address any realistic threat of self-incrimination while ensuring that any other firearms not implicated are surrendered.

(c) Any immunity from prosecution beyond the immunity set forth in subdivision 5 may only be extended by the prosecuting attorney. If the prosecuting attorney declines to extend immunity such that the subject cannot fully comply with the transfer order without facing a realistic threat of self-incrimination, the court's order must provide for the surrender of every firearm and firearm permit that does not implicate a realistic threat of self-incrimination. The order's prohibition on firearms possession remains in effect.

Subd. 7. Compliance required; burden of proof. Nothing in this section shall be interpreted as diminishing the requirement that the subject fully comply with the order issued by the court. The burden remains on the subject to prove compliance.

Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.2242, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

Subd. 3. Domestic assaults; firearms. (a) When a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, or 609.2247, the court shall determine and make written findings on the record as to whether:

(1) the assault was committed against a family or household member, as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2;

(2) the defendant owns or possesses a firearm; and

(3) the firearm was used in any way during the commission of the assault.

(b) If the court determines that the assault was of a family or household member, and that the offender owns or possesses a firearm and used it in any way during the commission of the assault, it shall order that the firearm be summarily forfeited under section 609.5316, subdivision 3.

(c) When a person is convicted of assaulting a family or household member and is determined by the court to have used a firearm in any way during commission of the assault, the court may order that the person is prohibited from possessing any type of firearm for any period longer than three years or for the remainder of the person's life. A person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. At the time of the conviction, the court shall inform the defendant for how long the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm and that it is a gross misdemeanor to violate this paragraph. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.

(d) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), when a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.224 and the court determines that the victim was a family or household member, the court shall inform the defendant that the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm for three years from the date of conviction and that it is a gross misdemeanor offense to violate this prohibition. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (c), a person is not entitled to possess a pistol if the person has been convicted after August 1, 1992, or a firearm if a person has been convicted on or after August 1, 2014, of domestic assault under this section or assault in the fifth degree under section 609.224 and the assault victim was a

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family or household member as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, unless three years have elapsed from the date of conviction and, during that time, the person has not been convicted of any other violation of this section or section 609.224. Property rights may not be abated but access may be restricted by the courts. A person who possesses a firearm in violation of this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

(f) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b) and (h), when a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, or 609.2247 and the court determines that the assault was against a family or household member, the court shall order the defendant to transfer any firearms that the person possesses, within three business days, to a federally licensed firearms dealer, a law enforcement agency, or a third party who may lawfully receive them. The transfer may be permanent or temporary, unless the court prohibits the person from possessing a firearm for the remainder of the person's life under paragraph (c). A temporary firearm transfer only entitles the receiving party to possess the firearm. A temporary transfer does not transfer ownership or title. A defendant may not transfer firearms to a third party who resides with the defendant. If a defendant makes a temporary transfer, a federally licensed firearms dealer or law enforcement agency may charge the defendant a reasonable fee to store the person's firearms and may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified by certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms. For temporary firearms transfers under this paragraph, a law enforcement agency, federally licensed firearms dealer, or third party shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the transferred firearms and shall return the transferred firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period imposed under this subdivision, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The return of temporarily transferred firearms to a person shall comply with state and federal law. If a defendant permanently transfers the defendant's firearms to a law enforcement agency, the agency is not required to compensate the defendant and may charge the defendant a reasonable processing fee. A law enforcement agency is not required to accept a person's firearm under this paragraph. The court shall order that the person surrender all permits to carry and purchase firearms to the sheriff.

(g) A defendant who is ordered to transfer firearms under paragraph (f) must file proof of transfer as provided for in this paragraph. If the transfer is made to a third party, the third party must sign an affidavit under oath before a notary public either acknowledging that the defendant permanently transferred the defendant's firearms to the third party or agreeing to temporarily store the defendant's firearms until such time as the defendant is legally permitted to possess firearms. The affidavit shall indicate the serial number, make, and model of all firearms transferred by the defendant to the third party. The third party shall acknowledge in the affidavit that the third party may be held criminally and civilly responsible under section 624.7144 if the defendant gains access to a transferred firearm while the firearm is in the custody of the third party. If the transfer is to a law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer, the law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer shall provide proof of transfer to the defendant. The proof of transfer must specify whether the firearms were permanently or temporarily transferred and include the name of the defendant, date of transfer, and the serial number, make, and model of all transferred firearms. The defendant shall provide the court with a signed and notarized affidavit or proof of transfer as described in this section within two business days of the firearms transfer. The court shall seal affidavits and proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph.

(h) When a person is convicted of a violation of this section or section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.224, or 609.2247, and the court determines that the assault was against a family or household member, the court shall determine by a preponderance of the evidence if the person poses an imminent risk of causing another person substantial bodily harm. Upon a finding of imminent risk, the court shall order that the local law enforcement agency take immediate possession of all firearms in the person's possession. The local law enforcement agency shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the defendant's firearms and shall return the firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The local law enforcement agency shall, upon written notice from the person, transfer the firearms to a federally licensed firearms dealer or a third party who may lawfully receive them. Before a local law enforcement agency transfers a firearm under this paragraph, the agency

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shall require the third party or federally licensed firearms dealer receiving the firearm to submit an affidavit or proof of transfer that complies with the requirements for affidavits or proofs of transfer established in paragraph (g). The agency shall file all affidavits or proofs of transfer received with the court within two business days of the transfer. The court shall seal all affidavits or proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph. A federally licensed firearms dealer or third party who accepts a firearm transfer pursuant to this paragraph shall comply with paragraphs (f) and (g) as if accepting transfer from the defendant. If the law enforcement agency does not receive written notice from the defendant within three business days, the agency may charge a reasonable fee to store the defendant's firearms. A law enforcement agency may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms.

(i) The court shall ensure that all firearms have been transferred and all proofs of transfer submitted as required by paragraphs (f), (g), and (h), by scheduling and holding a compliance hearing. The compliance hearing is governed by section 518B.03.

Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.749, subdivision 8, is amended to read:

Subd. 8. Harassment; stalking; firearms. (a) When a person is convicted of harassment or stalking under this section and the court determines that the person used a firearm in any way during commission of the crime, the court may order that the person is prohibited from possessing any type of firearm for any period longer than three years or for the remainder of the person's life. A person who violates this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor. At the time of the conviction, the court shall inform the defendant for how long the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm and that it is a gross misdemeanor to violate this paragraph. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.

(b) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), when a person is convicted of harassment or stalking under this section, the court shall inform the defendant that the defendant is prohibited from possessing a firearm for three years from the date of conviction and that it is a gross misdemeanor offense to violate this prohibition. The failure of the court to provide this information to a defendant does not affect the applicability of the firearm possession prohibition or the gross misdemeanor penalty to that defendant.

(c) Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (a), a person is not entitled to possess a pistol if the person has been convicted after August 1, 1996, of harassment or stalking under this section, or to possess a firearm if the person has been convicted on or after August 1, 2014, of harassment or stalking under this section, unless three years have elapsed from the date of conviction and, during that time, the person has not been convicted of any other violation of this section. Property rights may not be abated but access may be restricted by the courts. A person who possesses a firearm in violation of this paragraph is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

(d) If the court determines that a person convicted of harassment or stalking under this section owns or possesses a firearm and used it in any way during the commission of the crime, it shall order that the firearm be summarily forfeited under section 609.5316, subdivision 3.

(e) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (d) and (g), when a person is convicted of harassment or stalking under this section, the court shall order the defendant to transfer any firearms that the person possesses, within three business days, to a federally licensed firearms dealer, a law enforcement agency, or a third party who may lawfully receive them. The transfer may be permanent or temporary. A temporary firearm transfer only entitles the receiving party to possess the firearm. A temporary transfer does not transfer ownership or title. A defendant may not transfer firearms to a third party who resides with the defendant. If a defendant makes a temporary transfer, a federally licensed firearms dealer or law enforcement agency may charge the defendant a reasonable fee to store the person's firearms and may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms. For temporary firearms transfers

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under this paragraph, a law enforcement agency, federally licensed firearms dealer, or third party shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the transferred firearms and shall return the transferred firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period imposed under this subdivision, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The return of temporarily transferred firearms to a defendant shall comply with state and federal law. If a defendant permanently transfers the defendant's firearms to a law enforcement agency, the agency is not required to compensate the defendant and may charge the defendant a reasonable processing fee. A law enforcement agency is not required to accept a person's firearm under this paragraph. The court shall order that the person surrender all permits to carry and purchase firearms to the sheriff.

(f) A defendant who is ordered to transfer firearms under paragraph (e) must file proof of transfer as provided for in this paragraph. If the transfer is made to a third party, the third party must sign an affidavit under oath before a notary public either acknowledging that the defendant permanently transferred the defendant's firearms to the third party or agreeing to temporarily store the defendant's firearms until such time as the defendant is legally permitted to possess firearms. The affidavit shall indicate the serial number, make, and model of all firearms transferred by the defendant to the third party. The third party shall acknowledge in the affidavit that the third party may be held criminally and civilly responsible under section 624.7144 if the defendant gains access to a transferred firearm while the firearm is in the custody of the third party. If the transfer is to a law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer, the law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer shall provide proof of transfer to the defendant. The proof of transfer must specify whether the firearms were permanently or temporarily transferred and include the name of the defendant, date of transfer, and the serial number, make, and model of all transferred firearms. The defendant shall provide the court with a signed and notarized affidavit or proof of transfer as described in this section within two business days of the firearms transfer. The court shall seal affidavits and proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph.

(g) When a person is convicted of harassment or stalking under this section, the court shall determine by a preponderance of the evidence if the person poses an imminent risk of causing another person substantial bodily harm. Upon a finding of imminent risk, the court shall order that the local law enforcement agency take immediate possession of all firearms in the person's possession. The local law enforcement agency shall exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the defendant's firearms and shall return the firearms to the person upon request after the expiration of the prohibiting time period, provided the person is not otherwise prohibited from possessing firearms under state or federal law. The local law enforcement agency shall, upon written notice from the person, transfer the firearms to a federally licensed firearms dealer or a third party who may lawfully receive them. Before a local law enforcement agency transfers a firearm under this paragraph, the agency shall require the third party or federally licensed firearms dealer receiving the firearm to submit an affidavit or proof of transfer that complies with the requirements for affidavits or proofs of transfer established in paragraph (f). The agency shall file all affidavits or proofs of transfer received with the court within two business days of the transfer. The court shall seal all affidavits or proofs of transfer filed pursuant to this paragraph. A federally licensed firearms dealer or third party who accepts a firearm transfer pursuant to this paragraph shall comply with paragraphs (e) and (f) as if accepting transfer from the defendant. If the law enforcement agency does not receive written notice from the defendant within three business days, the agency may charge a reasonable fee to store the defendant's firearms. A law enforcement agency may establish policies for disposal of abandoned firearms, provided such policies require that the person be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms.

(h) The court shall ensure that all firearms have been transferred and all proofs of transfer submitted as required in paragraphs (e), (f), and (g), by scheduling and holding a compliance hearing. The compliance hearing is governed by section 518B.03.

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Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.715, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. Surrender of firearms. (a) The judge may order as a condition of release that the person surrender to the local law enforcement agency all firearms, destructive devices, or dangerous weapons owned or possessed by the person, and may not live in a residence where others possess firearms. Any firearm, destructive device, or dangerous weapon surrendered under this subdivision shall be inventoried and retained, with due care to preserve its quality and function, by the local law enforcement agency, and must be returned to the person upon the person's acquittal, when charges are dismissed, or if no charges are filed. If the person is convicted, the firearm must be returned when the court orders the return or when the person is discharged from probation and restored to civil rights. If the person is convicted of a designated offense as defined in section 609.531, the firearm is subject to forfeiture as provided under that section. This condition may be imposed in addition to any other condition authorized by rule 6.02 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure.

(b) The court shall ensure that all firearms have been surrendered by scheduling and holding a compliance hearing. The compliance hearing is governed by section 518B.03."

Delete the title and insert:

"A bill for an act relating to public safety; providing for enforcement of judicially ordered firearms restrictions for abusing parties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 260C.201, subdivision 3; 518B.01, subdivision 6; 609.2242, subdivision 3; 609.749, subdivision 8; 629.715, subdivision 2; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 518B."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

The report was adopted.

Fischer and Heintzeman from the Committee on Environment and Natural Resources Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 1531, A bill for an act relating to game and fish; removing expiration of crossbow hunting and fishing allowance; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 97B.037.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 97B.037, is amended to read:

97B.037 CROSSBOW HUNTING AND FISHING.

~~(a)~~ Notwithstanding section 97B.035, subdivisions 1 and 2, a person may take deer, bear, turkey, common carp, or native rough fish by crossbow during the respective regular archery seasons. The transportation requirements of section 97B.051 apply to crossbows during the regular archery deer, bear, turkey, common carp, or native rough fish season. Crossbows must meet the requirements of section 97B.106, subdivision 2. A person taking deer, bear, turkey, common carp, or native rough fish by crossbow under this section must have a valid license to take the respective game.

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(b) This section expires June 30, 2026.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment."

Correct the title numbers accordingly

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Koegel and O'Driscoll from the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 1606, A bill for an act relating to commerce; prohibiting access to nudification technology; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 325E.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"Section 1. [325E.91] PROHIBITION ON NUDIFICATION TECHNOLOGY.

Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.

(b) "Intimate part" has the meaning given in section 609.341, subdivision 5.

(1) an image or video is altered or generated to depict an intimate part not depicted in an original unaltered image or video of an identifiable individual; and

(2) the altered or generated image or video is so realistic that a reasonable person would believe that the intimate part belongs to the identifiable individual.

(d) "Technical skill" means substantial application of individualized technological or artistic skill and judgment by a human creator in directing, shaping, or controlling the output.

Subd. 2. Nudification prohibited. (a) A person who owns or controls a website, application, software, program, or other service must not:

(1) allow a user to access, download, or use the website, application, software, program, or other service to nudify an image or video; or

(2) nudify an image or video on behalf of a user.

(b) No person may advertise or promote any website, application, software, program, or other service that performs the actions described in paragraph (a).

Subd. 3. Exemption. The prohibitions in subdivision 2 do not apply when the website, application, software, program, or other service requires the technical skill of a user to nudify an image or video.

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Subd. 4. Civil action; damages. An individual depicted in an image or video that was nudified in violation of this section may bring a civil action in district court against the person who violated this section for:

(1) compensatory damages, including mental anguish or suffering, in an amount up to three times the actual damages sustained;

(2) punitive damages;

(3) injunctive relief;

(4) reasonable attorney fees, costs, and disbursements; and

(5) other relief the court deems just and equitable.

Subd. 5. Penalties. (a) The attorney general may enforce this section under section 8.31. In addition to other remedies or penalties, a person who violates this section is subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $500,000 for each unlawful access, download, or use under subdivision 2.

(b) Notwithstanding any contrary provision in law, including but not limited to section 16A.151, any civil penalty recovered under this subdivision must be deposited into the general fund. On July 1 each year, the accumulated balance of civil penalties collected in the previous year is appropriated to the commissioner of public safety for the Office of Justice Programs to provide grants to organizations to provide direct services and advocacy for victims of sexual assault, general crime, domestic violence, and child abuse. Funding must support the direct needs of organizations serving victims of crime by providing:

(1) direct client assistance to crime victims;

(2) competitive wages for direct service staff;

(3) hotel stays and other housing-related supports and services;

(4) culturally responsive programming;

(5) prevention programming, including domestic abuse transformation and restorative justice programming; and

(6) for other needs of organizations and crime victim survivors.

Services funded must include services for victims of crime in underserved communities most impacted by violence and reflect the ethnic, racial, economic, cultural, and geographic diversity of the state. Up to five percent of the appropriation is available for grant administration.

Subd. 6. Jurisdiction; venue. (a) A court has jurisdiction over a civil action filed pursuant to this section if the plaintiff or defendant resides in this state.

(b) A civil action arising under this section may be filed in the county where the plaintiff resides.

Subd. 7. Immunity. This section does not alter or amend the liabilities and protections granted by United States Code, title 47, section 230, and shall be construed in a manner consistent with federal law.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to causes of action accruing on or after that date."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

The report was adopted.

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Liebling and Scott from the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law to which was referred:

H. F. No. 2354, A bill for an act relating to consumer protection; adding and modifying provisions governing medical assistance fraud; providing the attorney general certain subpoena and enforcement authority; providing criminal penalties; making conforming changes; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 8.16, subdivision 1; 609.52, subdivision 2; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 256B.12; 609.902, subdivision 4; 628.26; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 609; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.466.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

The report was adopted.

Backer and Bierman from the Committee on Health Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 2906, A bill for an act relating to health; establishing a psilocybin therapeutic use program; establishing protections for registered patients, designated cultivators, registered facilitators, and health care practitioners; authorizing rulemaking; authorizing civil actions; establishing fees; classifying data; establishing an advisory committee; providing criminal penalties; appropriating money; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 152.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"ARTICLE 1

THERAPEUTIC USE OF PSILOCYBIN

Section 1. PURPOSE.

