Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6225

STATE OF MINNESOTA

 

Journal of the House

 

NINETY-FOURTH SESSION - 2026

 

_____________________

 

SIXTY-SEVENTH LEGISLATIVE DAY

 

Saint Paul, Minnesota, Thursday, April 30, 2026

 

 

      The House of Representatives convened at 2:00 p.m. and was called to order by Paul Torkelson, Speaker pro tempore.

 

      Prayer was offered by Pastor Fred Hinz, Lutheran Church Missouri Synod, Gaylord, Minnesota.

 

      The members of the House gave the pledge of allegiance to the flag of the United States of America.

 

      The roll was called and the following members were present:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

      A quorum was present.

 

      Sencer-Mura was excused until 2:30 p.m.

 

      Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote House Operations, the Speaker permitted the following member to vote via remote means:  McDonald.


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       Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote House Operations, the DFL Caucus Leader permitted the following members to vote via remote means:  Greene, Momanyi-Hiltsley and Pérez-Vega.

 

 

      Speaker pro tempore Torkelson called Olson to the Chair.

 

 

      The Chief Clerk proceeded to read the Journals of the preceding days.  There being no objection, further reading of the Journals was dispensed with and the Journals were approved as corrected by the Chief Clerk.

 

 

REPORTS OF CHIEF CLERK

 

      S. F. No. 1714 and H. F. No. 1234, which had been referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison, were examined and found to be not identical.

 

      Scott moved that S. F. No. 1714 be substituted for H. F. No. 1234 and that the House File be indefinitely postponed.  The motion prevailed.

 

 

      S. F. No. 2814 and H. F. No. 2400, which had been referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison, were examined and found to be identical.

 

      Huot moved that S. F. No. 2814 be substituted for H. F. No. 2400 and that the House File be indefinitely postponed.  The motion prevailed.

 

 

      S. F. No. 3210 and H. F. No. 2380, which had been referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison, were examined and found to be not identical.

 

      Hicks moved that S. F. No. 3210 be substituted for H. F. No. 2380 and that the House File be indefinitely postponed.  The motion prevailed.

 

 

      S. F. No. 3432 and H. F. No. 3230, which had been referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison, were examined and found to be not identical.

 

      Moller moved that S. F. No. 3432 be substituted for H. F. No. 3230 and that the House File be indefinitely postponed.  The motion prevailed.

 

 

SECOND READING OF SENATE BILLS

 

 

      S. F. Nos. 1714, 2814, 3210 and 3432 were read for the second time.


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INTRODUCTION AND FIRST READING OF HOUSE BILLS

 

 

      The following House Files were introduced:

 

 

      Huot introduced:

 

H. F. No. 5099, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for a new water treatment facility in the city of Rosemount; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

 

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

 

 

Finke introduced:

 

H. F. No. 5100, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money for capital improvements to the Metropolitan Mosquito Control District public health lab; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.

 

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

 

 

Franson introduced:

 

H. F. No. 5101, A bill for an act relating to capital investment; appropriating money to furnish and equip a critical access dental clinic in the city of Alexandria.

 

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Capital Investment.

 

 

Dippel, Niska, Nash, Skraba, Altendorf and Rarick introduced:

 

H. F. No. 5102, A bill for an act relating to transportation; taxation; modifying motor vehicle registration tax; amending Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 168.013, subdivision 1a.

 

The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Transportation Finance and Policy.

 

 

REPORT FROM THE COMMITTEE ON RULES

AND LEGISLATIVE ADMINISTRATION

 

      Niska from the Committee on Rules and Legislative Administration, pursuant to rules 1.21 and 3.33, designated the following bills to be placed on the Calendar for the Day for Monday, May 4, 2026 and established a prefiling requirement for amendments offered to the following bills:

 

      H. F. Nos. 1082, 1141, 1270, 3521, 3522, 3532, 3860, 3679, 3684, 3732, 3900, 3919, 3972, 4006, 4252, 4462 and 4492; and S. F. No. 4807.


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CALENDAR FOR THE DAY

 

 

      H. F. No. 3426, A bill for an act relating to natural resources; appropriating money from environment and natural resources trust fund; extending certain prior appropriations; modifying provisions on expenditures from environment and natural resources trust fund; modifying requirements for community grants program; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 116P.08, subdivision 4, by adding a subdivision; 116P.09, subdivision 6; 116X.03, by adding subdivisions.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.

 

      The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 117 yeas and 15 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Robbins

Schomacker

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Altendorf

Bennett

Davis

Dippel

Engen

Fogelman

Harder

Jacob

Lawrence

Murphy

Rarick

Roach

Rymer

Schultz

Wiener


 

 

      The bill was passed and its title agreed to.

 

 

      H. F. No. 4151, A bill for an act relating to occupations; modifying eligibility of certain applicants for licenses to serve as private detectives or protective agents; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 326.32, subdivisions 8, 10, 10a, 10c, 12; 326.33, subdivision 1; 326.3381, subdivisions 2, 4; 326.3382, subdivisions 1, 4; 326.3385, subdivision 2; 326.3386, subdivision 3.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.


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       The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 133 yeas and 0 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The bill was passed and its title agreed to.

 

 

      S. F. No. 4760 was reported to the House.

 

 

Novotny moved to amend S. F. No. 4760, the second engrossment, as follows:

 

Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert the following language of H. F. No. 3990, the second engrossment:

 

"Section 1.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 8.16, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Authority.  (a) The attorney general, or any deputy, assistant, or special assistant attorney general whom the attorney general authorizes in writing, has the authority in any county of the state to subpoena and require the production of:

 

(1) any records of:

 

(i) telephone companies, cellular phone companies, paging companies, subscribers of private computer networks including Internet service providers or computer bulletin board systems,;

 

(ii) electric companies, gas companies, and water utilities,;

 

(iii) chemical suppliers,;


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(iv)
hotels and motels,;

 

(v) pawn shops,;

 

(vi) airlines, buses, taxis, and other entities engaged in the business of transporting people,; and

 

(vii) freight companies, self-service storage facilities, warehousing companies, package delivery companies, and other entities engaged in the businesses of transport, storage, or delivery,;

 

(2) books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, agreements, and other documents or records related to a law enforcement investigation where there is probable cause to believe a crime has been committed involving a financial crime or fraud, including but not limited to fraud involving state funded or administered programs or services as defined in section 299C.061, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and insurance fraud in violation of section 609.611; and

 

(3) records of the existence of safe deposit box account numbers and customer savings and checking account numbers maintained by financial institutions and safe deposit companies.

 

(b) Subpoenas may only be issued for records that are relevant to an ongoing legitimate law enforcement investigation.

 

Sec. 2.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 12.221, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Disaster assistance contingency account; appropriation.  (a) A disaster assistance contingency account is created in the special revenue fund in the state treasury.  Money in the disaster assistance contingency account is appropriated to the commissioner of public safety to provide:

 

(1) cost-share for federal assistance under section 12A.15, subdivision 1;

 

(2) state public disaster assistance to eligible applicants under chapter 12B;

 

(3) cost-share for federal assistance from the Federal Highway Administration emergency relief program under United States Code, title 23, section 125; and

 

(4) cost-share for federal assistance from the United States Department of Agriculture, Natural Resources Conservation Service emergency watershed protection program under United States Code, title 16, sections 2203 to 2205.

 

(b) For appropriations under paragraph (a), clause (1), the amount appropriated is 100 percent of any nonfederal share for state agencies, local governments, and utility cooperatives.  Money appropriated under paragraph (a), clause (1), may be used to pay all or a portion of the nonfederal share for publicly owned capital improvement projects.

 

(c) For appropriations under paragraph (a), clause (2), the amount appropriated is the amount required to pay eligible claims under chapter 12B, as certified by the commissioner of public safety.

 

(d) By January 15 31 of each year, the commissioner of management and budget shall submit a report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives Ways and Means Committee and the senate Finance Committee detailing state disaster assistance appropriations and expenditures under this subdivision during the previous calendar year.


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(e) The governor's budget proposal submitted to the legislature under section 16A.11 must include recommended appropriations to the disaster assistance contingency account.  The governor's appropriation recommendations must be informed by the commissioner of public safety's estimate of the amount of money that will be necessary to:

 

(1) provide 100 percent of the nonfederal share for state agencies, local governments, and utility cooperatives that will receive federal financial assistance from FEMA during the next biennium; and

 

(2) fully pay all eligible claims under chapter 12B.

 

(f) Notwithstanding section 16A.28:

 

(1) funds appropriated or transferred to the disaster assistance contingency account do not lapse but remain in the account until appropriated; and

 

(2) funds appropriated from the disaster assistance contingency account do not lapse and are available until expended.