The purpose of this act is to establish a legal, regulated framework for the therapeutic use of psilocybin by individuals who are 21 years of age or older with a registered facilitator, have been diagnosed with a qualifying medical condition, and meet the other requirements for enrollment in the program.

Sec. 2. [152.40] DEFINITIONS.

Subdivision 1. Application. For the purposes of sections 152.40 to 152.53, the following terms have the meanings given.

Subd. 2. Administration session. "Administration session" means a session supervised by a registered facilitator during which a registered patient consumes and experiences the effects of psilocybin.

Subd. 3. Commissioner. "Commissioner" means the commissioner of health.

Subd. 4. Integration session. "Integration session" means a meeting between a registered patient and a registered facilitator that occurs after the completion of an administration session.

Subd. 5. Physician. "Physician" means a Minnesota-licensed physician.

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Subd. 6. Preparation session. "Preparation session" means a meeting between a registered patient and a registered facilitator that occurs before an administration session. Preparation session does not mean an initial consultation between a registered patient and registered facilitator regarding psilocybin use, an inquiry from a registered patient to a registered facilitator regarding psilocybin use, or a registered facilitator's response to a registered patient's inquiry regarding psilocybin use.

Subd. 7. Program. "Program" means the psilocybin therapeutic use program established under sections 152.40 to 152.53.

Subd. 8. Program research institution. "Program research institution" means a Minnesota nonprofit or academic institution that advises and assists with program data collection for public health monitoring, training, continuing education, and ethical oversight requirements.

Subd. 9. Psilocybin. "Psilocybin" means any mushroom, in raw, dried, or prepared form, that contains the psychoactive compound psilocybin or its metabolite psilocin.

Subd. 10. Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee or advisory committee. "Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee" or "advisory committee" means the advisory committee established under section 152.53.

Subd. 11. Qualifying medical condition. "Qualifying medical condition" means a medical condition designated by the commissioner for which psilocybin shows evidence for an appropriate therapeutic use, including but not limited to posttraumatic stress disorder, depression, substance use disorders, anxiety, and chronic pain.

Subd. 12. Registered facilitator. "Registered facilitator" means an individual registered with the commissioner to provide services in preparation sessions and integration sessions and to supervise administration sessions.

Subd. 13. Registered patient. "Registered patient" means a Minnesota resident certified by a physician as having a qualifying medical condition and enrolled in the psilocybin therapeutic use program.

Subd. 14. Registered supplier. "Registered supplier" means an individual or entity licensed by the state to cultivate psilocybin for facilitated use in administration sessions.

Subd. 15. Testing facility. "Testing facility" means a Minnesota entity certified by the state to test the quality and dose of psilocybin to be used for treatment sessions.

Subd. 16. Treatment facility. "Treatment facility" means a Minnesota health clinic or center that has been licensed by the state with appropriately trained staff and safety equipment for facilitated sessions. To accommodate homebound patients, a treatment facility may be the homebound patient's residence with a registered facilitator and appropriate safety equipment provided by the registered facilitator.

Sec. 3. [152.41] PSILOCYBIN THERAPEUTIC USE PROGRAM.

Subdivision 1. Establishment. The commissioner of health must establish and administer a psilocybin therapeutic use program according to sections 152.40 to 152.53 in which individuals age 21 and older who have a qualifying medical condition and meet the other eligibility requirements may enroll in the program and are able to access and use psilocybin with a registered facilitator at a treatment facility.

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Subd. 2. Rulemaking; commissioner of health. (a) The commissioner must adopt rules to govern the operation of the program. The rules must at least:

(1) specify the qualifying medical conditions that an individual must be diagnosed with in order to enroll in the program, based upon emerging evidence from scientific research and clinical trials evaluated in the psychedelic medicine task force legislative report, including but not limited to posttraumatic stress disorder, depression, substance use disorders, anxiety, chronic pain, and other conditions where scientific evidence shows there may be therapeutic benefit;

(2) specify testing standards in collaboration with the program research institution for psilocybin mushrooms to ensure safety, appropriate dosing for treatment sessions, and preventing diversion;

(3) establish a standardized questionnaire in collaboration with the program research institution for use by physicians to conduct health screenings of individuals seeking to enroll in the program;

(4) establish a standardized formal risk assessment tool in collaboration with the program research institution for use by physicians to evaluate identified contraindications in individuals seeking to enroll in the program;

(5) establish qualifications in collaboration with the program research institution to register with the commissioner as a facilitator, including any additional subjects on which individuals must demonstrate competency and how individuals must demonstrate competency in the required subjects; and

(6) establish qualifications to register with the commissioner as a cultivator in collaboration with the program research institution, including any additional subjects on which individuals must demonstrate competency in the required subjects and standards for cultivation. Cultivators must work with testing facilities to ensure appropriate quality and dosing of psilocybin prior to releasing to registered facilitators and patients for treatment.

(b) The commissioner must consult with the advisory committee and the program research institution in adopting rules under this subdivision.

(c) Rules for which notice is published in the State Register before July 1, 2027, may be adopted using the expedited rulemaking process in section 14.389. The notice of the proposed rule for the items in paragraph (a) must be published in the State Register no later than January 1, 2027.

Subd. 3. Evaluation and research. (a) The commissioner must collect from registered patients de-identified data on the frequency with which registered patients use psilocybin in administration sessions, the qualifying medical conditions for which psilocybin is used, outcomes from psilocybin use experienced by registered patients, and adverse effects of psilocybin use experienced by registered patients, as well as any changes to utilization of other health care, social services, or government funded programs. Registered patients and registered facilitators must provide data to the commissioner in a form and manner specified by the commissioner. The commissioner must use data collected under this paragraph to evaluate the program and, in consultation with the advisory committee and in collaboration with the program research institution, develop recommendations to improve the program. A program research institution may consult and partner with federal health and research institutions.

(b) The commissioner may support research that investigates novel therapeutic uses of psilocybin and psilocin. In determining whether to support research initiatives, the commissioner must consider the recommendations of the task force authorized under Laws 2023, chapter 70, article 4, section 99.

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Subd. 4. Interagency agreement with Office of Cannabis Management. The commissioner of the Department of Health must enter into an interagency agreement with the director of the Office of Cannabis Management for administration of the psilocybin therapeutic use program. The director of the Office of Cannabis Management must have oversight over the following program functions:

(1) registered patient registries;

(2) registered facilitator licensing; and

(3) cultivation and testing of mushrooms in raw, dried, or prepared form, that contained the psychoactive compound psilocybin or its metabolite psilocin.

Sec. 4. [152.42] ELIGIBILITY AND ENROLLMENT IN PROGRAM.

Subdivision 1. Registration system. The commissioner must administer a secure registration system to track patients enrolled in the program while protecting their privacy.

Subd. 2. Eligibility for enrollment. (a) To enroll in the program, an individual must:

(1) be 21 years of age or older;

(2) submit to the commissioner a written certification from a physician dated within 90 days of submission and verifying the individual's diagnosis with a qualifying medical condition;

(3) submit to the commissioner a written certification or certifications from one or more physicians dated within 90 days of submission and verifying either:

(i) that the detailed health screening conducted according to subdivision 3 did not identify contraindications to the individual's use of psilocybin; or

(ii) that the detailed health screening identified contraindications to the individual's use of psilocybin but a physician conducted a further evaluation using a formal risk assessment tool and determined the individual's identified contraindications should not preclude the individual from using psilocybin; and

(4) submit an application to the commissioner in a form and manner specified by the commissioner.

(b) Individuals may apply for enrollment in the program beginning January 1, 2027.

Subd. 3. Health screening; evaluation. An individual who wishes to enroll in the program must have a detailed health screening performed by a physician to identify whether the individual has a qualifying medical condition and if any significant physical or mental health conditions or medications that are contraindications to the use of psilocybin. Contraindicated conditions may include but are not limited to cardiovascular disease, psychosis, and bipolar disorders. Contraindicated medications include but are not limited to lithium, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tramadol, and amphetamine stimulants. If the physician determines in the screening that the individual has one or more contraindications to the use of psilocybin, the individual must have the contraindication further evaluated by a physician using a formal risk assessment tool. An individual who has an additional evaluation performed may proceed with an application under subdivision 2 only if the physician performing the additional evaluation determines the individual's identified contraindications should not preclude the individual from using psilocybin.

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Subd. 4. Informed consent. Upon receiving the individual's complete application and certifications required under subdivision 2, the commissioner must provide the individual with information on the nature of psilocybin use for therapeutic purposes, potential adverse effects of psilocybin use, and possible interactions between psilocybin and other commonly used drugs, along with a document, to be signed and returned by the individual, that the individual has read and understood the information provided and wishes to enroll in the program. An individual who wishes to proceed with the individual's application must sign and date the informed consent form and return it to the commissioner.

Subd. 5. Enrollment. The commissioner must approve or deny the individual's application within 60 days after receiving the individual's informed consent form under subdivision 4. Upon approval of an individual's application and receipt of the enrollment fee required under section 152.52, the commissioner must register the individual in the program and issue the individual a card that permits the registered patient to access psilocybin with a registered facilitator at a treatment facility.

Subd. 6. Renewal. (a) A registered patient's registration is valid for 12 months from the date of issuance. A registered patient who wishes to renew the registration must, at least 60 days before the registration expires, submit an application for registration renewal; written certifications that meet the requirements in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (2) and (3); and the fee required under section 152.52. The commissioner must approve or deny a registered patient's renewal application within 60 days after receiving the complete application and written certifications.

(b) A registered patient whose registration expired less than 31 days ago may renew the registration under paragraph (a). A registered patient whose registration expired 31 or more days ago must apply for enrollment according to subdivision 2.

Subd. 7. Permitted acts. (a) Subject to section 152.46, a registered patient is permitted to:

(1) designate a registered facilitator; and

(2) consume the recommended amount at a treatment facility with an approved facilitator according to the recommended dosing limit.

(b) Subject to section 152.46, a registered supplier and testing facility registered with the commissioner is permitted to cultivate and possess psilocybin, provided the cultivation and testing is performed according to section 152.43 and the total amount possessed does not exceed the limit designed by the program.

(c) Subject to section 152.46, a registered facilitator is permitted, according to section 152.44, to obtain psilocybin from a registered supplier, transport psilocybin to the treatment facility, provide services to registered patients in preparation sessions and integration sessions, and to administer psilocybin and supervise administration sessions of registered patients.

(d) No civil or criminal penalty shall be imposed on:

(1) a registered patient solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (a);

(2) a registered supplier and testing facility solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (b); or

(3) a registered facilitator solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (c).

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Subd. 8. Program initiation. The commissioner must approve an initial program structured to include:

(1) between 20 to 50 registered facilitators with experience either conducting clinical trials with psilocybin or administering ketamine-assisted therapy;

(2) at least three testing facilities; and

(3) no more than 1,000 patients with qualifying medical conditions registered in the program during the first three years of the program.

Subd. 9. Program evaluation. The commissioner, in consultation with the advisory committee and the program research institution, must evaluate the program at the end of the three-year period.

Sec. 5. [152.43] CULTIVATION.

Subdivision 1. Cultivation authorized. (a) A registered patient and registered facilitator may compensate a registered supplier who cultivates psilocybin for the program at a registered facility. Compensating a registered supplier for cultivation under this paragraph does not constitute the sale or commercial distribution of psilocybin.

(b) Before cultivating psilocybin for the program, a registered supplier must register with the commissioner.

(1) cultivate psilocybin only for licensed treatment facilities, registered facilitators, and their registered patients in an amount that does not exceed the cultivation limit as established by the commissioner of health; and

(2) not cultivate psilocybin in an amount that exceeds the cultivation limit provided under their license as designated by the commissioner.

Subd. 2. Secure location. Cultivation by a licensed cultivator must take place at an approved location in an enclosed locked space that is not accessible to the public or by individuals under age 21 and contains on-site testing facilities for quality and potency testing.

Sec. 6. [152.44] LOCATION AND FACILITATOR; ADMINISTRATION SESSIONS.

Subdivision 1. Location. A registered patient may use psilocybin in an administration session only:

(1) at an approved private residence, including the curtilage or yard of the residence, unless the property owner prohibits the use of psilocybin on the property; or

(2) at a licensed treatment facility, unless the property owner prohibits the use of psilocybin on the property.

Subd. 2. Registered facilitator. A registered facilitator must be physically present with a registered patient during an administration session to supervise the registered patient's use of psilocybin and to contact emergency services if necessary during the administration session. As a condition of supervising an administration session for a registered patient, a registered facilitator may require the registered patient to also participate in a preparation session and an integration session with the registered facilitator. A registered facilitator may charge a reasonable fee for the registered facilitator's services.

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Subd. 3. Informed consent. (a) Before a registered facilitator supervises a registered patient's administration session, the registered facilitator must provide the registered patient with information on the nature of psilocybin use for therapeutic purposes, what to expect in an administration session, potential adverse effects of psilocybin use, and possible interactions between psilocybin and other commonly used drugs. Registered patients will also be allowed to opt in for consent to data collection for program monitoring.

(b) A registered patient who wishes to proceed with an administration session must sign and date a document stating that the patient has been informed of and understands the information provided according to paragraph (a). Registered facilitators must maintain the signed informed consent documents for two years after receipt.

Subd. 4. Chain of custody for psilocybin and psilocin. Before a registered patient's administration session, a registered facilitator or registered patient must procure the recommended dose of psilocybin from a registered supplier. At the time of exchange between a registered supplier and a registered facilitator or registered patient, both the registered supplier and registered facilitator or registered patient must attest to the exchange in a form and manner specified by the commissioner, and which must include, at minimum, the specific amount of psilocybin exchanged. Prior to an administration session, a registered facilitator and registered patient must attest to the specific dose amount that will be used in the administration session in a form and manner specified by the commissioner.

Sec. 7. [152.45] REGISTERED FACILITATOR.

Subdivision 1. Registration required; qualifications. An individual must register with the commissioner as a facilitator in order to supervise administration sessions for registered patients and to provide registered patients with services in preparation sessions and integration sessions. In order to register as a facilitator, an individual must:

(1) be 21 years of age or older;

(2) possess a license as a mental health professional as defined in section 245I.02, subdivision 27; and

(3) demonstrate competency, in a manner determined by the commissioner and in collaboration with the program research institution, on facilitator ethics; the safe use of psilocybin; duties of a facilitator during preparation sessions, administration sessions, and integration sessions; and other topics as determined by the commissioner and the program research institution.

An individual who holds a license, registration, or certification from a health-related licensing board as defined in section 214.01, subdivision 2; from the Office of Emergency Medical Services; or from the commissioner authorizing the individual to practice a health-related occupation may also serve as a registered facilitator.

Subd. 2. Application for registration; registration renewal. (a) An individual who wishes to register as a facilitator must apply to the commissioner in a form and manner specified by the commissioner.

(b) A registration issued under this section is valid for 12 months from the date of issuance. An individual who wishes to renew the individual's registration must apply for registration renewal, in a form and manner specified by the commissioner, at least 60 days before the individual's registration expires. In evaluating an application for registration renewal, the commissioner must consider any complaints reported to the commissioner under subdivision 3 and may decline to renew an individual's registration if the commissioner determines, based on complaints received or other evidence, that the individual did not perform the duties of a facilitator in a safe or ethical manner. The commissioner must approve or deny a registered facilitator's renewal application within 60 days after receiving the facilitator's complete application.

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(c) A registered facilitator whose registration expired less than 31 days ago may renew the registration under paragraph (b). A registered facilitator whose registration expired 31 or more days ago must apply for registration according to paragraph (a), except the commissioner must consider any complaints reported to the commissioner under subdivision 3 and may decline to register the individual if the commissioner determines, based on complaints received or other evidence, that the individual did not perform the duties of a facilitator in a safe or ethical manner.

(d) Individuals may apply for registration as a facilitator beginning October 1, 2026.

Subd. 3. Complaints. The commissioner must accept complaints from registered patients and other interested individuals regarding a registered facilitator's failure to supervise an administration session in a safe or ethical manner or failure to provide services in a preparation session or an integration session in a safe or ethical manner.

Subd. 4. List of registered facilitators. The commissioner must post on the Department of Health website the names of and contact information for registered facilitators.

Sec. 8. [152.46] LIMITATIONS.

Nothing in sections 152.40 to 152.53 permits an individual to:

(1) participate in the program if the individual is under 21 years of age;

(2) sell psilocybin to an individual or engage in the distribution of psilocybin to anyone not registered in the program;

(3) establish a treatment facility on the grounds of a public school, as defined in section 120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, or a charter school governed by chapter 124E, including all owned, rented, or leased facilities and all vehicles that a school district owns, leases, rents, contracts for, or controls;

(4) establish a treatment facility in a state correctional facility;

(5) if the individual is a registered facilitator, provide psilocybin to an individual who is not a registered patient or supervise the administration session of an individual who is not a registered patient; or

(6) if the individual is a registered supplier, cultivate psilocybin not intended for the program for registered patients.

Sec. 9. [152.47] CRIMINAL AND CIVIL PROTECTIONS.

Subdivision 1. Forfeiture. Psilocybin cultivated or obtained under sections 152.40 to 152.53 and associated property are not subject to forfeiture under sections 609.531 to 609.5316.