 

Sec. 3.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.69, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Classifications.  (a) The following government data of the Department of Public Safety are private data:

 

(1) medical data on driving instructors, licensed drivers, and applicants for parking certificates and special license plates issued to physically disabled persons;

 

(2) other data on holders of a disability certificate under section 169.345, except that (i) data that are not medical data may be released to law enforcement agencies, and (ii) data necessary for enforcement of sections 169.345 and 169.346 may be released to parking enforcement employees or parking enforcement agents of statutory or home rule charter cities and towns;

 

(3) Social Security numbers in driver's license and motor vehicle registration records, except that Social Security numbers must be provided to the Department of Revenue for purposes of tax administration, the Department of Labor and Industry for purposes of workers' compensation administration and enforcement, the judicial branch for purposes of debt collection, and the Department of Natural Resources for purposes of license application administration, and except that the last four digits of the Social Security number must be provided to the Department of Human Services for purposes of recovery of Minnesota health care program benefits paid;

 

(4) data on persons listed as standby or temporary custodians under section 171.07, subdivision 11, except that the data must be released to:

 

(i) law enforcement agencies for the purpose of verifying that an individual is a designated caregiver; or

 

(ii) law enforcement agencies who state that the license holder is unable to communicate at that time and that the information is necessary for notifying the designated caregiver of the need to care for a child of the license holder; and

 

(5) race and ethnicity data on driver's license holders and identification card holders under section 171.06, subdivision 3.  The Department of Public Safety Office of Traffic Safety is authorized to receive race and ethnicity data from Driver and Vehicle Services for only the purposes of research, evaluation, and public reports.; and

 

(6) the following data on individuals created, collected, received, stored, used, or maintained by the Office of Justice Programs:  the name, address, email address, telephone number, date of birth, or employer of a research participant; a unique identification number assigned to a research participant; and any other data that could reasonably identify a research participant.


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The department may release the Social Security number only as provided in clause (3) and must not sell or otherwise provide individual Social Security numbers or lists of Social Security numbers for any other purpose.

 

(b) The following government data of the Department of Public Safety are confidential data:  data concerning an individual's driving ability when that data is received from a member of the individual's family.

 

Sec. 4.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.6905, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

 

Subd. 39.  Office for Missing and Murdered Indigenous Relatives.  Data related to victim and family support are governed by section 299A.85, subdivision 4, paragraph (c).

 

Sec. 5.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.6905, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

 

Subd. 40.  Office for Missing and Murdered Black Women and Girls.  Data related to victim and family support are governed by section 299A.90, subdivision 3, paragraph (c).

 

Sec. 6.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.871, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 5.  Crime victims.  (a) Crime victim notice of release.  Data on crime victims who request notice of an offender's release are classified under section 611A.06.

 

(b) Sex offender HIV tests.  Results of HIV tests of sex offenders under section 611A.19, subdivision 2, are classified under that section.

 

(c) Battered women.  Data on battered women maintained by grantees for emergency shelter and support services for battered women are governed by section 611A.32, subdivision 5.

 

(d) (c) Victims of domestic abuse.  Data on battered women and victims of domestic abuse maintained by grantees and recipients of per diem payments for emergency shelter for battered women and support services for battered women and victims of domestic abuse are governed by sections 611A.32, subdivision 5, and 611A.371, subdivision 3.

 

(e) (d) Personal history; internal auditing.  Certain personal history and internal auditing data is classified by section 611A.46.

 

(f) (e) Crime victim claims for reimbursement.  Claims and supporting documents filed by crime victims seeking reimbursement are classified under section 611A.57, subdivision 6.

 

(g) (f) Crime Victim Oversight Act.  Data maintained by the commissioner of public safety under the Crime Victim Oversight Act are classified under section 611A.74, subdivision 2.

 

(h) (g) Victim identity data.  Data relating to the identity of the victims of certain criminal sexual conduct is governed by section 609.3471.

 

(i) (h) Victim notification.  Data on victims requesting a notice of release of an arrested or detained person are classified under sections 629.72 and 629.73.

 

(j) (i) Immigration status certification.  Disclosure of the immigration status of a crime victim and the classification of that data is governed by section 611A.95, subdivision 4.


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Sec. 7.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 116L.362, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Generally.  (a) The commissioner shall make grants to eligible organizations for programs to provide education and training services to targeted youth.  The purpose of these programs is to provide specialized training and work experience for targeted youth who have not been served effectively by the current educational system.  The programs are to include a work experience component with work projects that result in the rehabilitation, improvement, or construction of (1) residential units for the homeless; (2) improvements to the energy efficiency and environmental health of residential units and other green jobs purposes; (3) facilities to support community garden projects; or (4) education, social service, or health facilities which are owned by a public agency or a private nonprofit organization.

 

(b) Eligible facilities must principally provide services to homeless or low income individuals and families, and include the following:

 

(1) Head Start or day care centers, including playhouses or similar incidental structures;

 

(2) homeless, battered women domestic abuse, or other shelters;

 

(3) transitional housing and tiny houses;

 

(4) youth or senior citizen centers;

 

(5) community health centers; and

 

(6) community garden facilities.

 

Two or more eligible organizations may jointly apply for a grant.  The commissioner shall administer the grant program.

 

Sec. 8.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 119A.37, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4.  Additional services.  Each parenting time center may provide parenting and child development classes, and offer support groups to participating custodial parents and hold regular classes designed to assist children who have experienced domestic violence and abuse.  Each parenting time center must have available an individual knowledgeable about or experienced in the provision of services to battered women and domestic abuse victims on its staff, its board of directors, or otherwise available to it for consultation.

 

Sec. 9.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 120B.22, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Violence prevention curriculum.  (a) The commissioner of education, in consultation with the commissioners of health and human services, state minority councils, battered women's and domestic abuse programs, battered women's and shelters, sexual assault centers, and representatives of religious communities, and the assistant commissioner of the Office of Drug Policy and Violence Prevention, shall assist districts on request in developing or implementing a violence prevention program for students in kindergarten to grade 12 that can be integrated into existing curriculum.  The purpose of the program is to help students learn how to resolve conflicts within their families and communities in nonviolent, effective ways.

 

(b) Each district is encouraged to integrate into its existing curriculum a program for violence prevention that includes at least:


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(1) a comprehensive, accurate, and age appropriate curriculum on violence prevention, nonviolent conflict resolution, sexual, racial, and cultural harassment, self-protection, and student hazing that promotes equality, respect, understanding, effective communication, individual responsibility, thoughtful decision making, positive conflict resolution, useful coping skills, critical thinking, listening and watching skills, and personal safety;

 

(2) planning materials, guidelines, and other accurate information on preventing physical and emotional violence, identifying and reducing the incidence of sexual, racial, and cultural harassment, and reducing child abuse, including physical abuse, and neglect;

 

(3) a special parent education component of early childhood family education programs to prevent child abuse and neglect and to promote positive parenting skills, giving priority to services and outreach programs for at-risk families;

 

(4) involvement of parents and other community members, including the clergy, business representatives, civic leaders, local elected officials, law enforcement officials, and the county attorney;

 

(5) collaboration with local community services, agencies, and organizations that assist in violence intervention or prevention, including family-based services, crisis services, life management skills services, case coordination services, mental health services, and early intervention services;

 

(6) collaboration among districts and service cooperatives;

 

(7) targeting early adolescents for prevention efforts, especially early adolescents whose personal circumstances may lead to violent or harassing behavior;

 

(8) opportunities for teachers to receive in-service training or attend other programs on strategies or curriculum designed to assist students in intervening in or preventing violence in school and at home; and

 

(9) administrative policies that reflect, and a staff that models, nonviolent behaviors that do not display or condone sexual, racial, or cultural harassment or student hazing.

 

(c) The department may provide assistance at a neutral site to a nonpublic school participating in a district's program.

 

Sec. 10.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142G.12, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  30-day residency requirement.  An assistance unit is considered to have established residency in this state only when a child or caregiver has resided in this state for at least 30 consecutive days with the intention of making the person's home here and not for any temporary purpose.  The birth of a child in Minnesota to a member of the assistance unit does not automatically establish the residency in this state under this subdivision of the other members of the assistance unit.  Time spent in a shelter for battered women domestic abuse victims shall count toward satisfying the 30-day residency requirement.

 

Sec. 11.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 142G.53, is amended to read:

 

142G.53 FAMILY VIOLENCE WAIVER CRITERIA.

 

(a) In order to qualify for a family violence waiver, an individual must provide documentation of past or current family violence which may prevent the individual from participating in certain employment activities.

 

(b) The following items may be considered acceptable documentation or verification of family violence:


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(1) police, government agency, or court records;

 

(2) a statement from a battered women's domestic abuse shelter staff with knowledge of the circumstances;

 

(3) a statement from a sexual assault or domestic violence advocate with knowledge of the circumstances; or

 

(4) a statement from professionals from whom the applicant or recipient has sought assistance for the abuse.

 

(c) A claim of family violence may also be documented by a sworn statement from the applicant or participant and a sworn statement from any other person with knowledge of the circumstances or credible evidence that supports the client's statement.

 

Sec. 12.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 152.027, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 7.  Sale or possession of kratom.  (a) A person who unlawfully sells any amount of kratom or a substance that contains mitragynine or 7-hydroxymitragynine to a person under the age of 18 21 is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

 

(b) A person under the age of 18 21 who unlawfully possesses any amount of kratom or a substance that contains mitragynine or 7-hydroxymitragynine is guilty of a misdemeanor.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.

 

Sec. 13.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 201.061, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  Election day registration.  (a) An individual who is eligible to vote may register or update a registration on election day by appearing in person at the polling place for the precinct in which the individual maintains residence, by completing a registration application, making an oath in the form prescribed by the secretary of state and providing proof of residence.  An individual may prove residence for purposes of registering or updating a registration by:

 

(1) presenting a driver's license or Minnesota identification card issued pursuant to section 171.07;

 

(2) presenting any document approved by the secretary of state as proper identification;

 

(3) presenting a current student fee statement that contains the student's valid address in the precinct together with a picture identification card; or

 

(4) having a voter who is registered to vote in the precinct, or an employee who provides proof that they are employed by and working in a residential facility in the precinct and vouching for a resident in the facility, sign an oath in the presence of the election judge vouching that the voter or employee personally knows that the individual is a resident of the precinct.  A voter who has been vouched for on election day may not sign a proof of residence oath vouching for any other individual on that election day.  An election judge may not sign a proof of residence oath vouching for any individual who appears in the precinct where the election judge is working unless the election judge personally knows the individual is a resident of the precinct.  A voter who is registered to vote in the precinct may sign up to eight proof-of-residence oaths on any election day.  This limitation does not apply to an employee of a residential facility described in this clause.  The secretary of state shall provide a form for election judges to use in recording the number of individuals for whom a voter signs proof-of-residence oaths on election day.  The form must include space for the maximum number of individuals for whom a voter may sign proof-of-residence oaths.  For each proof-of-residence oath, the form must include a statement that the individual:  (i) is registered to vote in the precinct or is an employee of a residential facility in the precinct, (ii) personally knows that the voter is a resident of the precinct, and (iii) is making the statement on oath.  The form must include a space for the voter's printed name, signature, telephone number, and address.


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The oath required by this subdivision and Minnesota Rules, part 8200.9939, must be attached to the voter registration application.

 

(b) The secretary of state must publish guidance for residential facilities and residential facility employees on the vouching process and the requirements of this subdivision.

 

(c) "Residential facility" means transitional housing as defined in section 256K.48, subdivision 1; a supervised living facility licensed by the commissioner of health under section 144.50, subdivision 6; a nursing home as defined in section 144A.01, subdivision 5; an assisted living facility licensed by the commissioner of health under chapter 144G; a veterans home operated by the board of directors of the Minnesota Veterans Homes under chapter 198; a residence licensed by the commissioner of human services to provide a residential program as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 14; a residential facility for persons with a developmental disability licensed by the commissioner of human services under section 252.28; setting authorized to provide housing support as defined in section 256I.03, subdivision 10a; a shelter for battered women emergency shelter services for domestic abuse victims as defined in section 611A.37, subdivision 4 611A.31, subdivision 3; a supervised publicly or privately operated shelter or dwelling designed to provide temporary living accommodations for the homeless; a facility where a provider operates a residential treatment program as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 23; or a facility where a provider operates an adult foster care program as defined in section 245A.02, subdivision 6c.

 

(d) For tribal band members, an individual may prove residence for purposes of registering or updating a registration by:

 

(1) presenting an identification card issued by the tribal government of a tribe recognized by the Bureau of Indian Affairs, United States Department of the Interior, that contains the name, address, signature, and picture of the individual; or

 

(2) presenting an identification card issued by the tribal government of a tribe recognized by the Bureau of Indian Affairs, United States Department of the Interior, that contains the name, signature, and picture of the individual and also presenting one of the documents listed in Minnesota Rules, part 8200.5100, subpart 2, item B.

 

(e) A county, school district, or municipality may require that an election judge responsible for election day registration initial each completed registration application.

 

Sec. 14.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 203B.06, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  Delivery of ballots.  (a) The county auditor, municipal clerk, school district clerk, or full-time clerk of any city or town administering an election pursuant to section 203B.05, shall mail absentee ballots to voters on the permanent absentee ballot list pursuant to section 203B.04, subdivision 5, on the following timelines:

 

(1) except as otherwise provided by this section, at least 46 days before each regularly scheduled primary and general election and each special primary and special election;

 

(2) as soon as practicable for a special election held pursuant to section 204D.19, subdivisions 2 and 3; and

 

(3) at least 30 days before a town general election held in March.

 

(b) The commissioner of corrections must provide the secretary of state with a list of the names and mailing addresses of state adult correctional facilities.  An application for an absentee ballot that provides an address included on the list provided by the commissioner of corrections must not be accepted and an absentee ballot must not be provided to the applicant.  The county auditor or municipal clerk must promptly transmit a copy of the application to the county attorney.  The Department of Corrections must implement procedures to ensure that absentee ballots issued under this chapter are not received or mailed by offenders incarcerated at state adult correctional facilities.


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(c) If an application for absentee ballots is accepted at a time when absentee ballots are not yet available for distribution, the county auditor, or municipal clerk accepting the application shall file it and as soon as absentee ballots are available for distribution shall mail them to the address specified in the application.  If an application for absentee ballots is accepted when absentee ballots are available for distribution, the county auditor or municipal clerk accepting the application shall promptly:

 

(1) mail the ballots to the voter whose signature appears on the application if the application is submitted by mail and does not request commercial shipping under clause (2);

 

(2) ship the ballots to the voter using a commercial shipper requested by the voter at the voter's expense;

 

(3) deliver the absentee ballots directly to the voter if the application is submitted in person; or

 

(4) deliver the absentee ballots in a sealed transmittal envelope to an agent who has been designated to bring the ballots, as provided in section 203B.11, subdivision 4, to a voter who would have difficulty getting to the polls because of incapacitating health reasons, or who is disabled, or who is a patient in a health care facility, a resident of an assisted living facility licensed under chapter 144G, a participant in a residential program for adults licensed under section 245A.02, subdivision 14, or a resident of a shelter for battered women domestic abuse victims as defined in section 611A.37, subdivision 4 611A.31, subdivision 2.

 

(d) If an application does not indicate the election for which absentee ballots are sought, the county auditor or municipal clerk shall mail or deliver only the ballots for the next election occurring after receipt of the application.  Only one set of ballots may be mailed, shipped, or delivered to an applicant for any election, except as provided in section 203B.121, subdivision 2, or when a replacement ballot has been requested by the voter for a ballot that has been spoiled or lost in transit.

 

Sec. 15.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 203B.11, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Generally.  (a) Each full-time municipal clerk or school district clerk who has authority under section 203B.05 to administer absentee voting laws must designate election judges to deliver absentee ballots in accordance with this section.  The county auditor must also designate election judges to perform the duties in this section.  A ballot may be delivered only to an eligible voter who is a temporary or permanent resident or patient in one of the following facilities located in the municipality in which the voter maintains residence:  a health care facility, hospital, or veterans home operated by the board of directors of the Minnesota veterans homes under chapter 198.  The ballots must be delivered by two election judges, each of whom is affiliated with a different major political party.  When the election judges deliver or return ballots as provided in this section, they must travel together in the same vehicle.  Both election judges must be present when an applicant completes the certificate of eligibility and marks the absentee ballots, and may assist an applicant as provided in section 204C.15.  The election judges must deposit the return envelopes containing the marked absentee ballots in a sealed container and return them to the clerk on the same day that they are delivered and marked.

 

(b) At the discretion of a full-time municipal clerk, school district clerk, or county auditor, absentee ballots may be delivered in the same manner as prescribed in paragraph (a) to a shelter for battered women domestic abuse victims as defined in section 611A.37, subdivision 4 611A.31, subdivision 2, or to an assisted living facility licensed under chapter 144G.

 

Sec. 16.  [241.011] LICENSING AND INSPECTING JUVENILE AND ADULT COMMUNITY-BASED RESIDENTIAL CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES.