Subd. 2. Protections for public employees. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the commissioner, the governor of Minnesota, or an employee of any state agency may not be held civilly or criminally liable for any injury, loss of property, personal injury, or death caused by any act or omission while acting within the scope of their office or employment under sections 152.40 to 152.53.

Subd. 3. Search warrant. Federal, state, and local law enforcement authorities are prohibited from accessing the patient registry under sections 152.40 to 152.53 except when acting pursuant to a valid search warrant.

Subd. 4. Evidence in criminal proceeding. No information contained in a report, document, or registry or obtained from a patient under sections 152.40 to 152.53 may be admitted as evidence in a criminal proceeding unless independently obtained or in connection with a proceeding involving a violation of sections 152.40 to 152.53. Any person who violates this subdivision is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

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Subd. 5. Possession of registry card or application. The possession of a registry card or application for enrollment in the program by an individual entitled to possess a registry card or apply for enrollment in the program does not constitute probable cause or reasonable suspicion, and shall not be used to support a search of the person or property of the individual possessing the registry card or application, or otherwise subject the person or property of the individual to inspection by any governmental agency.

Subd. 6. Employment. An employer must not discriminate against a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator in hiring, termination, or any term or condition of employment, or otherwise penalize a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator based on the lawful cultivation, possession, transportation, provision of services in preparation sessions or integration sessions, supervision of administration sessions, or use of psilocybin under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless:

(1) the employer's failure to act would violate federal law or regulations or would cause the employer to lose a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations; or

(2) the registered patient's use of psilocybin directly impacts the registered patient's job performance or safety requirements of the registered patient's job position.

Subd. 7. Housing. No landlord may refuse to lease to or evict a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator solely for lawfully engaging in the psilocybin program under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the landlord's failure to do so would violate federal law or regulations or would cause the landlord to lose a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations.

Subd. 8. Education. No school may refuse to enroll a registered patient or registered supplier or registered facilitator solely for lawfully engaging with their respective treatment or duties for the psilocybin program under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the school's failure to do so would violate federal law or regulations or would cause the school to lose a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations.

Subd. 9. Custody; visitation; parenting time. A registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator must not be denied custody of a minor child or visitation rights or parenting time with a minor child based solely on the registered patient's, registered supplier's, or registered facilitator's lawful cultivation, possession, transportation, provision of services in preparation sessions or integration sessions, supervision of administration sessions, or use of psilocybin under sections 152.40 to 152.53, unless the registered patient's, designated behavior creates an unreasonable danger to the safety of the minor as demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence.

Subd. 10. Action for damages. In addition to any other remedy provided by law, a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator who is injured by a violation of subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9 may bring an action for damages against a person who violates subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9. A person who violates subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9 is liable to the registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator injured by the violation for the greater of the registered patient's, registered supplier's, or registered facilitator's actual damages or a civil penalty of $100, plus reasonable attorney fees.

Sec. 10. [152.48] VIOLATIONS.

Subdivision 1. Diversion by registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator. In addition to any other applicable penalty in law, a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator who intentionally sells or otherwise transfers psilocybin to a person other than a registered patient is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than two years or by payment of a fine of not more than $3,000, or both.

Subd. 2. False statement. An individual who intentionally makes a false statement to a law enforcement official about any fact or circumstance relating to the therapeutic use of psilocybin to avoid arrest or prosecution is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for not more than 90 days or by payment of a fine of not more

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than $1,000, or both. The penalty is in addition to any other penalties that may apply for making a false statement or for the possession, cultivation, or sale of psilocybin not protected by sections 152.40 to 152.53. If a person convicted of violating this subdivision is a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator, the person is disqualified from further participation under the program.

Sec. 11. [152.49] PROTECTIONS FOR PHYSICIANS AND REGISTERED FACILITATORS.

Subdivision 1. Physicians. The Board of Medical Practice must not impose civil or disciplinary penalties on, or limit or condition the practice of, a physician solely for certifying that an individual has a diagnosis of a qualifying medical condition according to section 152.42, subdivision 2, or performing health screenings or additional evaluations according to section 152.42, subdivision 3.

Subd. 2. Registered facilitators. (a) A health-related licensing board; the Office of Emergency Medical Services; or the commissioner must not impose civil or disciplinary penalties on, or limit or condition the practice of, a registered facilitator who also holds a license, registration, or certification from the health-related licensing board; Office of Emergency Medical Services; or commissioner solely for obtaining and transporting psilocybin for registered patients, providing services to registered patients in preparation sessions and integration sessions, and administering psilocybin and supervising administration sessions of registered patients, provided the services are provided or supervision is performed according to sections 152.40 to 152.53. No existing disciplinary procedures for complaints to the health licensing boards will be changed.

(b) For the purposes of paragraph (a), the health-related licensing boards include the Board of Medical Practice, Board of Nursing, Board of Psychology, Board of Social Work, Board of Marriage and Family Therapy, and Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy.

Sec. 12. [152.50] PUBLIC EDUCATION AND HARM REDUCTION.

Subdivision 1. Public education program. The commissioner in collaboration with the program research institution must develop and implement a public education program that makes information available to the public on the responsible use of psilocybin, potential risks of using psilocybin, harm reduction strategies related to psilocybin use, and mental health resources related to psilocybin use.

Subd. 2. Training programs for first responders. The commissioner in collaboration with the program research institution must develop and offer training programs for emergency medical responders, ambulance service personnel, peace officers, and other first responders on best practices for handling situations involving the use of psilocybin. The training programs must be developed and offered in coordination with the Office of Emergency Medical Services, the Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, the Minnesota State Patrol, and local law enforcement agencies.

Sec. 13. [152.51] DATA PRACTICES; ACCESS TO AND USE OF DATA.

(a) Except for the data specified in section 152.45, subdivision 4, data submitted to the commissioner under section 152.42, 152.43, or 152.45:

(1) is private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, or nonpublic data as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 9; and

(2) may only be used to comply with chapter 13, to comply with a request from the legislative auditor or state auditors in the performance of official duties, and for purposes specified in sections 152.40 to 152.53.

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(b) The data specified in paragraph (a) must not be combined or linked in any manner with any other list, data set, or database, and must not be shared with any federal agency, federal department, or federal entity unless specifically ordered by a state or federal court, or as part of a federally approved research project for monitoring of the program where a certificate of confidentiality is obtained by a federal agency to protect the identities of the program registrants.

Sec. 14. [152.52] FEES.

(a) The commissioner must collect an annual fee of $....... from each patient whose enrollment application or renewal application is approved by the commissioner.

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), if the patient provides evidence to the commissioner of receiving Social Security disability insurance, Supplemental Security Income, or veterans disability or railroad disability payments, or of being enrolled in medical assistance or MinnesotaCare, the commissioner must collect an annual fee of $....... from the patient after approving the patient's enrollment application or renewal application.

(c) Fees collected under this section must be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the state government special revenue fund. The commissioner may request appropriations of fee revenue to distribute as grants to fund Minnesota-based research exploring the effectiveness of psilocybin for additional conditions.

Sec. 15. [152.53] PSYCHEDELIC MEDICINE ADVISORY COMMITTEE.

Subdivision 1. Establishment. The commissioner must establish a Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee to advise the commissioner on the operation of the psilocybin therapeutic use program under sections 152.40 to 152.53.

Subd. 2. Membership. (a) The advisory committee shall consist of:

(1) ... members with knowledge or expertise regarding the therapeutic use of psilocybin and other psychedelic medicines or regarding integration resources associated with the use of psilocybin, as well as cultivation and testing of psilocybin. The commissioner must make recommendations to the governor for members appointed under this clause, and the governor must appoint members under this clause; and

(2) one member representing Tribal Nations in the state, appointed by the Indian Affairs Council.

(b) Initial appointments must be made to the advisory committee by November 1, 2026.

Subd. 3. Chairperson. Members of the advisory committee must elect a chairperson from among the advisory committee's members.

Subd. 4. Terms; compensation; removal of members. The advisory committee is governed by section 15.059, except the advisory committee does not expire.

Subd. 5. Meetings. The advisory committee must meet at least four times per year or at the call of the chairperson. The initial meeting of the advisory committee must occur by December 1, 2026, and must be called by the commissioner.

Subd. 6. Staff support; office space; equipment. The commissioner must provide the advisory committee with staff support, office space, and access to office equipment and services.

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Sec. 16. APPROPRIATION.

$....... in fiscal year 2026 and $....... in fiscal year 2027 are appropriated from the general fund to the commissioner of health for purposes of Minnesota Statutes, sections 152.40 to 152.53.

ARTICLE 2

SCHEDULING OF PSILOCYBIN

Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

Subd. 2. Schedule I. (a) Schedule I consists of the substances listed in this subdivision.

(b) Opiates. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any of the following substances, including their analogs, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the analogs, isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible:

(1) acetylmethadol;

(2) allylprodine;

(3) alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levomethadyl acetate);

(4) alphameprodine;

(5) alphamethadol;

(6) alpha-methylfentanyl benzethidine;

(7) betacetylmethadol;

(8) betameprodine;

(9) betamethadol;

(10) betaprodine;

(11) clonitazene;

(12) dextromoramide;

(13) diampromide;

(14) diethyliambutene;

(15) difenoxin;

(16) dimenoxadol;

(17) dimepheptanol;

(18) dimethyliambutene;

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(19) dioxaphetyl butyrate;

(20) dipipanone;

(21) ethylmethylthiambutene;

(22) etonitazene;

(23) etoxeridine;

(24) furethidine;

(25) hydroxypethidine;

(26) ketobemidone;

(27) levomoramide;

(28) levophenacylmorphan;

(29) 3-methylfentanyl;

(30) acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl;

(31) alpha-methylthiofentanyl;

(32) benzylfentanyl beta-hydroxyfentanyl;

(33) beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl;

(34) 3-methylthiofentanyl;

(35) thenylfentanyl;

(36) thiofentanyl;

(37) para-fluorofentanyl;

(38) morpheridine;

(39) 1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine;

(40) noracymethadol;

(41) norlevorphanol;

(42) normethadone;

(43) norpipanone;

(44) 1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetoxypiperidine (PEPAP);

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(45) phenadoxone;

(46) phenampromide;

(47) phenomorphan;

(48) phenoperidine;

(49) piritramide;

(50) proheptazine;

(51) properidine;

(52) propiram;

(53) racemoramide;

(54) tilidine;

(55) trimeperidine;

(56) N-(1-Phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide (acetyl fentanyl);

(57) 3,4-dichloro-N-[(1R,2R)-2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-

methylbenzamide (U47700);

(58) N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)piperidin-4-yl]furan-2-carboxamide (furanylfentanyl);

(59) 4-(4-bromophenyl)-4-dimethylamino-1-phenethylcyclohexanol (bromadol);

(60) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide (cyclopropyl fentanyl);

(61) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbutanamide) (butyryl fentanyl);

(62) 1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine) (MT-45);

(63) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopentanecarboxamide (cyclopentyl fentanyl);

(64) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylisobutyramide (isobutyryl fentanyl);

(65) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylpentanamide (valeryl fentanyl);

(66) N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide (para-chloroisobutyryl fentanyl);

(67) N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide (para-fluorobutyryl fentanyl);

(68) N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)butyramide (para-methoxybutyryl fentanyl);

(69) N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)acetamide (ocfentanil);

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(70) N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)isobutyramide (4-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl or para‑fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl);

(71) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacrylamide (acryl fentanyl or acryloylfentanyl);

(72) 2-methoxy-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylacetamide (methoxyacetyl fentanyl);

(73) N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)propionamide (ortho-fluorofentanyl or 2-fluorofentanyl);

(74) N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide (tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl);

(75) Fentanyl-related substances, their isomers, esters, ethers, salts and salts of isomers, esters and ethers, meaning any substance not otherwise listed under another federal Administration Controlled Substance Code Number or not otherwise listed in this section, and for which no exemption or approval is in effect under section 505 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act, United States Code, title 21, section 355, that is structurally related to fentanyl by one or more of the following modifications:

(i) replacement of the phenyl portion of the phenethyl group by any monocycle, whether or not further substituted in or on the monocycle;

(ii) substitution in or on the phenethyl group with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;

(iii) substitution in or on the piperidine ring with alkyl, alkenyl, alkoxyl, ester, ether, hydroxyl, halo, haloalkyl, amino, or nitro groups;

(iv) replacement of the aniline ring with any aromatic monocycle whether or not further substituted in or on the aromatic monocycle; or

(v) replacement of the N-propionyl group by another acyl group;

(76) 1-(1-(1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl)piperidin-4-yl)-1,3- dihydro-2H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-one (brorphine);

(77) 4'-methyl acetyl fentanyl;

(78) beta-hydroxythiofentanyl;

(79) beta-methyl fentanyl;

(80) beta'-phenyl fentanyl;

(81) crotonyl fentanyl ((E)-N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylbut-2-enamide);

(82) cyclopropyl fentanyl (N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide);

(83) fentanyl carbamate;

(84) isotonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4 isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(85) para-fluoro furanyl fentanyl;

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(86) para-methylfentanyl;

(87) phenyl fentanyl;

(88) ortho-fluoroacryl fentanyl;

(89) ortho-fluorobutyryl fentanyl;

(90) ortho-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl;

(91) ortho-methyl acetylfentanyl;

(92) thiofuranyl fentanyl;

(93) metonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(94) metodesnitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-methoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(95) etodesnitazene; etazene (2-(2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine);

(96) protonitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(5-nitro-2-(4-propoxybenzyl)-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine);

(97) butonitazene (2-(2-(4-butoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)-N,N-diethylethan-1-amine);

(98) flunitazene (N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-fluorobenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine); and

(99) N-pyrrolidino etonitazene; etonitazepyne (2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-(2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl)-1H-benzimidazole).

(c) Opium derivatives. Any of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) acetorphine;

(2) acetyldihydrocodeine;

(3) benzylmorphine;

(4) codeine methylbromide;

(5) codeine-n-oxide;

(6) cyprenorphine;

(7) desomorphine;

(8) dihydromorphine;

(9) drotebanol;

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(10) etorphine;

(11) heroin;

(12) hydromorphinol;

(13) methyldesorphine;

(14) methyldihydromorphine;

(15) morphine methylbromide;

(16) morphine methylsulfonate;

(17) morphine-n-oxide;

(18) myrophine;

(19) nicocodeine;

(20) nicomorphine;

(21) normorphine;

(22) pholcodine; and

(23) thebacon.

(d) Hallucinogens. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers (whether optical, positional, or geometric), and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) methylenedioxy amphetamine;

(2) methylenedioxymethamphetamine;

(3) methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (MDEA);

(4) n-hydroxy-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(5) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOB);

(6) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (2,5-DMA);

(7) 4-methoxyamphetamine;

(8) 5-methoxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

(9) alpha-ethyltryptamine;

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(10) bufotenine;

(11) diethyltryptamine;

(12) dimethyltryptamine;

(13) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine;

(14) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOM);

(15) ibogaine;

(16) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD);

(17) mescaline;

(18) parahexyl;

(19) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

(20) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

~~(21) psilocybin;~~

~~(22) psilocyn;~~

~~(23)~~ (21) tenocyclidine (TPCP or TCP);

~~(24)~~ (22) N-ethyl-1-phenyl-cyclohexylamine (PCE);

~~(25)~~ (23) 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) pyrrolidine (PCPy);

~~(26)~~ (24) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]-pyrrolidine (TCPy);

~~(27)~~ (25) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOC);

~~(28)~~ (26) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOET);

~~(29)~~ (27) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (DOI);

~~(30)~~ (28) 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-B);

~~(31)~~ (29) 4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-C);

~~(32)~~ (30) 4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-D);

~~(33)~~ (31) 4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-E);

~~(34)~~ (32) 4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-I);

~~(35)~~ (33) 4-propyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-P);

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(36) (34) 4-isopropylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-4);

~~(37)~~ (35) 4-propylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (2C-T-7);

~~(38)~~ (36) 2-(8-bromo-2,3,6,7-tetrahydrofuro [2,3-f][1]benzofuran-4-yl)ethanamine (2-CB-FLY);

~~(39)~~ (37) bromo-benzodifuranyl-isopropylamine (Bromo-DragonFLY);

~~(40)~~ (38) alpha-methyltryptamine (AMT);

~~(41)~~ (39) N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (DiPT);

~~(42)~~ (40) 4-acetoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DMT);

~~(43)~~ (41) 4-acetoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (4-AcO-DET);

~~(44)~~ (42) 4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-propyltryptamine (4-HO-MPT);

~~(45)~~ (43) 4-hydroxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (4-HO-DPT);

~~(46)~~ (44) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (4-HO-DALT);

~~(47)~~ (45) 4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (4-HO-DiPT);

~~(48)~~ (46) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DiPT);

~~(49)~~ (47) 5-methoxy-α-methyltryptamine (5-MeO-AMT);

~~(50)~~ (48) 5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DMT);

~~(51)~~ (49) 5-methylthio-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (5-MeS-DMT);

~~(52)~~ (50) 5-methoxy-N-methyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (5-MeO-MiPT);

~~(53)~~ (51) 5-methoxy-α-ethyltryptamine (5-MeO-AET);

~~(54)~~ (52) 5-methoxy-N,N-dipropyltryptamine (5-MeO-DPT);

~~(55)~~ (53) 5-methoxy-N,N-diethyltryptamine (5-MeO-DET);

~~(56)~~ (54) 5-methoxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (5-MeO-DALT);

~~(57)~~ (55) methoxetamine (MXE);

~~(58)~~ (56) 5-iodo-2-aminoindane (5-IAI);

~~(59)~~ (57) 5,6-methylenedioxy-2-aminoindane (MDAI);

~~(60)~~ (58) 2-(4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25B-NBOMe);

~~(61)~~ (59) 2-(4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25C-NBOMe);

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(62) (60) 2-(4-iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)-N-(2-methoxybenzyl)ethanamine (25I-NBOMe);

~~(63)~~ (61) 2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-H);

~~(64)~~ (62) 2-(4-Ethylthio-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (2C-T-2);

~~(65)~~ (63) N,N-Dipropyltryptamine (DPT);

~~(66)~~ (64) 3-[1-(Piperidin-1-yl)cyclohexyl]phenol (3-HO-PCP);

~~(67)~~ (65) N-ethyl-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanamine (3-MeO-PCE);

~~(68)~~ (66) 4-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]morpholine (3-MeO-PCMo);

~~(69)~~ (67) 1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]-piperidine (methoxydine, 4-MeO-PCP);

~~(70)~~ (68) 2-(2-Chlorophenyl)-2-(ethylamino)cyclohexan-1-one (N-Ethylnorketamine, ethketamine, NENK);

~~(71)~~ (69) methylenedioxy-N,N-dimethylamphetamine (MDDMA);

~~(72)~~ (70) 3-(2-Ethyl(methyl)aminoethyl)-1H-indol-4-yl (4-AcO-MET); and

~~(73)~~ (71) 2-Phenyl-2-(methylamino)cyclohexanone (deschloroketamine).

(e) Peyote. All parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora williamsii Lemaire, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, any extract from any part of the plant, and every compound, manufacture, salts, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or extracts. The listing of peyote as a controlled substance in Schedule I does not apply to the nondrug use of peyote in bona fide religious ceremonies of the American Indian Church, and members of the American Indian Church are exempt from registration. Any person who manufactures peyote for or distributes peyote to the American Indian Church, however, is required to obtain federal registration annually and to comply with all other requirements of law.

(f) Central nervous system depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) mecloqualone;

(2) methaqualone;

(3) gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB), including its esters and ethers;

(4) flunitrazepam;

(5) 2-(2-Methoxyphenyl)-2-(methylamino)cyclohexanone (2-MeO-2-deschloroketamine, methoxyketamine);

(6) tianeptine;

(7) clonazolam;

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(8) etizolam;

(9) flubromazolam; and

(10) flubromazepam.

(g) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) aminorex;

(2) cathinone;

(3) fenethylline;

(4) methcathinone;

(5) methylaminorex;

(6) N,N-dimethylamphetamine;

(7) N-benzylpiperazine (BZP);

(8) methylmethcathinone (mephedrone);

(9) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-methylcathinone (methylone);

(10) methoxymethcathinone (methedrone);

(11) methylenedioxypyrovalerone (MDPV);

(12) 3-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (3-FMC);

(13) methylethcathinone (MEC);

(14) 1-benzofuran-6-ylpropan-2-amine (6-APB);

(15) dimethylmethcathinone (DMMC);

(16) fluoroamphetamine;

(17) fluoromethamphetamine;

(18) α-methylaminobutyrophenone (MABP or buphedrone);

(19) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)butan-1-one (butylone);

(20) 2-(methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)butan-1-one (4-MEMABP or BZ-6378);

(21) 1-(naphthalen-2-yl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl) pentan-1-one (naphthylpyrovalerone or naphyrone);

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(22) (alpha-pyrrolidinopentiophenone (alpha-PVP);

(23) (RS)-1-(4-methylphenyl)-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-hexanone (4-Me-PHP or MPHP);

(24) 2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-hexanophenone (Alpha-PHP);

(25) 4-methyl-N-ethylcathinone (4-MEC);

(26) 4-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4-MePPP);

(27) 2-(methylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (pentedrone);

(28) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(methylamino)pentan-1-one (pentylone);

(29) 4-fluoro-N-methylcathinone (4-FMC);

(30) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylcathinone (ethylone);

(31) alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone (α-PBP);

(32) 5-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (5-APDB);

(33) 1-phenyl-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-heptanone (PV8);

(34) 6-(2-Aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (6-APDB);

(35) 4-methyl-alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone (4-MEAPP);

(36) 4'-chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (4'-chloro-PPP);

(37) 1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)butan-1-one (dibutylone, bk-DMBDB);

(38) 1-(3-chlorophenyl) piperazine (meta-chlorophenylpiperazine or mCPP);

(39) 1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-pentan-1-one (N-ethylpentylone, ephylone);

(40) any other substance, except bupropion or compounds listed under a different schedule, that is structurally derived from 2-aminopropan-1-one by substitution at the 1-position with either phenyl, naphthyl, or thiophene ring systems, whether or not the compound is further modified in any of the following ways:

(i) by substitution in the ring system to any extent with alkyl, alkylenedioxy, alkoxy, haloalkyl, hydroxyl, or halide substituents, whether or not further substituted in the ring system by one or more other univalent substituents;

(ii) by substitution at the 3-position with an acyclic alkyl substituent;

(iii) by substitution at the 2-amino nitrogen atom with alkyl, dialkyl, benzyl, or methoxybenzyl groups; or

(iv) by inclusion of the 2-amino nitrogen atom in a cyclic structure;

(41) 4,4'-dimethylaminorex (4,4'-DMAR; 4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-(4-methylphenyl)-2-oxazolamine);

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(42) 4-chloro-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (4-chloro-A-PVP);

(43) para-methoxymethamphetamine (PMMA), 1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine; and

(44) N-ethylhexedrone.

(h) Synthetic cannabinoids, including the following substances:

(1) Naphthoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(1-napthoyl)indole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of naphthoylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-Pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-018 and AM-678);

(ii) 1-Butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-073);

(iii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-081);

(iv) 1-[2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl]-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-200);

(v) 1-Propyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-015);

(vi) 1-Hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-019);

(vii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-122);

(viii) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-210);

(ix) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole (JWH-398);

(x) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole (AM-2201).

(2) Napthylmethylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of naphthylmethylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane (JWH-175);

(ii) 1-Pentyl-1H-indol-3-yl-(4-methyl-1-naphthyl)methane (JWH-184).

(3) Naphthoylpyrroles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of naphthoylpyrroles include, but are not limited to, (5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1-pentylpyrrol-3-yl)-naphthalen-1-ylmethanone (JWH-307).

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(4) Naphthylmethylindenes, which are any compounds containing a naphthylideneindene structure with substitution at the 3-position of the indene ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1‑(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Examples of naphthylemethylindenes include, but are not limited to, E-1-[1-(1-naphthalenylmethylene)-1H-inden-3-yl]pentane (JWH-176).

(5) Phenylacetylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-phenylacetylindole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of phenylacetylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (RCS-8);

(ii) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-250);

(iii) 1-pentyl-3-(2-methylphenylacetyl)indole (JWH-251);

(iv) 1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole (JWH-203).

(6) Cyclohexylphenols, which are compounds containing a 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol structure with substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Examples of cyclohexylphenols include, but are not limited to:

(i) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (CP 47,497);

(ii) 5-(1,1-dimethyloctyl)-2-[(1R,3S)-3-hydroxycyclohexyl]-phenol (Cannabicyclohexanol or CP 47,497 C8 homologue);

(iii) 5-(1,1-dimethylheptyl)-2-[(1R,2R)-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxypropyl)cyclohexyl] -phenol (CP 55,940).

(7) Benzoylindoles, which are any compounds containing a 3-(benzoyl)indole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by an alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Examples of benzoylindoles include, but are not limited to:

(i) 1-Pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole (RCS-4);

(ii) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole (AM-694);

(iii) (4-methoxyphenyl-[2-methyl-1-(2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl)indol-3-yl]methanone (WIN 48,098 or Pravadoline).

(8) Others specifically named:

(i) (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl) -6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (HU-210);

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(ii) (6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl) -6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol (Dexanabinol or HU-211);

(iii) 2,3-dihydro-5-methyl-3-(4-morpholinylmethyl)pyrrolo[1,2,3-de] -1,4-benzoxazin-6-yl-1-naphthalenylmethanone (WIN 55,212-2);

(iv) (1-pentylindol-3-yl)-(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (UR-144);

(v) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone (XLR-11);

(vi) 1-pentyl-N-tricyclo[3.3.1.13,7]dec-1-yl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AKB-48(APINACA));

(vii) N-((3s,5s,7s)-adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (5-Fluoro-AKB-48);

(viii) 1-pentyl-8-quinolinyl ester-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (PB-22);

(ix) 8-quinolinyl ester-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylic acid (5-Fluoro PB-22);

(x) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-PINACA);

(xi) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-[(4-fluorophenyl)methyl]- 1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (AB-FUBINACA);

(xii) N-[(1S)-1-(aminocarbonyl)-2-methylpropyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H- indazole-3-carboxamide(AB-CHMINACA);

(xiii) (S)-methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3-methylbutanoate (5-fluoro-AMB);

(xiv) [1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazol-3-yl](naphthalen-1-yl)methanone (THJ-2201);

(xv) (1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-benzo[d]imidazol-2-yl)(naphthalen-1-yl)methanone) (FUBIMINA);

(xvi) (7-methoxy-1-(2-morpholinoethyl)-N-((1S,2S,4R)-1,3,3-trimethylbicyclo [2.2.1]heptan-2-yl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (MN-25 or UR-12);

(xvii) (S)-N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide (5-fluoro-ABICA);

(xviii) N-(1-amino-3-phenyl-1-oxopropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamide;

(xix) N-(1-amino-3-phenyl-1-oxopropan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;

(xx) methyl 2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xxi) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1(cyclohexylmethyl) -1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (MAB-CHMINACA);

(xxii) N-(1-Amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxo-2-butanyl)-1-pentyl-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (ADB-PINACA);

(xxiii) methyl (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carbonyl)-L-valinate (FUB-AMB);

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(xxiv) N-[(1S)-2-amino-2-oxo-1-(phenylmethyl)ethyl]-1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-Indazole-3-carboxamide (APP-CHMINACA);

(xxv) quinolin-8-yl 1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxylate (FUB-PB-22); and

(xxvi) methyl N-[1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carbonyl]valinate (MMB-CHMICA).

(9) Additional substances specifically named:

(i) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-pyrrolo[2,3-B]pyridine-3-carboxamide (5F-CUMYL-P7AICA);

(ii) 1-(4-cyanobutyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (4-CN-Cumyl-Butinaca);

(iii) naphthalen-1-yl-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1-H-indole-3-carboxylate (NM2201; CBL2201);

(iv) N-(1-amino-3-methyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (5F-ABPINACA);

(v) methyl-2-(1-(cyclohexylmethyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (MDMB CHMICA);

(vi) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate (5F-ADB; 5F-MDMB-PINACA);

(vii) N-(1-amino-3,3-dimethyl-1-oxobutan-2-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl) 1H-indazole-3-carboxamide (ADB-FUBINACA);

(viii) 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-N-(2-phenylpropan-2-yl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide;

(ix) (1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indol-3-yl)(2,2,3,3-tetramethylcyclopropyl)methanone;

(x) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1Hindazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xi) methyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xii) ethyl 2-(1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamido)-3,3-dimethylbutanoate;

(xiii) methyl 2-(1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1Hindazole-3-carboxamido)-3- methylbutanoate;

(xiv) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(4-fluorobenzyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide; and

(xv) N-(adamantan-1-yl)-1-(5-fluoropentyl)-1H-indazole-3-carboxamide.

(i) A controlled substance analog, to the extent that it is implicitly or explicitly intended for human consumption.

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.02, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

Subd. 5. Schedule IV. (a) Schedule IV consists of the substances listed in this subdivision.

(b) Narcotic drugs. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs, or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as follows:

(1) not more than one milligram of difenoxin and not less than 25 micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;

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(2) dextropropoxyphene (Darvon and Darvocet);

(3) 2-[(dimethylamino)methyl]-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexanol, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of these isomers (including tramadol);

(4) eluxadoline;

(5) pentazocine; and

(6) butorphanol (including its optical isomers).

(c) Depressants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of the salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) alfaxalone (5α-pregnan-3α-ol-11,20-dione);

(2) alprazolam;

(3) barbital;

(4) bromazepam;

(5) camazepam;

(6) carisoprodol;

(7) chloral betaine;

(8) chloral hydrate;

(9) chlordiazepoxide;

(10) clobazam;

(11) clonazepam;

(12) clorazepate;

(13) clotiazepam;

(14) cloxazolam;

(15) delorazepam;

(16) diazepam;

(17) dichloralphenazone;

(18) estazolam;

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(19) ethchlorvynol;

(20) ethinamate;

(21) ethyl loflazepate;

(22) fludiazepam;

(23) flurazepam;

(24) fospropofol;

(25) halazepam;

(26) haloxazolam;

(27) ketazolam;

(28) loprazolam;

(29) lorazepam;

(30) lormetazepam mebutamate;

(31) medazepam;

(32) meprobamate;

(33) methohexital;

(34) methylphenobarbital;

(35) midazolam;

(36) nimetazepam;

(37) nitrazepam;

(38) nordiazepam;

(39) oxazepam;

(40) oxazolam;

(41) paraldehyde;

(42) petrichloral;

(43) phenobarbital;

(44) pinazepam;

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(45) prazepam;

(46) quazepam;

(47) suvorexant;

(48) temazepam;

(49) tetrazepam;

(50) triazolam;

(51) zaleplon;

(52) zolpidem;

(53) zopiclone;

(54) brexanolone (3α-hydroxy-5α-pregnan-20-one);

(55) lemborexant;

(56) remimazolam (4H-imidazol[1,2-a][1,4]benzodiazepine4-propionic acid).

(d) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substance including its salts, isomers, and salts of such isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible: fenfluramine.

(e) Stimulants. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers:

(1) cathine (norpseudoephedrine);

(2) diethylpropion;

(3) fencamfamine;

(4) fenproporex;

(5) mazindol;

(6) mefenorex;

(7) modafinil;

(8) pemoline (including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof);

(9) phentermine;

(10) pipradol;

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(11) sibutramine;

(12) SPA (1-dimethylamino-1,2-diphenylethane);

(13) serdexmethylphenidate;

(14) solriamfetol (2-amino-3-phenylpropyl car-bamate; benzenepropanol, beta-amino-, carbamate (ester)).

(f) lorcaserin.

(g) Hallucinogens. Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances, their analogs, salts, isomers, whether optical, positional, or geometric, and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, whenever the existence of the analogs, salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible:

(1) psilocybin; and

(2) psilocin."

Delete the title and insert:

"A bill for an act relating to health; establishing a psilocybin therapeutic use program; establishing protections for registered patients, designated cultivators, registered facilitators, and health care practitioners; authorizing rulemaking; authorizing civil actions; establishing fees; classifying data; establishing an advisory committee; providing criminal penalties; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.02, subdivisions 2, 5; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 152."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3350, A bill for an act relating to public safety; establishing a lifetime firearms ban on persons who are convicted of certain misdemeanor and gross misdemeanor domestic assault offenses; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 518B.01, subdivision 14; 609.2242, subdivision 3; 624.713, subdivision 1.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 10, line 3, delete "either" and after "of" insert "either"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

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Bliss and Xiong from the Veterans and Military Affairs Division to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3467, A bill for an act relating to veterans; allowing the commissioner of veterans affairs to direct agency resources to veterans' initiatives; requiring reports; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 196.22, by adding a subdivision.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, line 8, before "agency" insert "nonmonetary"

Page 1, line 10, before "suicide" insert "and" and delete ", and other critical issues"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3489, A bill for an act relating to education; establishing a field trip policy; requiring reporting to licensing boards; establishing the criminal offense of grooming; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 122A.20, subdivisions 1, 2; 260E.15; 260E.28, subdivision 1; 609.352, subdivisions 1, 4, by adding subdivisions; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 260E.065, by adding a subdivision; 260E.20, subdivision 1; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 121A.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, line 10, before "A" insert "(a)" and after "student" insert "outside the presence of other persons"

Page 1, after line 11, insert:

"(b) This section does not apply:

(1) to a student for whom the school has an individualized family service plan, an individualized education program, or a 504 plan in effect that documents the need for the child to be alone with a school employee, independent contractor, or volunteer;

(2) in an emergency, to address the health or safety of the student or other persons; or

(3) when the student's parent has consented to the student being alone with a school employee, independent contractor, or volunteer."