 

Subdivision 1.  Scope.  Except as provided under section 241.021, sections 241.011 to 241.013 apply to juvenile and adult community-based residential correctional facilities licensed by the commissioner of corrections.  For the purposes of sections 241.011 to 241.013, juvenile and adult community-based residential correctional facilities are defined as local correctional facilities.


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Subd. 2.
  Definitions.  (a) For purposes of sections 241.011 to 241.021, the following terms have the meanings given.

 

(b) "Commissioner" means the commissioner of corrections.

 

(c) "Critical incident" has the meaning given in Minnesota Rules, part 2960.0020, subpart 24.

 

(d) "Department" means the Department of Corrections.

 

(e) "Emergency or unusual occurrence" means an incident that must be reported to the commissioner through the department's detention information system.

 

(f) "Facility administrator" means the officer in charge of a local correctional facility.

 

(g) "Local correctional facility" includes:

 

(1) a facility licensed to house or serve primarily adults under section 241.31; and

 

(2) a facility licensed to detain or serve juveniles, including a group home having a residential component or foster care facility placements under chapter 260C, for the primary purpose of:

 

(i) residential care and treatment;

 

(ii) detention; or

 

(iii) foster care services for children in need of out-of-home placement.

 

(h) "State correctional facility" means a correctional facility under the commissioner's control.

 

Subd. 3.  Local correctional facilities; inspection and licensing.  The commissioner must inspect and license all local correctional facilities throughout the state established and operated:

 

(1) for serving or housing individuals in the facilities; or

 

(2) consistent with section 241.013, subdivision 4, paragraph (a), for detaining or serving juveniles placed in the facilities by a correctional or noncorrectional agency.

 

Subd. 4.  Inspecting facilities for compliance; publishing inspection reports.  (a) Unless the commissioner determines otherwise, the commissioner must inspect all local correctional facilities at least once every two years to determine compliance with the minimum standards established according to sections 241.011 to 241.013 or any other law related to minimum standards and conditions of confinement, not including section 241.021, subdivisions 1 to 1e.

 

(b) The commissioner must have access to a facility's buildings, grounds, books, records, and staff and to individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility.  The commissioner may require facility administrators to furnish all information and statistics that the commissioner deems necessary at a time and place designated by the commissioner.

 

(c) The commissioner must post each facility inspection report publicly on the department's website within 30 days after completing an inspection.


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Subd. 5.
  Granting license; expiration.  (a) The commissioner must grant a license for up to two years to:

 

(1) any facility found to conform to minimum standards; or

 

(2) any facility that the commissioner determines is making satisfactory progress toward substantial conformity and any minimum standards not being met do not impact the interests and well-being of the individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility.

 

(b) A limited license may be issued to effectuate a facility closure.

 

(c) Unless otherwise provided by law, all licenses issued under sections 241.011 to 241.013 expire 12:01 a.m. on the day after the expiration date stated on the license.

 

Subd. 6.  Providing and accessing facility data.  (a) The commissioner may require that any information under sections 241.011 to 241.013 be provided through the department's detention information system.

 

(b) Notwithstanding chapter 13 or any other state law classifying or restricting access to data, a facility administrator must furnish to the commissioner all data available to a facility that the commissioner deems necessary for reviewing any critical incident or emergency or unusual occurrence at the facility.

 

(c) The commissioner may take action against a facility's license according to section 241.012 if a facility administrator fails to provide or grant access to relevant information or statistics requested by the commissioner that are necessary to conduct or complete:

 

(1) inspections;

 

(2) reviews of emergency or unusual occurrences; or

 

(3) reviews of critical incidents.

 

Subd. 7.  Reporting; deaths, emergencies or unusual occurrences, and critical incidents.  (a) A facility administrator must report a death to the commissioner when:

 

(1) an individual detained or housed in the facility dies at the facility; or

 

(2) an individual dies while receiving medical care stemming from an incident or need for medical care at the facility that occurred while the individual was detained or housed in the facility.

 

(b) Paragraph (a), clause (2), applies regardless of whether the individual was subject to the facility's authority while requiring or receiving the medical care.

 

(c) A facility administrator must:

 

(1) report a death under this subdivision as soon as practicable, but no later than 24 hours of receiving knowledge of the death; and

 

(2) include any demographic information required by the commissioner.

 

(d) Except for deaths under paragraphs (a) to (c), all facility administrators must report all critical incidents or emergency or unusual occurrences to the commissioner within ten days of the incident or occurrence, including any demographic information required by the commissioner.


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Subd. 8.
  Death review teams.  (a) If a local correctional facility under subdivision 2, paragraph (g), clause (2), receives notice of the death of an individual who died under circumstances described in subdivision 7, paragraph (a), within 90 days of the death, the following individuals must review the circumstances of the death and assess for preventable mortality and morbidity, including but not limited to recommending policy or procedure change:

 

(1) the facility administrator;

 

(2) a medical expert of the facility's choosing who did not provide medical services to the individual and who is licensed as a physician or physician assistant by the Board of Medical Practice under chapter 147 or 147A; and

 

(3) if appropriate, a mental health expert.

 

(b) The investigating law enforcement agency may provide documentation for, participate in, or provide documentation for and participate in the review if criminal charges are not brought.  A preliminary autopsy report must be provided as part of the review and any subsequent autopsy findings as available.

 

(c) The facility administrator must notify the commissioner via the department's detention information system that the facility has conducted a review and identify any recommendations for changes in policy, procedure, or training that will be implemented.

 

(d) Any report or other documentation created for purposes of a facility death review is confidential data on individuals under section 13.02, subdivision 3.  Nothing in this section relieves the facility administrator from complying with the notice of death to the commissioner required under subdivision 7.

 

Subd. 9.  Rulemaking.  (a) The commissioner must adopt rules establishing minimum standards for local correctional facilities for the management, operation, and physical condition of the facilities and the security, safety, health, treatment, and discipline of individuals detained or housed in or served by the facilities.

 

(b) The time limit to adopt rules under section 14.125 does not apply to amendments to rule chapters in effect on the effective date of this section.

 

Sec. 17.  [241.012] LICENSING ACTIONS AGAINST JUVENILE AND ADULT COMMUNITY-BASED RESIDENTIAL CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES.

 

Subdivision 1.  Correction order; conditional license.  (a) For any local correctional facility under section 241.011, subdivision 2, paragraph (g), the commissioner must:

 

(1) promptly notify the facility administrator and the facility's governing board of a deficiency if the commissioner finds that:

 

(i) the facility does not substantially conform to the minimum standards established by the commissioner and is not making satisfactory progress toward substantial conformance; and

 

(ii) the nonconformance does not present an imminent risk of life-threatening harm or serious physical injury to the individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility; and

 

(2) issue a correction order or a conditional license order requiring that the deficiency be remedied within a reasonable and specified period.

 

(b) A conditional license order may restrict the use of any facility that does not substantially conform to minimum standards, including by:


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(1) imposing conditions limiting operation of the facility or parts of the facility;

 

(2) reducing facility capacity;

 

(3) limiting intake;

 

(4) limiting length of detention or placement for individuals; or

 

(5) imposing detention or placement limitations based on the needs of the detained or housed individuals or individuals served by the facility.

 

(c) A correction order or conditional license order must clearly state:

 

(1) the specific minimum standards violated, noting the implicated rule or statute;

 

(2) the findings that constitute a violation of minimum standards;

 

(3) the corrective action needed;

 

(4) the time allowed to correct each violation; and

 

(5) if a license is made conditional:

 

(i) the length and terms of the conditional license;

 

(ii) any conditions limiting operation of the facility or parts of the facility; and

 

(iii) the reasons for making the license conditional.

 

(d) Nothing in this section prohibits the commissioner from ordering a revocation under subdivision 3 before issuing a correction order or conditional license order.

 

Subd. 2.  Requesting review of conditional license order.  (a) A facility administrator may request that the commissioner review the findings in a conditional license order under subdivision 1 on the grounds that satisfactory progress toward substantial compliance with minimum standards has been made, supported by evidence of correction.  If appropriate, the request may include a written schedule for compliance.

 

(b) Within ten business days of receiving a request, the commissioner must review the evidence of correction and the progress made toward substantial compliance with minimum standards.

 

(c) When the commissioner has assurance that satisfactory progress toward substantial compliance with minimum standards is being made, the commissioner must:

 

(1) modify or lift any conditions limiting operation of the facility or parts of the facility; or

 

(2) remove the conditional license order.