Page 4, delete section 4 and insert:

"Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 260E.065, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 4. Commissioner of children, youth, and families; education-related mandated reporter training module on grooming. (a) By August 1, 2027, the commissioner of children, youth, and families must develop a training module as part of the commissioner's mandated reporter training that is specifically applicable to professionals or professionals' delegates engaged in education, including but not limited to:

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(1) the requirement to report allegations of maltreatment involving students ages 18 through 21, including students receiving special education services, up to and including graduation and the issuance of a secondary or high school diploma; and

(2) addressing grooming and threatened sexual abuse, including the duty to report grooming as maltreatment under section 260E.06, and how to identify the signs of grooming.

(b) The commissioner must consult with the Minnesota Department of Education while developing the training module."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

The report was adopted.

Liebling and Scott from the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3560, A bill for an act relating to estates; enacting the Uniform Electronic Estate Planning Documents Act; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 533.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Backer and Bierman from the Committee on Health Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3563, A bill for an act relating to fraud prevention; requiring licensing boards to take action against a license or application when a licensee or applicant is convicted of certain theft or fraud offenses; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 214.10, subdivision 2a.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be re-referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

The report was adopted.

Liebling and Scott from the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3621, A bill for an act relating to state government; withholding payments to program participants under certain circumstances; amending Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 15.013.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 5, line 6, delete "Notwithstanding subdivision 3,"

Page 6, line 10, delete everything after the period

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Page 6, delete lines 11 and 12

Page 6, line 15, delete "and withholding of payments"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Bennett and Jordan from the Committee on Education Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3698, A bill for an act relating to public libraries; prohibiting certain terms in libraries' electronic book and digital audiobook license agreements or contracts; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 134.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Elections Finance and Government Operations.

The report was adopted.

Fischer and Heintzeman from the Committee on Environment and Natural Resources Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3699, A bill for an act relating to natural resources; adding requirements for state park license plate contest; amending Laws 2024, chapter 116, article 3, section 53.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"Section 1. Laws 2024, chapter 116, article 3, section 53, is amended to read:

Sec. 53. STATE PARK LICENSE PLATE DESIGN CONTEST.

The commissioner of natural resources must hold a license plate design contest to design a new state park license plate available under Minnesota Statutes, section 168.1295, subdivision 1. The license plate design must:

(1) celebrate the North Shore and the Lake Superior Agate;

(2) not be created in whole or in part using artificial intelligence;

(3) be created by a resident of Minnesota; and

(4) be selected no later than December 18, 2026.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective the day following final enactment."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4930

Kotyza-Witthuhn and West from the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3714, A bill for an act relating to children, youth, and families; modifying enrollment and eligibility priority for children in foster care for community education programs, school readiness programs, early learning scholarships, and basic sliding fee child care assistance; modifying the Northstar foster care child care allowance; requiring licensing agencies to provide prospective child foster care license holders with information about child care costs and early childhood education programs; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 124D.19, subdivision 14, by adding a subdivision; 142A.607, subdivision 4; 142B.06, subdivision 5; 142B.40, subdivision 3; 142D.05, subdivision 8; 142D.25, subdivision 3; 142E.04, subdivision 4.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, line 19, after the period, insert "In order to give a child priority under this paragraph, the district may require a letter or other documentation from a responsible social services agency or child-placing agency verifying that the child is in foster care. The district must process a verification letter or other documentation within 48 hours of receiving the letter or documentation."

Page 5, line 4, before "A" insert "(a)"

Page 5, after line 17, insert:

"(b) The commissioner may require a letter or other documentation from a responsible social services agency or child-placing agency for a child eligible under paragraph (a), clause (3), item (vi), verifying that the child is in foster care, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 18. The commissioner must process a verification letter or other documentation within 48 hours of receiving the letter or documentation."

Page 5, line 23, before the semicolon, insert "or are in foster care"

Page 5, lines 24 and 25, delete the new language

Renumber the clauses in sequence

Page 6, after line 15, insert:

"(e) The commissioner may require a letter or other documentation from a responsible social services agency or child-placing agency for a child receiving priority as a child in foster care verifying that the child is in foster care, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 18. The commissioner must process a verification letter or other documentation within 48 hours of receiving the letter or documentation."

Page 7, line 2, before the period, insert ", or eligible relative custodians to whom permanent legal and physical custody of a child has been transferred pursuant to section 260C.515, subdivision 4"

Page 7, after line 10, insert:

"(i) For families under paragraph (e), the commissioner may require a letter or other documentation from a responsible social services agency or child-placing agency verifying that the child is in foster care, as defined in section 260C.007, subdivision 18. The commissioner must process a verification letter or other documentation within 48 hours of receiving the letter or documentation."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Education Policy.

The report was adopted.

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4931

Anderson, P. H., and Hansen, R., from the Committee on Agriculture Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3718, A bill for an act relating to animals; modifying provisions relating to the practice of veterinary medicine and veterinary technology; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 156.001, subdivisions 2, 3, 5, 7a, 8, 10b, by adding subdivisions; 156.01, subdivisions 1, 3, by adding a subdivision; 156.02, subdivisions 1, 2; 156.03; 156.04; 156.05; 156.06; 156.07; 156.071; 156.072, subdivision 2; 156.075; 156.076; 156.077, subdivision 3, by adding subdivisions; 156.078; 156.081; 156.12, subdivisions 1, 2; 156.121; 156.16, subdivisions 5, 12, 14; 156.18, subdivisions 1, 2, 4; 156.19; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 156.015, subdivision 4; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 156; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 156.001, subdivision 9; 156.01, subdivision 2; 156.02, subdivision 3; 156.072, subdivision 3; 156.073; 156.16, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 11; 156.20.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 2, lines 2 and 3, delete the new language and insert "means any organism, except humans, that has sensation and the power of voluntary movement and that requires oxygen and organic nutrients"

Page 11, after line 30, insert:

"Sec. 41. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 156.072, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Application. A doctor of veterinary medicine duly admitted to practice in any state, commonwealth, territory, or district of the United States or province of Canada desiring permission to practice veterinary medicine in this state shall submit an application to the board upon forms prescribed by the board. Upon proof of licensure to practice in any United States or Canadian jurisdiction and having been actively engaged in practicing veterinary medicine therein, for at least three of the five years next preceding the application, or having been engaged in full time teaching of veterinary medicine in an approved or accredited college for at least three of the five years next preceding the application, or any combination thereof, the national examination in veterinary medicine may be waived, upon the recommendation of the board, and the applicant be admitted to practice without examination. However, the board may impose any other examinations it considers proper."

Page 12, line 28, strike "as set by the board"

Page 12, line 29, delete "according to"

Page 12, line 30, delete "section 156.015, subdivision 3" and delete "and"

Page 13, line 3, delete the period and insert a semicolon

Page 13, lines 4 to 6, reinstate the stricken language

Page 13, line 6, strike the period and insert a semicolon

Page 13, after line 6, insert:

"(9) proof that the applicant received a passing score for the Minnesota Veterinarian Jurisprudence Examination; and

(10) a completed criminal background check."

Page 13, delete section 42

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4932

Page 18, line 13, delete "(3)"

Page 18, strike lines 13 and 14

Page 18, line 20, strike "(4)" and insert "(3)"

Page 18, line 24, strike "(5)" and insert "(4)"

Page 18, line 27, strike "(6)" and insert "(5)"

Page 18, line 29, strike "(7) a fee as set by the board in form of check or money order payable" and insert "(6) a nonrefundable application fee"

Page 19, line 1, strike "(8)" and insert "(7)"

Page 19, line 2, strike everything after "Agency"

Page 19, line 3, strike everything before the semicolon and insert ", unless the board has waived this requirement because the applicant's current AAVSB licensing jurisdiction officially reported VTNE scores to the board"

Page 19, line 4, strike "(9)" and insert "(8)"

Page 19, line 6, strike "(10)" and insert "(9)"

Page 19, lines 24 to 26, delete the new language and strike the old language

Page 19, after line 26, insert:

"(3) having an impairment that prevents a licensee from practicing veterinary medicine or veterinary technology with reasonable skill, competence, and safety to the public;"

Page 20, line 14, strike everything after "practice" and insert "irrespective of whether there has been demonstrable injury or any sustained injury;"

Page 21, line 25, delete "for which the"

Page 21, delete line 26 and insert "that is outdated, damaged, misbranded, or adulterated;"

Page 23, line 2, delete the second "medicine" and insert "rehabilitation"

Page 26, lines 3 and 4, reinstate the stricken language

Page 28, line 27, after "time" insert ", if applicable"

Page 30, delete lines 29 and 30 and insert:

"(b) "Veterinary feed directive" means a written statement issued by a licensed veterinarian in the course of the veterinarian's professional practice that orders the use of a VFD drug or combination VFD drug in or on an animal feed. A VFD authorizes a client to obtain and use animal feed bearing or containing a VFD drug or combination VFD drug to treat the client's animals only in accordance with the conditions for use approved, conditionally approved, or indexed by the Food and Drug Administration."

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4933

Page 31, delete lines 1 to 5

Page 31, line 14, delete "Medical Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994" and insert "Drug Availability Act of 1996"

Renumber the sections in sequence

Correct the title numbers accordingly

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3825, A bill for an act relating to public safety; requiring judge to inquire whether victim has been notified of plea and sentencing hearings; protecting victim from identification in prosecutor's petition for sentence adjustment; expanding victim notification of defendant eligibility for automatic expungement; protecting identity of minor victim in a crime involving sexual performance; expanding protection from employer retaliation to victims of stalking; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 609.133, subdivision 4; 609.3471; 611A.03, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 611A.036, subdivision 7; 611A.038; 611A.039, subdivision 1.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3826, A bill for an act relating to public safety; modifying definition of identity for purposes of identity theft crime; expanding authority of financial crimes and fraud section of Bureau of Criminal Apprehension; making changes to administrative subpoenas; altering statutes of limitation for certain fraud-related offenses; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.527, subdivision 1; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 299C.061, subdivision 3; 628.26.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:

"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 8.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Authority. (a) The attorney general, or any deputy, assistant, or special assistant attorney general whom the attorney general authorizes in writing, has the authority in any county of the state to subpoena and require the production of:

(1) any records of:

(i) telephone companies, cellular phone companies, paging companies, subscribers of private computer networks including Internet service providers or computer bulletin board systems,;

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4934

(ii) electric companies, gas companies, and water utilities,;

(iii) chemical suppliers,;

(iv) hotels and motels,;

(v) pawn shops,;

(vi) airlines, buses, taxis, and other entities engaged in the business of transporting people,; and

(vii) freight companies, self-service storage facilities, warehousing companies, package delivery companies, and other entities engaged in the businesses of transport, storage, or delivery,;

(2) books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, agreements, and other documents or records related to a law enforcement investigation of financial crimes and fraud, including but not limited to fraud involving state-funded or administered programs or services as defined in section 299C.061, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and insurance fraud in violation of section 609.611; and

(3) records of the existence of safe deposit box account numbers and customer savings and checking account numbers maintained by financial institutions and safe deposit companies.

(b) Subpoenas may only be issued for records that are relevant to an ongoing legitimate law enforcement investigation.

Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 388.23, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Authority. (a) The county attorney, or any deputy or assistant county attorney whom the county attorney authorizes in writing, has the authority to subpoena and require the production of:

(1) any records of:

(i) telephone companies, cellular phone companies, paging companies, and subscribers of private computer networks including Internet service providers or computer bulletin board systems;

(ii) electric companies, gas companies, and water utilities;

(iii) chemical suppliers;

(iv) hotels and motels;

(v) pawn shops;

(vi) airlines, buses, taxis, and other entities engaged in the business of transporting people; and

(vii) freight companies, warehousing companies, self-service storage facilities, package delivery companies, and other entities engaged in the businesses of transport, storage, or delivery;

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4935
(2) (3) records of the existence of safe deposit box account numbers and customer savings and checking account numbers maintained by financial institutions and safe deposit companies;

~~(3)~~ (4) insurance records relating to the monetary payment or settlement of claims;

~~(4)~~ (5) the banking, credit card, and financial records of a subject of an identity theft investigation or a vulnerable adult, whether held in the name of the vulnerable adult or a third party, including but not limited to safe deposit, loan and account applications and agreements, signature cards, statements, checks, transfers, account authorizations, safe deposit access records and documentation of fraud;

~~(5)~~ (6) wage and employment records of an applicant or recipient of public assistance who is the subject of a welfare fraud investigation relating to eligibility information for public assistance programs; and

~~(6)~~ (7) any of the following records of an employer or business entity who is the subject of or has information related to a wage theft investigation:

(i) accounting and financial records such as books, registers, payrolls, banking records, credit card records, securities records, and records of money transfers;

(ii) records required to be kept pursuant to section 177.30, paragraph (a); and

(iii) other records that in any way relate to wages or other income paid, hours worked, and other conditions of employment of any employee or of work performed by persons identified as independent contractors, and records of any payments to contractors, and records of workers' compensation insurance.

(b) Subpoenas may only be issued for records that are relevant to an ongoing legitimate law enforcement investigation. Administrative subpoenas may only be issued in wage theft, welfare fraud, and identity theft cases if there is probable cause to believe a crime has been committed.

(c) This subdivision applies only to the records of business entities and does not extend to private individuals or their dwellings.

(d) As used in this subdivision, "business entity" has the meaning given in section 308B.005.

Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.527, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.

(b) "Direct victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), whose identity has been transferred, used, or possessed in violation of this section.

(c) "False pretense" means any false, fictitious, misleading, or fraudulent information or pretense or pretext depicting or including or deceptively similar to the name, logo, website address, email address, postal address, telephone number, or any other identifying information of a for-profit or not-for-profit business or organization or of a government agency, to which the user has no legitimate claim of right.

(d) "Financial institution" has the meaning given in section 13A.01, subdivision 2.

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4936

(e) "Forged digital likeness" means any video recording, motion-picture film, sound recording, electronic image, or photograph, or any technological representation of speech or conduct substantially derivative thereof that:

(1) was created, adapted, altered, or modified in a manner that was substantially dependent upon technical means;

(2) misrepresents the appearance, speech, or conduct of the individual; and

(3) is so realistic that a reasonable person would believe it depicts the image or speech of an actual individual.

~~(e)~~ (f) "Identity" means any name, voice or likeness, number, or data transmission that may be used, alone or in conjunction with any other information, to identify a specific individual or entity, including any of the following:

(1) a name, Social Security number, date of birth, official government-issued driver's license or identification number, government passport number, or employer or taxpayer identification number;

(2) a forged digital likeness;

~~(2)~~ (3) a unique electronic identification number, address, account number, or routing code; or

~~(3)~~ (4) a telecommunication identification information or access device.

~~(f)~~ (g) "Indirect victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), other than a direct victim.

~~(g)~~ (h) "Loss" means value obtained, as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (3), and expenses incurred by a direct or indirect victim as a result of a violation of this section.

~~(h)~~ (i) "Unlawful activity" means:

(1) any felony violation of the laws of this state or any felony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States; and

(2) any nonfelony violation of the laws of this state involving theft, theft by swindle, forgery, fraud, or giving false information to a public official, or any nonfelony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States.

~~(i)~~ (j) "Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on a computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card.

~~(j)~~ (k) "Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, onto the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, or any electronic medium that allows an authorized transaction to occur.

~~(k)~~ (l) "Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that:

(1) is issued to an authorized card user; and

(2) allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive credit, money, a good, a service, or anything of value.

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4937

Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 628.26, is amended to read:

628.26 LIMITATIONS.

(a) Indictments or complaints for any crime resulting in the death of the victim may be found or made at any time after the death of the person killed.

(b) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.25 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense.

(c) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense if the victim was under the age of 18 at the time of the offense.

(d) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 where the victim was 18 years of age or older at the time of the offense, or 609.42, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission of the offense.

(e) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.322, 609.342 to 609.345, and 609.3458 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense.

(f) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.561 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within ten years after the commission of the offense.

(g) Indictments or complaints for violation of chapter 80A, or a rule adopted or order issued under that chapter, made as provided in section 80A.75 or for violation of section 508.80; 609.465; 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (4); 609.53; or 609.645 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within seven years after the commission of the offense.

~~(g)~~ (h) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.466 and 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), item (iii), shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission of the offense.

~~(h)~~ (i) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.2335, 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), items (i) and (ii), (4), (15), or (16), 609.631, or 609.821, where the value of the property or services stolen is more than $35,000, or for violation of section 609.527 where the offense involves eight or more direct victims or the total combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $35,000, shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.

~~(i)~~ (j) Except for violations relating to false material statements, representations or omissions, indictments or complaints for violations of section 609.671 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.

~~(j)~~ (k) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.562 and 609.563, shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.

~~(k)~~ (l) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.746 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within the later of three years after the commission of the offense or three years after the offense was reported to law enforcement authorities.

~~(l)~~ (m) In all other cases, indictments or complaints shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within three years after the commission of the offense.

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4938
(m) (n) The limitations periods contained in this section shall exclude any period of time during which the defendant was not an inhabitant of or usually resident within this state.

~~(n)~~ (o) The limitations periods contained in this section for an offense shall not include any period during which the alleged offender participated under a written agreement in a pretrial diversion program relating to that offense.

~~(o)~~ (p) The limitations periods contained in this section shall not include any period of time during which physical evidence relating to the offense was undergoing DNA analysis, as defined in section 299C.155, unless the defendant demonstrates that the prosecuting or law enforcement agency purposefully delayed the DNA analysis process in order to gain an unfair advantage.

EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date and to crimes committed before that date if the limitations period for the crime did not expire before August 1, 2026."

Delete the title and insert:

"A bill for an act relating to public safety; modifying and adding definitions for purposes of identity theft crime; providing the attorney general and county attorneys with additional subpoena authority; altering statutes of limitation for certain fraud-related offenses; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 8.16, subdivision 1; 609.527, subdivision 1; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 388.23, subdivision 1; 628.26."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3827, A bill for an act relating to public safety; clarifying certain grants from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension to local law enforcement as reimbursements; updating law related to recording of crimes; establishing process for determining how certain criminal records are ineligible for sealing; requiring court to provide orders for protection for access by law enforcement; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 299C.05; 299C.065; 299C.46, subdivision 6; 609A.015, subdivision 5; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 609.2334, subdivision 11; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.12.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3946, A bill for an act relating to public safety; modifying the definition of domestic abuse for purposes of obtaining an order for protection; requiring law enforcement agencies to report certain information in domestic abuse cases; authorizing certain arrests for suspected nonfelony domestic abuse; requiring a person arrested for suspected domestic abuse to be held in custody until the person's first court appearance; establishing the Task Force on Improving Responses to Domestic Violence Crimes; requiring annual reports; appropriating money;

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amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 611A.0311, subdivision 1; 629.341, subdivision 1; 629.72, subdivisions 1a, 6; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 299C.80, subdivision 6; 518B.01, subdivision 2; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 626; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.72, subdivision 3.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 2, delete section 2

Page 5, after line 21, insert:

"(5) the perceived gender of the alleged victim and suspect;

(6) the perceived race of the alleged victim and suspect;"

Page 5, line 22, delete "(5)" and insert "(7)"

Page 5, line 23, delete "(6)" and insert "(8)"

Page 5, after line 24, insert:

"(9) whether the alleged victim was arrested at the time of the incident and, if so, any alleged crime that formed the basis for the arrest;"

Page 5, line 25, delete "(7)" and insert "(10)"

Page 5, line 27, delete "(8)" and insert "(11)"

Page 5, line 28, delete "(9)" and insert "(12)"

Page 5, line 29, delete "or on" and insert a comma and after "allegation" insert ", or both"

Page 5, line 30, delete "(10)" and insert "(13)"

Page 6, after line 11, insert:

"Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.341, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

Subd. 4. Report required. (a) Whenever a peace officer investigates an allegation that ~~an incident described in subdivision 1 has occurred, whether or not an arrest is made,~~ a person has committed a qualified domestic violence‑related offense and the victim is a family or household member, the officer shall make a written police report of the alleged incident regardless of whether an arrest is made. The report must contain at least the following information: the name, address and telephone number of the victim, if provided by the victim, a statement as to whether an arrest occurred, the name of the arrested person, and a brief summary of the incident. Data that identify a victim who has made a request under section 13.82, subdivision 17, paragraph (d), and that are private data under that subdivision, shall be private in the report required by this section. A copy of this report must be provided upon request, at no cost, to the victim of domestic abuse, the victim's attorney, or organizations designated by the Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety that are providing services to victims of domestic abuse. The officer shall submit the report to the officer's supervisor or other person to whom the employer's rules or policies require reports of similar allegations of criminal activity to be made.

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(b) As used in this subdivision:

(1) "qualified domestic violence-related offense" has the meaning given in section 609.02, subdivision 16; and

(2) "family or household member" has the meaning given in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (b)."

Page 7, line 30, after "invite" insert "individuals with lived domestic violence experience and"

Page 7, line 31, after the first comma, insert "Violence Free Minnesota, Mending the Sacred Hoop, other" and after "coalitions" insert ", organizations that advocate for or provide direct services to victims of domestic violence, organizations that provide domestic abuse transformation programming"

Page 7, line 32, after "Defense" insert ", the Department of Health" and after "Safety" insert ", the Office of Justice Programs"

Page 10, line 2, delete the second "and"

Page 10, line 5, delete the period and insert "; and"

Page 10, after line 5, insert:

"(16) evaluate public health policies to encourage the prevention of domestic violence."

Renumber the sections in sequence

Amend the title as follows:

Page 1, line 2, delete everything after the semicolon

Page 1, line 3, delete everything before "requiring"

Correct the title numbers accordingly

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

The report was adopted.

Koegel and O'Driscoll from the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3972, A bill for an act relating to insurance; providing for and regulating short-term rental guarantees and reimbursement insurance policies; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 59E.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

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Page 3, after line 2, insert:

"(d) All providers handling rental home marketplace guarantee losses must be trained in property damage and loss assessment and interpretation of the rental home marketplace guarantee terms before handling losses. Providers must maintain records demonstrating completion of the training under this paragraph."

Page 3, line 28, delete "180" and insert "90"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 3990, A bill for an act relating to state government; changing provisions for employment or occupation due to conviction of a crime; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 364.03, subdivision 3; 364.05.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, line 9, strike "shall" and insert "may"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

The report was adopted.

Moller and Novotny from the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 4075, A bill for an act relating to public safety; establishing a uniform procedure for imposition, implementation, and oversight of firearm restrictions resulting from certain criminal convictions and judicial orders; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 260C.201, subdivision 3; 518B.01, subdivisions 6, 14; 609.2242, subdivision 3; 609.749, subdivision 8; 629.715, subdivision 2; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 260C.141, subdivision 1; 518B.01, subdivision 4; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 518B.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 4, line 20, delete everything after "court"

Page 4, line 21, delete everything before the period

Page 6, line 24, after the period, insert "A court may not dismiss a petition if the petitioner does not provide a description of firearms or the locations of firearms owned by the respondent."

Page 10, line 16, delete everything after "court"

Page 10, line 17, delete everything before the period

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Page 15, after line 20, insert:

"(b) "Local law enforcement agency" means the organized full-time police department of the municipality in which the subject resides or the county sheriff if there is no such police department."

Reletter the paragraphs in sequence

Page 15, line 32, delete the second "a" and insert "the local"

Page 15, line 33, delete "a" and insert "the local"

Page 16, delete lines 5 to 13 and insert:

"(c) A federally licensed firearms dealer or law enforcement agency may charge the subject a reasonable fee to store temporarily transferred firearms. A person who does not pay the storage fee for a temporary firearm transfer within 30 days of the firearm being transferred is considered to have abandoned their firearm. Law enforcement agencies must establish policies for disposal of permanently transferred and abandoned firearms. These policies must require that the subject be notified via certified mail prior to disposal of abandoned firearms. A dealer must notify the subject via certified mail prior to disposing of an abandoned firearm. A law enforcement agency may destroy all permanently transferred and abandoned firearms. For temporary firearm transfers under this subdivision, a law enforcement agency or federally licensed firearms dealer must exercise due care to preserve the quality and function of the transferred firearms. If a subject permanently transfers the person's firearms to a law enforcement agency, the agency is not required to compensate the subject and may charge the subject a reasonable processing fee."

Page 16, after line 21, insert:

"(f) A law enforcement agency shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for any damage or deterioration of firearms, ammunition, or weapons stored or transported pursuant to this section. This paragraph shall not apply if the damage or deterioration occurred as a result of recklessness, gross negligence, or intentional misconduct by the law enforcement agency."

Page 16, line 30, delete "local law enforcement agency" and insert "court"

Page 17, line 14, delete "seal" and insert "make" and before the period, insert "confidential"

Page 18, line 33, after the period, insert "Nothing in this section limits the ability of the local law enforcement agency from cooperating with other law enforcement entities. When a subject resides on Tribal territory, the chief law enforcement officer of the local law enforcement agency must request the assistance and counsel of the appropriate Tribal police department prior to executing the search warrant."

Page 19, after line 15, insert:

"(d) A peace officer, law enforcement agency, and the state or a political subdivision that employs the peace officer is immune from any liability, civil or criminal, for harm caused by a subject after execution of a warrant under this subdivision, if the peace officer acts in good faith in executing the warrant."

Page 24, line 13, delete everything after "court"

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Page 24, line 14, delete everything before the period

Page 25, line 29, delete everything after "court"

Page 25, line 30, delete everything before the period

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

The report was adopted.

Freiberg and Quam from the Committee on Elections Finance and Government Operations to which was referred:

H. F. No. 4077, A bill for an act relating to local government; prohibiting municipalities from entering into nondisclosure agreements; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 471.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, line 8, delete the second "or" and before "and" insert ", school district, housing and redevelopment authority, economic development authority, port authority, or any other political subdivision of the state with authority to enter into a contract for the use of real property"

Page 1, line 11, after "contract" insert "with a private person"

Page 1, line 12, after "public" insert "about the development of land, an economic development project or program, or a project or program financed in whole or in part with the municipality's tax revenues, financial obligations, or taxing powers, including proposed tax increment financing districts, economic development abatements, and municipal bonds or other debt obligations"

Amend the title as follows:

Page 1, line 3, after "agreements" insert "or contracts that restrict the municipality from disclosing information about certain projects using public funding"

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

Koznick and Tabke from the Committee on Transportation Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 4111, A bill for an act relating to transit; providing for certain transit service consolidation in the Twin Cities metropolitan area; establishing implementation requirements; establishing a task force; requiring a study; requiring reports; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 473.385, subdivision 2; 473.388, by adding a subdivision; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 473.

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Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 2, after line 3, insert:

"Sec. 2. [473.3762] COMPREHENSIVE TRANSIT SERVICE PERFORMANCE REPORT.

Subdivision 1. Report required. The council must submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over transportation policy and finance on the implementation and performance of unified comprehensive transit under section 473.376.

Subd. 2. Contents. At a minimum, the report under this section must include:

(1) a description of transit services consolidated or coordinated under section 473.376, including routes, service hours, and contracted service providers;

(2) service performance metrics, including (i) service hours, (ii) on-time performance, and (iii) passengers per in-service hour;

(3) changes in service levels, coverage, or frequency resulting from consolidation;

(4) administrative and contracting costs associated with unified operations;

(5) operating costs and per-passenger subsidies before and after consolidation, by service type and by route;

(6) staffing and employment impacts;

(7) assessment and status of facilities, vehicles, equipment, and real property impacted by consolidation; and

(8) recommendations for legislative changes necessary to improve the responsiveness, efficiency, accountability, or performance of unified comprehensive transit.

Subd. 3. Information. Within 60 days of a request, a former recipient of financial assistance under section 473.388, must provide data and information as requested by the council that is necessary for the analysis required under this section.

Subd. 4. Report submission. The council must submit the first report under this section by October 15 following the first full calendar year of operation of unified comprehensive transit. The council must submit each subsequent report in conjunction with the comprehensive transit finance report under section 473.4485, subdivision 2.

EFFECTIVE DATE; APPLICATION. This section is effective the day following final enactment and applies in the counties of Anoka, Carver, Dakota, Hennepin, Ramsey, Scott, and Washington."

Page 2, after line 28, insert:

"Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 473.4485, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

Subd. 3. Legislative report; unified comprehensive transit. (a) In the report required under subdivision 2, the council must include a section that describes the fiscal impacts of implementation and performance of unified comprehensive transit under section 473.376. At a minimum, the section must include:

(1) a summary of services consolidated or coordinated under section 473.376;

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(2) information on operating cost, subsidy per passenger, and passengers per service hour for services subject to consolidation, including comparisons before and after implementation as applicable; and

(3) administrative and contracting costs associated with unified comprehensive transit.

(b) The requirements under this subdivision apply beginning with the report submitted following the first full calendar year of operation of unified comprehensive transit under section 473.376.

EFFECTIVE DATE; APPLICATION. This section is effective the day following final enactment and applies in the counties of Anoka, Carver, Dakota, Hennepin, Ramsey, Scott, and Washington."

Renumber the sections in sequence

Correct the title numbers accordingly

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means.

The report was adopted.

Koegel and O'Driscoll from the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 4118, A bill for an act relating to financial institutions; authorizing credit unions to obtain insurance from a credit union share insurance provider; regulating credit union share guaranty corporations; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 52.063, subdivision 3; 52.24, subdivisions 1, 2, by adding a subdivision.

Reported the same back with the recommendation that the bill be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means.

The report was adopted.

Koegel and O'Driscoll from the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy to which was referred:

H. F. No. 4133, A bill for an act relating to insurance; prohibiting certain exclusions in homeowner's insurance policies when damage is done by a peace officer; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 65A.27, subdivision 1; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 65A.

Reported the same back with the following amendments:

Page 1, line 12, after "OFFICERS" insert "; MITIGATION"

Page 1, after line 14, insert:

"(b) "Industrial hygienist" means an individual who has:

(1) a certified industrial hygienist credential from the Board for Global EHS Credentialing; or

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(2) an equivalent certification from a nationally or internationally recognized accrediting body demonstrating competency in the anticipation, recognition, evaluation, and control of occupational and environmental health hazards."

Reletter the paragraphs in sequence

Page 1, line 22, delete "distraction" and insert "diversionary"

Page 2, after line 4, insert:

"Subd. 3. Mitigation. (a) Under a policy of homeowner's insurance, an insurer must allow a homeowner to choose a mitigation contractor and, if necessary, an industrial hygienist to resolve damage due to a peace officer's use of chemical irritants, smoke screens, or diversionary devices, when the homeowner is owed just compensation under section 626.74.

(b) The work performed by a mitigation contractor or industrial hygienist under this subdivision must follow recognized industry standards and, if applicable, chemical manufacturer guidelines in a safety data sheet."

With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.

The report was adopted.

SECOND READING OF HOUSE BILLS

H. F. Nos. 1531, 3350, 3467, 3560, 3621, 3699, 3718, 4077 and 4133 were read for the second time.

INTRODUCTION AND FIRST READING OF HOUSE BILLS

The following House Files were introduced:

Schultz; Harder; Anderson, P. H.; Nelson; Murphy; Gillman; Burkel and Gander introduced:

H. F. No. 4290, A bill for an act relating to local government; allowing counties to designate certain agricultural lands as unsuitable for electric power facilities; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 394.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Agriculture Finance and Policy.

Witte and Tabke introduced:

H. F. No. 4291, A bill for an act relating to pari-mutuel horse racing; appropriating money for support of Minnesota-bred Thoroughbred industry.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

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McDonald, Swedzinski, Robbins, Gillman, Duran, Stier, Skraba, Heintzeman and Mekeland introduced:

H. F. No. 4292, A bill for an act relating to trade regulations; modifying fees charged by the commissioner of commerce for license applications and renewals; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 325E.21, subdivision 2c.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Scott introduced:

H. F. No. 4293, A bill for an act relating to family law; amending provisions related to parenting time determinations; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 518.17, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

Scott introduced:

H. F. No. 4294, A bill for an act relating to civil law; clarifying volunteer participation in guardian ad litem program; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 480.35, subdivision 2.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

McDonald, Gillman and Hudson introduced:

H. F. No. 4295, A bill for an act relating to local government; authorizing a county to approve up to 24 chickens on any lot by ordinance; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 394.25, subdivision 3c.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Elections Finance and Government Operations.

Lawrence introduced:

H. F. No. 4296, A bill for an act relating to state government; setting compensation for lottery retailers in law; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 349A.05; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 349A; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 349A.16.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

Nelson and Dotseth introduced:

H. F. No. 4297, A bill for an act relating to local government; expanding the authority of hospital districts to support additional health care services and providers; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 447.31, subdivision 3; 447.33, subdivision 2; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 447.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

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Davids introduced:

H. F. No. 4298, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for a new multimodal shared-use trail from the city of La Crescent to the cities of Hokah and Houston to complete the Root River State Trail; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Stier, Hill, O'Driscoll, Bakeberg, Duran, Scott, Murphy, Baker, McDonald, Gillman, Nash, Pursell and Gander introduced:

H. F. No. 4299, A bill for an act relating to public safety; appropriating money for additional school safety specialists.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Schultz introduced:

H. F. No. 4300, A bill for an act relating to taxation; property; lowering acreage requirements for special agricultural homesteads; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 273.124, subdivision 14.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Gander introduced:

H. F. No. 4301, A bill for an act relating to health; appropriating money to counties, municipalities, and townships for planning and assistance to support drinking water regionalization; requiring a report.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.

Bennett introduced:

H. F. No. 4302, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for a new water tower in the city of Easton; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

West and Koegel introduced:

H. F. No. 4303, A bill for an act relating to health; modifying fees recoverable by a coroner or medical examiner; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 390.15.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.

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Heintzeman introduced:

H. F. No. 4304, A bill for an act relating to liquor; authorizing the city of Brainerd to issue an on-sale intoxicating liquor license to an event center.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Heintzeman introduced:

H. F. No. 4305, A joint resolution applying to Congress to call a convention to propose an amendment to the Constitution of the United States.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

Heintzeman introduced:

H. F. No. 4306, A bill for an act relating to education finance; authorizing a fund transfer for Independent School District No. 181, Brainerd Public Schools.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Education Finance.

O'Driscoll introduced:

H. F. No. 4307, A bill for an act relating to economic development; designating the city of Sartell as a Destination Medical Center Community; establishing a medical enterprise zone; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 469.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Swedzinski; Niska; Scott; Nash; Skraba; Anderson, P. H.; Zeleznikar; Perryman; Harder and Schultz introduced:

H. F. No. 4308, A bill for an act relating to energy; terminating annual payments by the Monticello nuclear generating plant; modifying the distributed solar energy standard; extending the sales tax exemption on residential natural gas and electricity year round; exempting electric and natural gas facilities from payment of the state commercial-industrial property tax; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 116C.779, subdivision 1; 275.025, subdivisions 1, 2; 297A.67, subdivision 15; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 216B.1691, subdivision 2h.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Energy Finance and Policy.

Robbins introduced:

H. F. No. 4309, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for railroad crossing safety improvements in Hennepin County and the cities of Medina, Independence, and Loretto; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

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Gordon, Kotyza-Witthuhn and Allen introduced:

H. F. No. 4310, A bill for an act relating to consumer protection; requiring disclosures for certain electronic entertainment; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 325G.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Zeleznikar introduced:

H. F. No. 4311, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for the Duluth North Shore Sanitary District; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Lawrence and Greene introduced:

H. F. No. 4312, A bill for an act relating to education finance; expanding the uses of operating capital revenue to include utility costs; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 126C.10, subdivision 14.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Education Finance.

Robbins, Bennett, Altendorf, Van Binsbergen, Dippel and Gordon introduced:

H. F. No. 4313, A bill for an act relating to employment; requiring state legislators and legislative employees to pay 50 percent of the Minnesota Paid Leave Law premium; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 268B.14, subdivision 3.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Hudson introduced:

H. F. No. 4314, A bill for an act relating to public safety; increasing criminal penalties and expanding the scope of the doxxing crime; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.5151.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Hudson introduced:

H. F. No. 4315, A bill for an act relating to transportation; establishing a grandparent special license plate; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 168.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Transportation Finance and Policy.

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Olson and West introduced:

H. F. No. 4316, A bill for an act relating to children and families; modifying child care background study notification requirements; making child care leadership responsible for maltreatment at centers; modifying maltreatment notification requirements; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 245C.17, subdivision 3; 260E.30, subdivisions 2, 5; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 260E.30, subdivision 4.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

Nash, Novotny, Witte, Stier and Duran introduced:

H. F. No. 4317, A bill for an act relating to public safety; providing access to surplus badges for certain peace officers; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 626.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Altendorf and Jacob introduced:

H. F. No. 4318, A bill for an act relating to transportation; providing vehicle registration tax refunds for certain returned vehicles; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 168.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Transportation Finance and Policy.

Altendorf and Jacob introduced:

H. F. No. 4319, A bill for an act relating to local government; modifying the port authority powers of the city of Lake City; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 469.0773.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Elections Finance and Government Operations.

Knudsen, Rymer, Joy, Van Binsbergen, Davis, Jacob, Roach, Altendorf, Hudson, Fogelman, Harder, Gordon and Anderson, P. E., introduced:

H. F. No. 4320, A bill for an act relating to money transmission; prohibiting individuals participating in certain public assistance programs from using money transmission to send money to a foreign country; requiring money transmitters to report certain information on individuals; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142A.03, by adding a subdivision; 256.01, by adding a subdivision; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 53B.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

Zeleznikar; Davids; Johnson, W.; Nadeau and Myers introduced:

H. F. No. 4321, A bill for an act relating to taxation; individual income; conforming to the federal exclusion from gross income for dependent care assistance programs; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 290.01, subdivision 31.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

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Zeleznikar; Davids; Johnson, W.; Nadeau and Myers introduced:

H. F. No. 4322, A bill for an act relating to taxation; individual income; conforming to the federal expansion of the dependent care credit; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 290.01, subdivision 31.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Roach introduced:

H. F. No. 4323, A bill for an act relating to taxation; individual income; providing a subtraction for volunteer service performed by school resource officers; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 290.0132, by adding a subdivision.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Fogelman introduced:

H. F. No. 4324, A bill for an act relating to taxation; local sales and use; authorizing the city of Windom to impose a local sales and use tax.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Schomacker introduced:

H. F. No. 4325, A bill for an act relating to education finance; authorizing a fund transfer for Independent School District No. 403, Ivanhoe.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Education Finance.

Stier introduced:

H. F. No. 4326, A bill for an act relating to retirement; public employees police and fire retirement plan; authorizing payment of a retirement annuity without reduction or suspension upon reemployment; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 353.37, subdivisions 1, 5, by adding a subdivision; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 353.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

Harder introduced:

H. F. No. 4327, A bill for an act relating to human services; requiring the Departments of Human Services and Children, Youth, and Families to provide a report to the legislature on program integrity; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142A.03, by adding a subdivision; 256.01, by adding a subdivision.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

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Harder introduced:

H. F. No. 4328, A bill for an act relating to liquor; allowing the city of Watertown to issue a social district license.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Nelson, Burkel, Gander and Dotseth introduced:

H. F. No. 4329, A bill for an act relating to agriculture; modifying prior agriculture provisions; appropriating money; amending Laws 2025, chapter 34, article 1, section 2, subdivisions 1, 2.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Agriculture Finance and Policy.

Mekeland, Baker, Schultz, Bakeberg, Mueller and Zeleznikar introduced:

H. F. No. 4330, A bill for an act relating to labor and industry; modifying who can supervise electrical work; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326B.33, subdivisions 2, 7, 12.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Nelson and Dotseth introduced:

H. F. No. 4331, A bill for an act relating to taxation; sales and use; removing certain lawn care services from the tax base; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 297A.61, subdivision 3; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 297A.67, subdivision 25; 297A.68, subdivision 40.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Myers introduced:

H. F. No. 4332, A bill for an act relating to education finance; authorizing continued enrollment for certain online students with a temporary break in residency; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 120A.20, subdivision 1; 126C.05, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Education Finance.

Davids introduced:

H. F. No. 4333, A bill for an act relating to insurance; establishing a supplemental health insurance product to cover short-term home health and nursing care; providing civil penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 62A.135, subdivision 1; 62A.46, subdivision 2; 72A.13, subdivision 1; 256B.0913, subdivision 4; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62A.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

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Davids introduced:

H. F. No. 4334, A bill for an act relating to taxation; local sales and use; authorizing the city of Caledonia to impose a local sales and use tax.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Allen introduced:

H. F. No. 4335, A bill for an act relating to virtual currency kiosk operators; modifying disclosure and consumer protections for users of virtual currency kiosks; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 53B.69, subdivision 10, by adding subdivisions; 53B.74; 53B.75, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, by adding subdivisions; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 53B; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 53B.69, subdivisions 3b, 3c.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Roach, Rymer, Davis and Schultz introduced:

H. F. No. 4336, A bill for an act relating to children; repealing the child care assistance program; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13.461, subdivisions 7b, 28; 142C.01; 142C.02; 142C.03; 142C.04; 142C.05; 142C.06, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 142C.07; 142C.08; 142C.09; 142C.10; 142C.11, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10; 142C.12, subdivisions 2, 3, 4, 5, 7; 142C.13; 142C.14; 142C.15; 142C.16; 142C.17; 142C.18; 142E.01, subdivisions 2, 3, 6, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 21, 23, 24, 25, 27, 28; 142E.02, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9; 142E.021; 142E.03, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5, 6; 142E.04; 142E.05; 142E.06; 142E.07; 142E.08; 142E.09; 142E.10; 142E.11, subdivisions 3, 4; 142E.12; 142E.13, subdivision 1; 142E.14; 142E.15, subdivision 2; 142E.16, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9; 142E.17, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10; 142E.18; 142E.19, subdivision 4; 142E.50, subdivisions 1, 4, 7; 142E.51, subdivisions 1, 3, 4, 7; 142E.52; 142E.53; 142E.54; 142E.55; 142E.56, subdivisions 1, 2; 142E.57; 142G.21, subdivision 12; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 142C.06, subdivision 4; 142C.11, subdivision 8; 142C.12, subdivisions 1, 6; 142E.01, subdivisions 5a, 8a, 8b, 15a, 17a, 19a, 19b, 22a, 23a, 26; 142E.03, subdivision 3; 142E.11, subdivisions 1, 2; 142E.13, subdivision 2; 142E.15, subdivision 1; 142E.16, subdivisions 3, 7; 142E.17, subdivision 9; 142E.19, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 142E.20; 142E.51, subdivisions 2, 5, 6, 6a.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

Skraba introduced:

H. F. No. 4337, A bill for an act relating to natural resources; modifying the authority of the commissioner of natural resources to provide training to individuals to inspect watercraft for aquatic macrophytes, aquatic invasive species, and water; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 84D.105, subdivision 2.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Environment and Natural Resources Finance and Policy.

Schomacker and Noor introduced:

H. F. No. 4338, A bill for an act relating to health care facilities; modifying the parties who may be awarded fees and expenses in certain proceedings involving the state; modifying requirements for assisted living facilities to provide residents with a means to request assistance; exempting assisted living facilities from the provider tax; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 144G.41, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 295.50, subdivision 4; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 15.471, subdivision 6; 295.50, subdivision 9b.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

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Skraba introduced:

H. F. No. 4339, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for the Gitchi Gami State Trail; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Zeleznikar, Skraba, Warwas, Gillman, Robbins and Perryman introduced:

H. F. No. 4340, A bill for an act relating to employment; exempting individuals who are less than 15 years old from the Minnesota Paid Leave Law; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 268B.01, subdivisions 15, 17.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Harder introduced:

H. F. No. 4341, A bill for an act relating to taxation; imposing a tax on certain remittance transfers; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 295.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Frazier; Agbaje; Hollins; Clardy; Xiong; Sencer-Mura; Lee, F.; Vang; Carroll; Momanyi-Hiltsley; Luger‑Nikolai; Lee, K.; Kozlowski; Curran; Noor; Gomez; Jordan; Lee, X.; Hussein; Pérez-Vega; Finke; Greenman; Norris; Howard; Cha and Berg introduced:

H. F. No. 4342, A bill for an act relating to economic development; establishing a relief program for small businesses negatively impacted by federal enforcement activity; requiring a report; appropriating money.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Lee, K.; Hollins; Finke; Pérez-Vega; Sencer-Mura; Kozlowski; Gottfried and Agbaje introduced:

H. F. No. 4343, A bill for an act relating to taxation; sales and use; imposing tax on advertising services; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 297A.61, subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Agbaje and Davids introduced:

H. F. No. 4344, A bill for an act relating to taxation; sales and use; providing for businesses to collect tourism improvement district charges from purchasers; modifying certain definitions; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 297A.61, subdivision 7; 428B.02, subdivision 4.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

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Luger-Nikolai introduced:

H. F. No. 4345, A bill for an act relating to energy; prohibiting public utilities from recovering from existing natural gas customers infrastructure costs incurred to extend service to new natural gas customers; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 216B; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 216B.1638.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Energy Finance and Policy.

Hussein, Momanyi-Hiltsley and Mahamoud introduced:

H. F. No. 4346, A bill for an act relating to housing; appropriating money for the first-time homebuyer, fee‑based home purchase financing program.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Housing Finance and Policy.

Bierman, Scott, Curran, Huot, Koegel and Noor introduced:

H. F. No. 4347, A bill for an act relating to health insurance; prohibiting quantity limits on coverage for home care nursing services; defining home care nursing services; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62Q.545.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Kraft, Acomb, Hollins, Luger-Nikolai and Mahamoud introduced:

H. F. No. 4348, A bill for an act relating to local government; designating thermal energy networks as public improvements and waterworks; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 429.021, subdivision 1; 444.075, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Elections Finance and Government Operations.

Bierman, Reyer, Huot, Bahner and Mahamoud introduced:

H. F. No. 4349, A bill for an act relating to health care; modifying provisions governing hospital reimbursement for certain biological products to treat rare diseases; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256.969, subdivision 32.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.

Hansen, R.; Anderson, P. H., and Davids introduced:

H. F. No. 4350, A bill for an act relating to agriculture; modifying agriculture policy provisions; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 17.81, by adding a subdivision; 18.77, subdivision 12, by adding subdivisions; 18.771; 18.79, subdivision 2; 18.81, subdivision 3; 18.82; 18.83, subdivision 3; 18.86; 18.91, subdivision 2; 18C.005, subdivisions 6, 6a, 25, 33, by adding a subdivision; 28A.0752; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 18.79, subdivision 3; 28A.04, subdivision 1; 28A.08, subdivision 3; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 18C; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 18.77, subdivision 14; 28A.075.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Agriculture Finance and Policy.

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Pérez-Vega; Noor; Buck; Clardy; Sencer-Mura; Lee, X., and Kozlowski introduced:

H. F. No. 4351, A bill for an act relating to human services; establishing and appropriating money for specific or culturally responsive adult mental health grants and children's mental health grants; appropriating money for mobile crisis grants and school-linked mental health grants prioritizing geographic areas most impacted by the United States Department of Homeland Security Operation Metro Surge; amending Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 245.4661, subdivision 9; 245.4889, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

Virnig introduced:

H. F. No. 4352, A bill for an act relating to elections; requiring certification by presidential candidates and political party chairs that the candidate satisfies all eligibility requirements of the United States Constitution; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 208.03; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 204B.07, subdivision 2; 204B.09, subdivision 3.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Elections Finance and Government Operations.

Tabke and Witte introduced:

H. F. No. 4353, A bill for an act relating to pari-mutuel horse racing; modifying the definition of advance deposit wagering; providing for certain advance deposit wagering proceeds; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 240.01, subdivision 1b; 240.131, subdivision 6.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Frederick and Virnig introduced:

H. F. No. 4354, A bill for an act relating to state-operated human services; modifying Direct Care and Treatment data requirements; establishing classification alignment for Direct Care and Treatment employees; modifying Direct Care and Treatment procedures for patient consent to medical procedures; modifying voluntary patient transfer procedures; making technical corrections; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 3.7381; 13.04, subdivision 4a; 13.384, subdivision 1; 13.46, subdivision 1; 182.6545; 253B.03, subdivision 6; 253B.18, subdivision 14; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 13.46, subdivision 2; 253B.18, subdivision 6; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 246C.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

Frederick introduced:

H. F. No. 4355, A bill for an act relating to human services; modifying reimbursement rates for high-intensity residential substance use disorder services; amending Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 254B.0509, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

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Frederick introduced:

H. F. No. 4356, A bill for an act relating to state-operated human services; establishing classification alignment for Direct Care and Treatment employees; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 246C.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

Freiberg introduced:

H. F. No. 4357, A bill for an act relating to health insurance; prohibiting the use of step therapy protocols for the treatment of neurological conditions; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62Q.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Feist introduced:

H. F. No. 4358, A bill for an act relating to public safety; requiring the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension to develop sexual assault investigation training; requiring peace officers to complete training requirements; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 626.8442.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Berg; Moller; Curran; Johnson, P.; Greenman; Rehm; Feist and Hollins introduced:

H. F. No. 4359, A bill for an act relating to public safety; reenacting the 2024 amendment to the definition of trigger activator; reenacting the 2024 changes to the crime of transferring a firearm to an ineligible person with certain amendments; repealing the affirmative defense for certain transfers of a firearm to an ineligible person by family or household members; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 624.7141, subdivision 4.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Agbaje introduced:

H. F. No. 4360, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for a grant to the West Broadway Business and Area Coalition in the city of Minneapolis.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Agbaje and Gomez introduced:

H. F. No. 4361, A bill for an act relating to taxation; modifying local sales tax use of revenue in the city of Minneapolis; modifying Minneapolis downtown taxing area; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 297A.994, subdivision 4; Laws 1986, chapter 400, section 44, as amended.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

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Coulter, Curran, Greenman and Wolgamott introduced:

H. F. No. 4362, A bill for an act relating to public safety; regulating visitor carrying of firearms on campuses of public postsecondary institutions; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 624.714, subdivision 18.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Higher Education Finance and Policy.

Hansen, R.; Jordan; Gottfried; Falconer; Finke and Pursell introduced:

H. F. No. 4363, A bill for an act relating to civil law; creating a civil cause of action for trespass of intangible particulate matter; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 604.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

Jordan and Hansen, R., introduced:

H. F. No. 4364, A bill for an act relating to state government; establishing the Council on Central and Eastern European Affairs; requiring reports; appropriating money; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 15.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

Virnig introduced:

H. F. No. 4365, A bill for an act relating to state government; requiring the commissioner of administration to review agency grants management practices and establish and enforce improvements; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16B.97, subdivisions 3, 4.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

Klevorn and Nash introduced:

H. F. No. 4366, A bill for an act relating to state government; modifying eligibility for public television station block grants; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 129D.13, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

Klevorn and Nash introduced:

H. F. No. 4367, A bill for an act relating to the State Board of Investment; modifying practices for billing, expenses, and reporting; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 11A.07, subdivision 5; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 11A.04; 11A.07, subdivision 4.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

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Hanson, J., and Coulter introduced:

H. F. No. 4368, A bill for an act relating to higher education; directing the Board of Trustees of the Minnesota State Colleges and Universities to convene a workgroup on adjunct faculty health care eligibility; requiring a report.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Higher Education Finance and Policy.