 

Subd. 3.  License revocation order.  (a) After due notice to a facility administrator of the commissioner's intent to issue a revocation order, the commissioner may issue an order revoking a facility's license if the commissioner finds that:


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(1) the facility does not conform to minimum standards or is not making satisfactory progress toward substantial compliance with minimum standards; and

 

(2) the nonconformance does not present an imminent risk of life-threatening harm or serious physical injury to the individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility.

 

(b) The notice of intent to issue a revocation order must include:

 

(1) the citation to minimum standards that have been violated;

 

(2) the nature and severity of each violation;

 

(3) whether the violation is recurring or nonrecurring;

 

(4) the effect of the violation on individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility;

 

(5) an evaluation of the risk of harm to individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility; and

 

(6) relevant facts, conditions, and circumstances related to the facility's operation, including, at a minimum:

 

(i) specific facility deficiencies that endanger the health or safety of individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility;

 

(ii) substantiated complaints relating to the facility; or

 

(iii) any other evidence that the facility is not in compliance with minimum standards.

 

(c) Within 30 days of receiving a notice under paragraph (b), the facility administrator must submit a written response with:

 

(1) any information related to errors in the notice and the facility's ability to conform to minimum standards within a set period, including but not limited to a written schedule for compliance and any other information that the facility administrator deems relevant for the commissioner's consideration; and

 

(2) a written plan:

 

(i) indicating how the facility will ensure the transfer of individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility and records if the facility closes; and

 

(ii) specifying arrangements that the facility will make to transfer individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility to another licensed local correctional facility for continuation of detention.

 

(d) When revoking a license, the commissioner must consider:

 

(1) the nature, chronicity, or severity of the statute or rule violation; and

 

(2) the effect of the violation on the health, safety, or rights of individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility.

 

(e) The commissioner must issue a revocation order if the facility administrator does not respond within 30 days to the notice or if the commissioner does not have assurance that satisfactory progress toward substantial compliance with minimum standards will be made.  The revocation order must be sent to the facility administrator and the facility's governing board, clearly stating:


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(1) the specific minimum standards violated, noting the implicated rule or statute;

 

(2) the findings that constitute a violation of minimum standards and the nature, chronicity, or severity of the violations;

 

(3) the corrective action needed;

 

(4) any prior correction order or conditional license order issued to correct a violation; and

 

(5) the date on which the license revocation will occur.

 

(f) A revocation order may authorize facility use until a certain date, not to exceed the duration of the active license:

 

(1) unless a limited license is issued by the commissioner to effectuate a facility closure; and

 

(2) if continued operation does not present an imminent risk of life-threatening harm or is not likely to result in serious physical injury to the individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility.

 

(g) After a facility's license is revoked, the facility must not be used until the license is reinstated.  When the commissioner is assured that satisfactory progress toward substantial compliance with minimum standards is being made, the commissioner may, at the request of the facility administrator supported by a written schedule for compliance, reinstate the license.

 

Subd. 4.  Reconsideration orders.  (a) If a facility administrator believes that a correction order, conditional license order, or revocation order is in error, the facility administrator may ask the commissioner to reconsider the parts of the order or action that are alleged to be in error.  The request for reconsideration must:

 

(1) be made in writing;

 

(2) be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within 30 calendar days after receiving the order;

 

(3) specify the parts of the order or the action that is alleged to be in error;

 

(4) explain why the order or action is in error; and

 

(5) include documentation to support the allegation of error.

 

(b) The commissioner must issue a disposition within 60 days of receiving the facility administrator's response under paragraph (a).  A request for reconsideration does not stay any provisions or requirements of the order.

 

Subd. 5.  Temporary immediate license suspension.  (a) The commissioner must act immediately to temporarily suspend a license issued under sections 241.011 to 241.013 if:

 

(1) the facility's failure to comply with applicable minimum standards or the conditions in the facility pose an imminent risk of life-threatening harm or serious physical injury to individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility, staff, law enforcement, visitors, or the public and:

 

(i) if the imminent risk of life-threatening harm or serious physical injury cannot be promptly corrected through a different type of order under this section; and


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(ii) the facility cannot or has not corrected the violation giving rise to the imminent risk of life-threatening harm or serious physical injury; or

 

(2) while the facility continues to operate pending due notice and opportunity for written response to the commissioner's notice of intent to issue a revocation order under subdivision 3, the commissioner identifies one or more subsequent violations of minimum standards that may adversely affect the health or safety of individuals detained or housed in or served by the facility, staff, law enforcement, visitors, or the public.

 

(b) A notice stating the reasons for the temporary immediate suspension must be delivered by personal service to the facility administrator and the facility's governing board.

 

(c) A facility administrator and the facility's governing board must discontinue operating the facility upon receiving the commissioner's order to immediately suspend the license.

 

Subd. 6.  Requesting reconsideration of temporary immediate suspension.  (a) A facility administrator may request reconsideration of an order immediately suspending a license.  The request for reconsideration must be made in writing and sent by certified mail or personal service as follows:

 

(1) if mailed, the request for reconsideration must be postmarked and sent to the commissioner within five business days after the facility administrator receives notice that the license has been immediately suspended; and

 

(2) if a request is made by personal service, the request must be received by the commissioner within five business days after the facility administrator received the order.

 

(b) The request for reconsideration must:

 

(1) specify the parts of the order that are alleged to be in error;

 

(2) explain why they are in error; and

 

(3) include documentation to support the allegation of error.

 

(c) Within five business days of receiving the facility administrator's timely request for reconsideration, the commissioner must review the request.  For a review under subdivision 5, paragraph (a), clause (2), the review must be limited solely to whether the temporary immediate suspension order should remain in effect pending the written response to the commissioner's notice of intent to issue a revocation order.

 

Subd. 7.  Appealing commissioner's reconsideration request.  (a) The commissioner's disposition of a request for reconsideration of a correction, conditional license, temporary immediate suspension, or revocation order is final and subject to appeal.  Before a facility administrator may request an appeal under paragraph (b), the facility administrator must request reconsideration according to this section of any correction, conditional license, temporary immediate suspension, or revocation order.

 

(b) Within 60 days after the postmark date of the mailed notice of the commissioner's decision on a request for reconsideration, the facility administrator may appeal the decision by filing for a writ of certiorari with the court of appeals under section 606.01 and Minnesota Rules of Civil Appellate Procedure, Rule 115.

 

Subd. 8.  Public notice of restriction, revocation, or suspension.  If a facility's license is revoked or suspended under this section, a facility's use is restricted for any reason under a conditional license order, or a correction order is issued to a facility, the commissioner must publicly post the following information on the department's website:


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(1) the facility name;

 

(2) the status of the facility's license;

 

(3) the reason for the correction order, restriction, revocation, or suspension; and

 

(4) any subsequent findings by the commissioner identifying satisfactory progress toward substantial compliance with minimum standards.

 

Sec. 18.  [241.013] LICENSING AND INSPECTING LOCAL JUVENILE CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES.

 

Subdivision 1.  Scope.  This section applies to local juvenile correctional facilities under section 241.011, subdivision 2, paragraph (g), licensed by the commissioner of corrections to detain or serve juveniles, including those providing residential or foster care facility placements under chapter 260C.

 

Subd. 2.  Facilities for children and youth; inspection and licensing.  (a) Notwithstanding any provisions in sections 245A.03; 245A.04; and 256.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (2); and chapter 245C to the contrary, the commissioner must inspect all local juvenile correctional facilities under section 241.011, subdivision 3, except as provided under paragraph (c).

 

(b) The commissioner must grant a license for up to two years to a county, municipality, or facility:

 

(1) according to section 241.011, subdivision 5; and

 

(2) if the commissioner is satisfied that the interests and well-being of children and youth are protected.

 

(c) For local juvenile correctional facilities licensed by the commissioner of human services, the commissioner of corrections may inspect and certify programs based on certification standards under Minnesota Rules.  For purposes of this paragraph, "certification" has the meaning given in section 245A.02.

 

Subd. 3.  Commissioner consultation.  Local juvenile correctional facilities must consult with the commissioner as needed to strengthen services to children and youth.

 

Subd. 4.  Affected municipality; notice.  (a) The commissioner must not grant a license to a local juvenile correctional facility without giving 30 calendar days' written notice to any affected municipality or other political subdivision unless the facility:

 

(1) has a licensed capacity of six or fewer individuals; and

 

(2) is occupied by either the licensee or a group foster home parent.

 

(b) The notification must be given before the license is first granted and annually thereafter if annual notification is requested in writing by the affected municipality or other political subdivision.

 

(c) State funds must not be made available to or be spent by an agency or department of state, county, or municipal government for payment to a foster care facility licensed under this section until the requirements under this subdivision have been met.

 

Subd. 5.  Licensing with juveniles from outside state.  The commissioner must not issue or renew a license to a facility under this section to operate a local juvenile correctional facility if:


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(1) the facility accepts juveniles who reside outside Minnesota; and

 

(2) there is no agreement with the entity placing the juvenile at the facility that obligates the entity to pay the juvenile's educational expenses.

 

Subd. 6.  Licensing actions.  The licensing actions under section 241.012 apply to a facility licensed under this section.

 

Subd. 7.  Education for juveniles.  Notwithstanding subdivision 1, the education program offered in a state or local correctional facility for the placement, confinement, or incarceration of juveniles must be approved by the commissioner of education before the commissioner of corrections may grant a license to the facility.

 

Subd. 8.  Rulemaking.  (a) The commissioner must adopt rules for local juvenile correctional facilities according to Laws 1995, chapter 226, article 3, sections 50, 51, and 60, as amended.

 

(b) The time limit to adopt rules under section 14.125 does not apply to amendments to Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, in effect on the effective date of this section.

 

Sec. 19.  [241.014] SECURITY AUDITS FOR STATE CORRECTIONAL FACILITIES.

 

Subdivision 1.  Purpose.  This section applies to state correctional facilities.

 

Subd. 2.  Definitions.  (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.

 

(b) "Audit group" means the state correctional facilities security audit group under subdivision 5.

 

(c) "Corrections and detention confidential data" has the meaning given in section 13.85, subdivision 3.

 

(d) "Security information" has the meaning given in section 13.37, subdivision 1.

 

Subd. 3.  Biennial report and audit of security practices.  The department's inspection unit must conduct biennial security audits of each state correctional facility using the standards established by the audit group.  The inspection unit must:

 

(1) prepare a report for each audit; and

 

(2) submit the report to the audit group within 30 days of completing the audit.

 

Subd. 4.  Data.  (a) Corrections and detention confidential data and security information contained in reports and records of the audit group:

 

(1) must maintain that classification, regardless of the data's classification in the hands of the person who provided the data; and

 

(2) are not subject to discovery or introduction into evidence in a civil or criminal action against the state arising out of any matter that the audit group is reviewing.

 

(b) Information, documents, and records otherwise available from other sources are not immune from discovery or use in a civil or criminal action solely because the information, documents, and records were acquired during an audit.


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(c) Nothing in this subdivision limits a person who presented information to the audit group or who is an audit group member from testifying about matters within the person's knowledge.  In a civil or criminal proceeding, a person must not be questioned about the person's good faith presentation of information to the audit group or opinions formed by the person as a result of an audit.

 

Subd. 5.  State correctional facilities security audit group.  (a) The commissioner must form a state correctional facilities security audit group.  The audit group must consist of the following members:

 

(1) a department employee who is not assigned to the correctional institutions division, appointed by the commissioner;

 

(2) the ombudsperson for corrections or a designee;

 

(3) an elected sheriff or designee nominated by the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association, appointed by the commissioner;

 

(4) an individual with expertise in security related to infrastructure and operational logistics of correctional facilities who is not required to reside in Minnesota, appointed by the governor;

 

(5) the commissioner of health or a designee;

 

(6) the commissioner of administration or a designee;

 

(7) two senators, one appointed by the senate majority leader and one appointed by the senate minority leader; and

 

(8) two representatives, one appointed by the speaker of the house and one appointed by the minority leader of the house of representatives.

 

(b) The ombudsperson chairs the audit group.  The audit group must establish security audit standards for state correctional facilities.  In developing the standards, the audit group, or individual members of the audit group, may gather information from state correctional facilities and state correctional staff and inmates.  The audit group must:

 

(1) periodically review and modify the standards as needed; and

 

(2) report the standards to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives and senate committees with jurisdiction over public safety policy and finance when the standards are modified.

 

(c) The audit group must meet twice annually to review facility audit reports submitted to the audit group by the department's inspection unit.  Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the audit group may review the full audit reports, including but not limited to corrections and detention confidential data and security information.

 

(d) Within 60 days of meeting to review an audit report from the department's inspection unit, the audit group must make recommendations to the commissioner.  Within 45 days of receiving the audit group's recommendations, the commissioner must respond in writing to the audit group's findings and recommendations.  The commissioner's response must explain:

 

(1) whether the commissioner will implement the audit group's recommendations;

 

(2) the timeline for implementing the recommendations; and


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(3) if the commissioner will not implement the recommendations, why the commissioner will not or cannot implement the recommendations.

 

(e) The commissioner must include a written aggregate of the audit group's recommendations based on each security audit and assessment of a state correctional facility and the commissioner's responses to the recommendations in the biennial report under section 241.016, subdivision 1.  The commissioner must not include corrections and detention confidential data and security information in the commissioner's report.

 

(f) The commissioner must provide staffing and administrative support to the audit group.

 

Subd. 6.  Compensation.  Except as otherwise provided in this subdivision, the terms, compensation, and removal of audit group members are governed by section 15.059.  Audit group members serve without compensation but may receive expense reimbursement.

 

Subd. 7.  Expiration.  Notwithstanding section 15.059, subdivision 6, the audit group does not expire.

 

Subd. 8.  Open meeting law.  The audit group is not subject to chapter 13D.

 

Sec. 20.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 241.021, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Correctional facilities; inspection; licensing.  (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), The commissioner of corrections shall inspect and license all correctional facilities throughout the state jails and lockups under chapters 641 and 642, whether public or private, established and operated for the detention and confinement of persons confined or incarcerated therein according to law except to the extent that they are inspected or licensed by other state regulating agencies.  The commissioner shall promulgate pursuant to chapter 14, rules establishing minimum standards for these facilities with respect to their management, operation, physical condition, and the security, safety, health, treatment, and discipline of persons confined or incarcerated therein.  These minimum standards shall include but are not limited to specific guidance pertaining to:

 

(1) screening, appraisal, assessment, and treatment for persons confined or incarcerated in correctional facilities with mental illness or substance use disorders;

 

(2) a policy on the involuntary administration of medications, including a process for determining on intake whether a Jarvis Order is in place and ensuring it will be followed during the confinement or incarceration;

 

(3) suicide prevention plans and training;

 

(4) verification of medications in a timely manner;

 

(5) well-being checks;

 

(6) discharge planning, including providing prescribed medications to persons confined or incarcerated in correctional facilities upon release;

 

(7) a policy on referrals or transfers to medical or mental health care in a noncorrectional institution;

 

(8) use of segregation and mental health checks;

 

(9) critical incident debriefings;

 

(10) clinical management of substance use disorders and opioid overdose emergency procedures;


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(11) a policy regarding identification of persons with special needs confined or incarcerated in correctional facilities;

 

(12) a policy regarding the use of telehealth;

 

(13) self-auditing of compliance with minimum standards;

 

(14) information sharing with medical personnel and when medical assessment must be facilitated;

 

(15) a code of conduct policy for facility staff and annual training;

 

(16) a policy on death review of all circumstances surrounding the death of an individual committed to the custody of the facility; and

 

(17) dissemination of a rights statement made available to persons confined or incarcerated in licensed correctional facilities.

 

No individual, corporation, partnership, voluntary association, or other private organization legally responsible for the operation of a correctional facility may operate the facility unless it possesses a current license from the commissioner of corrections.  Private adult correctional facilities shall have the authority of section 624.714, subdivision 13, if the Department of Corrections licenses the facility with the authority and the facility meets requirements of section 243.52.

 

The commissioner shall review the correctional facilities described in this subdivision at least once every two years, except as otherwise provided, to determine compliance with the minimum standards established according to this subdivision or other Minnesota statute related to minimum standards and conditions of confinement.

 

The commissioner shall grant a license to any facility found to conform to minimum standards or to any facility which, in the commissioner's judgment, is making satisfactory progress toward substantial conformity and the standards not being met do not impact the interests and well-being of the persons confined or incarcerated in the facility.  A limited license under subdivision 1a may be issued for purposes of effectuating a facility closure.  The commissioner may grant licensure up to two years.  Unless otherwise specified by statute, all licenses issued under this chapter expire at 12:01 a.m. on the day after the expiration date stated on the license.

 

The commissioner shall have access to the buildings, grounds, books, records, staff, and to persons confined or incarcerated in these facilities.  The commissioner may require the officers in charge of these facilities to furnish all information and statistics the commissioner deems necessary, at a time and place designated by the commissioner.  Notwithstanding chapter 13 or any other state law classifying or restricting access to data, the officers in charge of these facilities must furnish all data available to the facility that the commissioner deems necessary to conduct a review of any emergency or unusual occurrence at the facility.  Failure to provide or grant access to relevant information or statistics necessary to fulfill inspection or emergency or unusual occurrence reviews, as requested by the commissioner, may be grounds for the commissioner to take action against a correctional facility's license under subdivision 1a, 1b, or 1c.

 

All facility administrators of correctional facilities are required to report all deaths of individuals who died while committed to the custody of the facility, regardless of whether the death occurred at the facility or after removal from the facility for medical care stemming from an incident or need for medical care at the correctional facility, as soon as practicable, but no later than 24 hours of receiving knowledge of the death, including any demographic information as required by the commissioner.


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All facility administrators of correctional facilities are required to report all other emergency or unusual occurrences as defined by rule, including uses of force by facility staff that result in substantial bodily harm or suicide attempts, to the commissioner of corrections within ten days from the occurrence, including any demographic information as required by the commissioner.  The commissioner of corrections shall consult with the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association and a representative from the Minnesota Association of Community Corrections Act Counties who is responsible for the operations of an adult correctional facility to define "use of force" that results in substantial bodily harm for reporting purposes.

 

The commissioner may require that any or all such information be provided through the Department of Corrections detention information system.  The commissioner shall post each inspection report publicly and on the department's website within 30 days of completing the inspection.  The education program offered in a correctional facility for the confinement or incarceration of juvenile offenders must be approved by the commissioner of education before the commissioner of corrections may grant a license to the facility.

 

(b) For juvenile facilities licensed by the commissioner of human services, the commissioner may inspect and certify programs based on certification standards set forth in Minnesota Rules.  For the purpose of this paragraph, "certification" has the meaning given it in section 245A.02.

 

(c) (b) Any state agency which regulates, inspects, or licenses certain aspects of correctional facilities shall, insofar as is possible, ensure that the minimum standards it requires are substantially the same as those required by other state agencies which regulate, inspect, or license the same aspects of similar types of correctional facilities, although at different correctional facilities.

 

(d) (c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the commissioner of corrections' authority to promulgate rules establishing standards of eligibility for counties to receive funds under chapter 401, or to require counties to comply with operating standards the commissioner establishes as a condition precedent for counties to receive that funding.

 

(e) (d) The department's inspection unit must report directly to a division head outside of the correctional institutions division.

 

Sec. 21.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.021, subdivision 1f, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 1f.  Report.  By February 15, 2022, and by February 15 each year thereafter, the commissioner of corrections shall report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the house of representatives and senate committees and divisions with jurisdiction over public safety and judiciary on the status of the implementation of the provisions in this section sections 241.011 to 241.021 over the prior year, particularly the health and safety of individuals confined or incarcerated in a local adult correctional facilities under this section, local correctional facilities under section 241.011, and state correctional facility and a facility licensed by the commissioner facilities.  This report shall include but not be limited to data regarding:

 

(1) the number of confined or incarcerated persons who died while committed to the custody of the facility, regardless of whether the death occurred at the facility or after removal from the facility for medical care stemming from an incident or need for medical care at the correctional facility, including aggregated demographic information and the correctional facilities' most recent inspection reports and any corrective orders or conditional licenses issued, revocations, or temporary immediate suspensions;

 

(2) the aggregated results of the death reviews by facility as required by subdivision 8 or section 241.011, subdivision 8, including any implemented policy changes;


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(3) the number of uses of force by facility staff on persons confined or incarcerated in the correctional facility, including but not limited to whether those uses of force were determined to be justified by the facility, for which the commissioner of corrections shall consult with the Minnesota Sheriffs' Association and a representative from the Minnesota Association of Community Corrections Act Counties who is responsible for the operations of an adult correctional facility to develop criteria for reporting and define reportable uses of force;

 

(4) the number of suicide attempts, number of people transported to a medical facility, and number of people placed in segregation;

 

(5) the number of persons committed to the commissioner of corrections' custody that the commissioner is housing in facilities licensed under subdivision 1 and section 241.011, including but not limited to:

 

(i) aggregated demographic data of those individuals;

 

(ii) length of time spent housed in a licensed correctional facility; and

 

(iii) any contracts the Department of Corrections has with correctional facilities to provide housing; and

 

(6) summary data from state correctional facilities regarding complaints involving alleged on-duty staff misconduct, including but not limited to the:

 

(i) total number of misconduct complaints and investigations;

 

(ii) total number of complaints by each category of misconduct, as defined by the commissioner of corrections;

 

(iii) number of allegations dismissed as unfounded;

 

(iv) number of allegations dismissed on grounds that the allegation was unsubstantiated; and

 

(v) number of allegations substantiated, any resulting disciplinary action, and the nature of the discipline.

 

Sec. 22.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.021, subdivision 1i, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 1i.  Definition.  As used in this section, "correctional facility" means any facility, including a group home, having a residential component, the primary purpose of which is to serve persons placed in facilities by a court, court services department, parole authority, or other correctional agency having dispositional power over persons charged with, convicted, or adjudicated guilty or delinquent jail or lockup under chapter 641 or 642.

 

Sec. 23.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.021, subdivision 4a, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4a.  Substance use disorder treatment programs.  All residential substance use disorder treatment programs operated by the commissioner of corrections to treat adults individuals committed to the commissioner's custody shall or to treat juveniles in state-operated juvenile correctional facilities that have a correctional program services certification per Minnesota Rules, chapter 2960, must comply with the standards mandated in chapter 245G for treatment programs operated by community-based treatment facilities.  When the commissioners of corrections and human services agree that these established standards for community-based programs cannot reasonably apply to correctional facilities, alternative equivalent standards shall be developed by the commissioners and established through an interagency agreement.

 

Sec. 24.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.69, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Authority; rules.  The commissioner of corrections shall, in accordance with applicable rules and standards prescribed by the Department of Human Services, establish, staff, equip, maintain, and operate in at least one of the adult correctional institutions under the commissioner's control a mental health unit for the care and treatment of those inmates of state correctional institutions who become mentally ill.


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Sec. 25.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.69, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  Transfer.  If the licensed mental health professional finds the person to be a person who is mentally ill and in need of short-term care, assessment, evaluation, or stabilization, the licensed mental health professional may recommend transfer by the commissioner of corrections to the a mental health unit established pursuant to subdivision 1.

 

Sec. 26.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.69, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4.  Commitment.  If the licensed mental health professional finds the person to be a person who is mentally ill and in need of long-term care in a hospital, or if an inmate transferred pursuant to subdivision 3 refuses to voluntarily participate in the treatment program at the mental health unit, the director of psychological services of the institution or the mental health professional shall initiate proceedings for judicial commitment as provided in section 253B.07.  Upon the recommendation of the licensed mental health professional and upon completion of the hearing and consideration of the record, the court may commit the person to the a mental health unit established in subdivision 1 or to another hospital.  A person confined in a state correctional institution for adults who has been adjudicated to be a person who is mentally ill and in need of treatment may be committed to the commissioner of corrections and placed in the a mental health unit established in subdivision 1.

 

Sec. 27.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.69, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 5.  Discharge.  The director of psychological services of the a mental health unit established under this section may, subject to the provisions of chapter 253B, provisionally discharge any inmate patient admitted as a person who is mentally ill without discharging the commitment and order the inmate patient's release into the general population of the institution from which admitted, subject to return to the facility for further treatment.

 

When the director of psychological services of the facility certifies that a patient is no longer in need of institutional care for mental illness the director of psychological services shall discharge the patient to the institution from which committed, and the discharge shall also discharge the mental illness commitment.

 

A copy of the certification that the inmate is no longer in need of care for mental illness shall be transmitted to the commissioner of corrections.  The commissioner of corrections shall give serious consideration to the aforementioned certification for purposes of their supervision over the inmate upon the inmate's release.

 

Sec. 28.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 241.69, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Transfer upon expiration of sentence.  If the sentence of a person who has been adjudicated to be mentally ill and committed to the a mental health unit established under this section should expire before the person recovers and is discharged therefrom, and, in the judgment of the director of psychological services of the unit, the person requires further hospitalization for mental illness, the person shall be transferred by the commissioner of corrections to a state hospital designated by the Direct Care and Treatment executive board, there to be detained as in the case of other mentally ill persons under judicial commitment.

 

Sec. 29.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 244.46, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Adopting policy for earned compliance credit; supervision abatement status.  (a) The commissioner must adopt a policy providing for earned compliance credit and supervision abatement status, including the circumstances under which an individual may receive earned compliance credits and transition to supervision abatement status.  The policy must include consideration of an individual's effort to pay restitution, to the extent known to the supervising agency, and must provide that an individual who has the ability to pay restitution but engages in willful nonpayment is not eligible to transition to supervision abatement status.


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(b) Except as otherwise provided in the act, once the time served on active supervision plus earned compliance credits equals the total length of the supervised release term or, if applicable, the aggregate length of the supervised release term and conditional release term, the individual is eligible for supervision abatement status.  However, the commissioner must not place the individual on supervision abatement status for the remainder of the supervised or conditional release term if the commissioner determines that doing so would present a risk to public safety, after weighing factors including the individual's stability, behavior, or overall adjustment while on supervision.  For individuals with lifetime terms of conditional release, the commissioner shall not place the individual on supervision abatement status unless the time served on active supervision plus earned compliance credits equals at least ten years.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective September 1, 2026.

 

Sec. 30.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256D.02, subdivision 12a, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 12a.  Resident.  (a) For purposes of eligibility for general assistance, a person must be a resident of this state.

 

(b) A "resident" is a person living in the state for at least 30 days with the intention of making the person's home here and not for any temporary purpose.  Time spent in a shelter for battered women domestic abuse victims shall count toward satisfying the 30-day residency requirement.  All applicants for these programs are required to demonstrate the requisite intent and can do so in any of the following ways:

 

(1) by showing that the applicant maintains a residence at a verified address, other than a place of public accommodation.  An applicant may verify a residence address by presenting a valid state driver's license, a state identification card, a voter registration card, a rent receipt, a statement by the landlord, apartment manager, or homeowner verifying that the individual is residing at the address, or other form of verification approved by the commissioner; or

 

(2) by verifying residence according to Minnesota Rules, part 9500.1219, subpart 3, item C.

 

(c) For general assistance, a county shall waive the 30-day residency requirement where unusual hardship would result from denial of general assistance.  For purposes of this subdivision, "unusual hardship" means the applicant is without shelter or is without available resources for food.

 

The county agency must report to the commissioner within 30 days on any waiver granted under this section.  The county shall not deny an application solely because the applicant does not meet at least one of the criteria in this subdivision, but shall continue to process the application and leave the application pending until the residency requirement is met or until eligibility or ineligibility is established.

 

(d) For purposes of paragraph (c), the following definitions apply (1) "metropolitan statistical area" is as defined by the United States Census Bureau; (2) "shelter" includes any shelter that is located within the metropolitan statistical area containing the county and for which the applicant is eligible, provided the applicant does not have to travel more than 20 miles to reach the shelter and has access to transportation to the shelter.  Clause (2) does not apply to counties in the Minneapolis-St. Paul metropolitan statistical area.

 

(e) Migrant workers as defined in section 142G.02 are exempt from the residency requirements of this section, provided the migrant worker provides verification that the migrant family worked in this state within the last 12 months and earned at least $1,000 in gross wages during the time the migrant worker worked in this state.

 

(f) For purposes of eligibility for emergency general assistance, the 30-day residency requirement under this section shall not be waived.


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(g) If any provision of this subdivision is enjoined from implementation or found unconstitutional by any court of competent jurisdiction, the remaining provisions shall remain valid and shall be given full effect.

 

Sec. 31.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256G.02, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Excluded time.  "Excluded time" means:

 

(1) any period an applicant spends in a hospital, sanitarium, nursing home, shelter other than an emergency shelter, halfway house, foster home, community residential setting licensed under chapter 245D, semi-independent living domicile or services program, residential facility offering care, board and lodging facility or other institution for the hospitalization or care of human beings, as defined in section 144.50, 144A.01, or 245A.02, subdivision 14; maternity home, battered women's shelter for domestic abuse victims, or correctional facility; or any facility based on an emergency hold under section 253B.05, subdivisions 1 and 2;

 

(2) any period an applicant spends on a placement basis in a training and habilitation program, including:  a rehabilitation facility or work or employment program as defined in section 268A.01; semi-independent living services provided under section 252.275, and chapter 245D; or day training and habilitation programs;

 

(3) any period an applicant is receiving assisted living services, integrated community supports, or day support services; and

 

(4) any placement for a person with an indeterminate commitment, including independent living.

 

Sec. 32.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256G.03, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  No durational test.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 142G.12; 142G.78; 256B.056, subdivision 1; and 256D.02, subdivision 12a, for purposes of this chapter, no waiting period is required before securing county or state residence.  A person cannot, however, gain residence while physically present in an excluded time facility unless otherwise specified in this chapter or in a federal regulation controlling a federally funded human service; children, youth, and families; or direct care and treatment program.  Interstate migrants who enter a shelter for battered women domestic abuse victims directly from another state can gain residency while in the facility provided the person can provide documentation that the person is a victim of domestic abuse and the county determines that the placement is appropriate.

 

Sec. 33.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 257.75, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Paternity educational materials.  The commissioner of children, youth, and families shall prepare educational materials for new and prospective parents that describe the benefits and effects of establishing paternity.  The materials must include a description and comparison of the procedures for establishment of paternity through a recognition of parentage under this section and an adjudication of paternity under sections 257.51 to 257.74.  The commissioner shall consider the use of innovative audio or visual approaches to the presentation of the materials to facilitate understanding and presentation.  In preparing the materials, the commissioner shall consult with child advocates and support workers, battered women's advocates and advocates for domestic abuse victims, social service providers, educators, attorneys, hospital representatives, and people who work with parents in making decisions related to paternity.  The commissioner shall consult with representatives of communities of color.  On and after January 1, 1994, the commissioner shall make the materials available without cost to hospitals, requesting agencies, and other persons for distribution to new parents.


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Sec. 34.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260E.02, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Establishment of team.  A county shall establish a multidisciplinary child protection team that may include but is not limited to the director of the local welfare agency or designees, the county attorney or designees, the county sheriff or designees, representatives of health and education, representatives of mental health, representatives of agencies providing specialized services or responding to youth who experience or are at risk of experiencing sex or labor trafficking or sexual exploitation, or other appropriate human services, children's services, or community-based agencies, and parent groups.  As used in this section, a "community-based agency" may include, but is not limited to, schools, social services agencies, family service and mental health collaboratives, children's advocacy centers, early childhood and family education programs, Head Start, or other agencies serving children and families.  A member of the team must be designated as the lead person of the team responsible for the planning process to develop standards for the team's activities with battered women's and domestic abuse programs and services.

 

Sec. 35.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299A.85, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4.  Duties.  (a) The office has the following duties:

 

(1) advocate in the legislature for legislation that will facilitate the accomplishment of the mandates identified in the Missing and Murdered Indigenous Women Task Force report;

 

(2) advocate for state agencies to take actions to facilitate the accomplishment of the mandates identified in the Missing and Murdered Indigenous Women Task Force report;

 

(3) develop recommendations for legislative and agency actions to address injustice in the criminal justice system's response to the cases of missing and murdered Indigenous relatives;

 

(4) facilitate research to refine the mandates in the Missing and Murdered Indigenous Women Task Force report and to assess the potential efficacy, feasibility, and impact of the recommendations;

 

(5) develop tools and processes to evaluate the implementation and impact of the efforts of the office;

 

(6) track and collect Minnesota data on missing and murdered indigenous women, children, and relatives, and provide statistics upon public or legislative inquiry;

 

(7) facilitate technical assistance for local and Tribal law enforcement agencies during active missing and murdered Indigenous relatives cases;

 

(8) conduct case reviews and report on the results of case reviews for the following types of missing and murdered Indigenous relatives cases:  cold cases for missing Indigenous people and death investigation review for cases of Indigenous people ruled as suicide or overdose under suspicious circumstances;

 

(9) conduct case reviews of the prosecution and sentencing for cases where a perpetrator committed a violent or exploitative crime against an Indigenous person.  These case reviews should identify those cases where the perpetrator is a repeat offender;

 

(10) prepare draft legislation as necessary to allow the office access to the data required for the office to conduct the reviews required in this section and advocate for passage of that legislation;

 

(11) review sentencing guidelines for missing and murdered Indigenous women-related crimes, recommend changes if needed, and advocate for consistent implementation of the guidelines across Minnesota courts;


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(12) develop and maintain communication with relevant divisions in the Department of Public Safety regarding any cases involving missing and murdered Indigenous relatives and on procedures for investigating cases involving missing and murdered Indigenous relatives; and

 

(13) coordinate, as relevant, with the Bureau of Indian Affairs' Cold Case Office through Operation Lady Justice and other federal efforts, as well as efforts in neighboring states and Canada.  This recommendation pertains to state efforts.  Tribes are sovereign nations that have the right to determine if and how they will coordinate with these other efforts.; and

 

(14) provide case support to victims and families of missing or murdered Indigenous relatives or their designated family representative or