Gottfried; Johnson, P.; Rehrauer and Hill introduced:

H. F. No. 4369, A bill for an act relating to employment; requiring notice and a transitional employment period for employees displaced by artificial intelligence; imposing penalties; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 181.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Hussein; Gomez; Mahamoud; Sencer-Mura; Noor; Tabke; Wolgamott; Xiong; Kraft; Falconer; Lee, K.; Hanson, J., and Pérez-Vega introduced:

H. F. No. 4370, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for the Somali Museum of Minnesota.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Lee, F., introduced:

H. F. No. 4371, A bill for an act relating to public safety; requiring the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension to perform background checks at the request of the Office of the Legislative Auditor; amending Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 299C.76, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Vang introduced:

H. F. No. 4372, A bill for an act relating to agriculture; allowing meat processing training and retention incentive grantees more time to complete projects; amending Laws 2023, chapter 43, article 1, section 2, subdivision 5, as amended.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Agriculture Finance and Policy.

Huot introduced:

H. F. No. 4373, A bill for an act relating to health; making changes to provisions covering prescription drug prior authorizations, transactions with group purchasers, prescription drug price transparency, health maintenance organizations, network design, coverage for immunizations, access to certain data collected, and obsolete language; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13.7191, subdivision 4; 60D.15, subdivision 3; 60D.21, subdivisions 1,

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4961

3; 60D.23; 62D.02, subdivision 7, by adding a subdivision; 62D.08, subdivisions 5, 6; 62D.09, subdivisions 1, 5; 62D.124, subdivision 6; 62D.221, subdivision 1; 62J.17, subdivision 6a; 62J.2930, subdivision 1; 62J.497, subdivision 5; 62J.536, subdivision 2a; 62K.02, subdivision 2; 62K.03, subdivision 6; 62K.075; 62K.105; 62K.14; 62M.07, subdivision 2; 62Q.46, subdivision 1; 62U.04, subdivision 13; 62W.06, by adding a subdivision; 144.293, subdivision 7; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 3.732, subdivision 1; 62J.84, subdivisions 2, 3, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14; 62K.10, subdivision 2; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13D.08, subdivision 4; 62D.08, subdivision 7; 62D.181; 62J.06; 62J.156; 62J.2930, subdivision 4; 62J.57.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Acomb introduced:

H. F. No. 4374, A bill for an act relating to energy; clarifying the use of certain money provided to the Minnesota Climate Innovation Finance Authority; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 216C.441, subdivision 3.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Energy Finance and Policy.

Tabke introduced:

H. F. No. 4375, A bill for an act relating to money transmitters; allowing money transmissions to be canceled within one hour of occurrence; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 53B.54.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Xiong; Lee, F.; Vang; Hussein and Pérez-Vega introduced:

H. F. No. 4376, A bill for an act relating to public safety; appropriating money for a grant to Bolder Options youth mentoring program.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Jones introduced:

H. F. No. 4377, A bill for an act relating to energy; specifying required elements in an application to the Public Utilities Commission for a certificate of need for a petroleum pipeline; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 216B.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Energy Finance and Policy.

Kozlowski; Agbaje; Howard; Rehrauer; Xiong; Lee, F.; Hussein and Momanyi-Hiltsley introduced:

H. F. No. 4378, A bill for an act relating to taxation; aids to local governments; establishing a onetime emergency rental assistance aid for counties and Tribal governments; requiring the claims administrator to return unused funds; canceling a prior appropriation; temporarily extending time period to correct delinquent rent; appropriating money; requiring a report.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Housing Finance and Policy.

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Bierman and Nadeau introduced:

H. F. No. 4379, A bill for an act relating to human services; establishing early childhood mental health consultation grants; modifying protection-related rights for home and community-based services; modifying day treatment program requirements; modifying intensive rehabilitative mental health services; requiring reports; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 245D.04, subdivision 3, by adding a subdivision; 256B.0947, subdivision 5; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 245.4889, subdivision 1; 256B.0943, subdivisions 1, 9; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 245.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.

Jordan; Keeler; Kozlowski; Buck; Gomez; Hanson, J.; Pérez-Vega; Gottfried; Koegel; Falconer; Mahamoud; Luger-Nikolai; Hussein; Curran and Frazier introduced:

H. F. No. 4380, A bill for an act relating to state lands; requiring conveyance of certain state lands to Red Lake Band of Chippewa Indians; requiring a report; appropriating money.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Environment and Natural Resources Finance and Policy.

Lee, F., introduced:

H. F. No. 4381, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for the Swank Eatery in the city of Minneapolis.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Coulter introduced:

H. F. No. 4382, A bill for an act relating to children; modernizing and encoding rules governing licensed child care centers and licensed family child care; creating requirements for family child care, child care center workers, policies, capacity, staff ratios, equipment, notifications, parent access, record keeping, supervision, facilities, health and safety, food and nutrition, and transportation; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 245A.211, subdivision 1; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapters 142H; 142I; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142B.01, subdivisions 11, 12, 13, 25, 26, 27; 142B.41, subdivisions 4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13; 142B.54, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 142B.62; 142B.65, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10; 142B.66, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5; 142B.70, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 10, 11, 12; 142B.71; 142B.72; 142B.74; 142B.75; 142B.76; 142B.77; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 142B.41, subdivision 9; 142B.65, subdivisions 8, 9; 142B.66, subdivision 3; 142B.70, subdivisions 7, 8; Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0300; 9502.0315; 9502.0325; 9502.0335; 9502.0341; 9502.0345; 9502.0355; 9502.0365; 9502.0367; 9502.0375; 9502.0395; 9502.0405; 9502.0415; 9502.0425; 9502.0435; 9502.0445; 9503.0005; 9503.0010; 9503.0015; 9503.0030; 9503.0031; 9503.0032; 9503.0033; 9503.0034; 9503.0040; 9503.0045; 9503.0050; 9503.0055; 9503.0060; 9503.0065; 9503.0070; 9503.0075; 9503.0080; 9503.0085; 9503.0090; 9503.0095; 9503.0100; 9503.0105; 9503.0110; 9503.0115; 9503.0120; 9503.0125; 9503.0130; 9503.0140; 9503.0145; 9503.0150; 9503.0155; 9503.0170.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

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Igo; Virnig; Warwas; Skraba; Johnson, P.; Heintzeman and Reyer introduced:

H. F. No. 4383, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for forests and forestry capital projects; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Bakeberg and West introduced:

H. F. No. 4384, A bill for an act relating to child care; modifying requirements for abusive head trauma training for child care providers; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142B.65, subdivision 7; 142B.70, subdivision 6; 142C.12, subdivision 3.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

McDonald and Gillman introduced:

H. F. No. 4385, A bill for an act relating to arts and cultural heritage; appropriating money to rehabilitate the Salisbury Bridge.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Legacy Finance.

McDonald, Jacob, Backer, Novotny, Robbins, Duran and Baker introduced:

H. F. No. 4386, A bill for an act relating to employment; paid leave; allowing an employee to opt out of participation in the paid leave program; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 268B.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Lawrence, Davids, Roach, Joy, Schultz, Gordon, Mekeland, Wolgamott, Allen, Dotseth, Engen, Olson and Duran introduced:

H. F. No. 4387, A bill for an act relating to taxes; creating an exemption from the motor vehicle sales tax for the sale of preowned motor vehicles; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 297A.67, by adding a subdivision; 297B.01, by adding a subdivision; 297B.03.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Nelson and Anderson, P. H., introduced:

H. F. No. 4388, A bill for an act relating to agriculture; establishing a rotational grazing pilot program; requiring a report; appropriating money.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Agriculture Finance and Policy.

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Lee, X., introduced:

H. F. No. 4389, A bill for an act relating to children; allowing nonprofit limited liability companies to apply for a license to be a child-placing agency; modifying the timing for a child care background study; modifying provisions on foster care, child placement, and child maltreatment; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142B.10, subdivision 18; 245C.04, subdivision 1; 259.83, subdivision 1; 260.67, subdivision 1; 260C.190, subdivision 1; 260C.212, subdivision 4a; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 142B.01, subdivision 15.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

Falconer; Lee, X.; Perryman; Bierman; Koegel; Gillman; Norris; Cha; Gottfried; Lillie; Smith; Hussein; Greene; Moller; Momanyi-Hiltsley; Pérez-Vega; Fischer; Rehm; Howard; Kozlowski; Stephenson; Elkins; Rehrauer; Long; Frazier; Luger-Nikolai; Berg and Curran introduced:

H. F. No. 4390, A bill for an act relating to commerce; requiring a person who sells emotional support dogs to provide notice that the dog is not a service dog; increasing criminal penalties for misrepresenting service animals; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.833, subdivision 3; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 325F.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Pérez-Vega; Clardy; Hansen, R., and Hussein introduced:

H. F. No. 4391, A bill for an act relating to economic development; appropriating money for grants to the cities of St. Paul and West St. Paul for economic development and job retention efforts for small businesses.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Momanyi-Hiltsley; Noor; Luger-Nikolai; Falconer; Agbaje; Feist; Lee, X.; Buck; Rehrauer and Greene introduced:

H. F. No. 4392, A bill for an act relating to human services; requiring wage remediation following delayed federal approval of retroactive rate increases.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

Noor introduced:

H. F. No. 4393, A bill for an act relating to human services; providing for recipient protections and continuity of care when a provider is subject to a serious operational event; providing for complex transitions; providing for a continuity period and transition payments for complex transitions; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 256B.0651, subdivision 17; 256B.69, by adding a subdivision; 256B.85, subdivision 23a; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 256B.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Human Services Finance and Policy.

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Feist introduced:

H. F. No. 4394, A bill for an act relating to public safety; appropriating money for support services for young adults released from juvenile detention or prison.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Hanson, J., introduced:

H. F. No. 4395, A bill for an act relating to cannabis; modifying cannabis event provisions; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 342.39, as amended; 342.40, subdivision 1; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 342.11; 342.40, subdivision 7.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Mahamoud introduced:

H. F. No. 4396, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for a grant to Our Saviour's Community Services in the city of Minneapolis.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

Hanson, J., introduced:

H. F. No. 4397, A bill for an act relating to cannabis; modifying cannabis business licensing provisions; establishing a cannabis macrobusiness license; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 342.01, subdivisions 14, 52, 54; 342.09, subdivision 3; 342.175; 342.22, subdivisions 1, 5; 342.27, subdivision 12; 342.35, subdivision 1; 342.37, subdivision 1; 342.41, subdivision 1; 342.51, by adding subdivisions; 342.515, as amended; 342.61, subdivision 5; 342.63, subdivision 4; 342.80; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 342.01, subdivision 48; 342.10; 342.11; 342.12; 342.13; 342.18, subdivision 2; 342.22, subdivision 3; 342.40, subdivision 7; 342.51, subdivision 2; 342.61, subdivision 4; 342.63, subdivisions 2, 3, 6; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 342.51, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Hanson, J., introduced:

H. F. No. 4398, A bill for an act relating to cannabis; modifying cannabis business license and endorsement provisions; providing civil penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 342.07, subdivision 3; 342.09, subdivision 6; 342.15, subdivisions 2, 5; 342.19, subdivision 5; 342.25, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7; 342.26, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; 342.27, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 342.28, subdivisions 6, 7, 9, 11; 342.29, subdivisions 5, 6, 8, 8a, 10; 342.30, subdivision 3; 342.31, subdivisions 3, 5; 342.32, subdivision 3; 342.45, subdivision 3; 342.515, subdivisions 2, 4, 6; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 342.12; 342.28, subdivision 8; 342.29, subdivision 7; 342.30, subdivision 1; 342.32, subdivision 1; 342.44, subdivision 1; 342.515, subdivisions 1, 7; 342.62, subdivision 2; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 342.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

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Liebling and Jordan introduced:

H. F. No. 4399, A bill for an act relating to elections; Independent School District No. 535, Rochester; providing for school board elections under chapter 205A; amending Laws 1969, chapter 193, section 3, as amended.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Education Policy.

Liebling and Jordan introduced:

H. F. No. 4400, A bill for an act relating to elections; Independent School District No. 535, Rochester; providing for school board elections under chapter 205A; amending Laws 1969, chapter 193, section 3, as amended.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Elections Finance and Government Operations.

Reyer and Bierman introduced:

H. F. No. 4401, A bill for an act relating to human services; modifying medical assistance reimbursement rates for dental services and critical access dental providers; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.76, subdivisions 2, 4.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.

Jordan introduced:

H. F. No. 4402, A bill for an act relating to retirement; Public Employees Retirement Association; general employees retirement plan; authorizing an eligible person to purchase service credit for periods of omitted service.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on State Government Finance and Policy.

Koegel introduced:

H. F. No. 4403, A bill for an act relating to commerce; eliminating obsolete dates; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 58B.051.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Koegel introduced:

H. F. No. 4404, A bill for an act relating to commerce; consumer protection; eliminating obsolete dates; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 325F.171, subdivision 2.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

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Lee, F., introduced:

H. F. No. 4405, A bill for an act relating to public safety; prohibiting federal officers exercising certain federal immigration authority from wearing face coverings; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 626.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.

Wolgamott introduced:

H. F. No. 4406, A bill for an act relating to health; modifying membership of Board of Medical Practice; establishing requirements for complaint review committee membership and processes; establishing requirements for information on provider profiles on Board of Medicine website; establishing requirements for posted information at points of patient contact; requiring an audit; requiring reports; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 147.01, subdivisions 1, 2, 4; 147.02, subdivision 5; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 147.091, subdivision 1; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 147.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.

Gillman introduced:

H. F. No. 4407, A bill for an act relating to children, youth, and families; modifying the Minnesota African American Family Preservation and Child Welfare Disproportionality Act; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 257.0762, subdivision 1; 260.63, subdivisions 2, 10; 260.64, subdivision 1; 260.67, subdivision 1; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 260.65; 260.66, subdivision 1; 260C.329, subdivision 3; Laws 2024, chapter 117, sections 2; 3; 4; 5; 6; 7; 8; 9; 10; 14; 15; 16; 18; 19; 20; 21; repealing Laws 2024, chapter 117, section 17.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

Nelson, McDonald, Nadeau, Zeleznikar and West introduced:

H. F. No. 4408, A bill for an act relating to children and families; requiring public disclosure of information related to child fatalities and near fatalities; modifying requirements for the child mortality review panel annual report; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 260E.35, subdivision 7; 260E.39, subdivisions 4, 6.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy.

Allen, Rymer, Schultz, Backer, Roach, Bliss, Altendorf, Dippel, Joy, Knudsen, McDonald, Fogelman, Franson, Murphy, Skraba, Gillman, Robbins, Perryman, Warwas, Hudson, Olson, Jacob, Wiener, Sexton, Mekeland, Lawrence and Davis introduced:

H. F. No. 4409, A bill for an act relating to education; modifying social studies standards to include the dangers and perils of communism and socialism; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 120B.021, subdivision 1.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Education Policy.

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Davids, Koegel, Bakeberg, Cha and Reyer introduced:

H. F. No. 4410, A bill for an act relating to commerce; prohibiting online sweepstakes games; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 325F.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Wiener, Davis, Roach, Joy, Jacob and Mekeland introduced:

H. F. No. 4411, A bill for an act relating to energy; repealing the 100 percent carbon free by 2040 standard; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 216B.1691, subdivision 2g.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Energy Finance and Policy.

Allen introduced:

H. F. No. 4412, A bill for an act relating to cannabis; modifying requirements for the medical cannabis endorsement; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 342.51, subdivisions 1, 3; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 342.51, subdivision 2.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce Finance and Policy.

Allen introduced:

H. F. No. 4413, A bill for an act relating to higher education; limiting the governor's appointment power to fill vacancies on the Board of Regents of the University of Minnesota; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 137.0246, by adding a subdivision.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Higher Education Finance and Policy.

Baker introduced:

H. F. No. 4414, A bill for an act relating to employment; exempting elected officials from the Minnesota Paid Leave Law; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 268B.01, subdivisions 15, 17.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.

Baker introduced:

H. F. No. 4415, A bill for an act relating to health; modifying strategies in the comprehensive drug overdose and morbidity program administered by the commissioner of health; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.0528, subdivision 2.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.

Journal Of the House - 48th -Monday, March 16, 2026 - Top of Page 4969

Johnson, W.; Wiener; Warwas; Huot and Norris introduced:

H. F. No. 4416, A bill for an act relating to taxation; property tax refunds; expanding the targeting property tax refund for taxes payable in 2026.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Taxes.

Koznick introduced:

H. F. No. 4417, A bill for an act relating to civil law; providing racing facilities with immunity from nuisance claims; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 561.

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Judiciary Finance and Civil Law.

CALENDAR FOR THE DAY

H. F. No. 3379, A bill for an act relating to human services; repealing housing stabilization services; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 256B.0658; 256L.03, subdivision 1; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 245C.03, subdivision 6; 245C.10, subdivision 6; 256B.04, subdivision 21; 256B.0701, subdivision 9; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.051, subdivisions 1, 4, 7; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.051, subdivisions 2, 3, 5, 6, 6a, 6b, 8, 9, 10.

The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.

The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called. There were 134 yeas and 0 nays as follows:

Those who voted in the affirmative were: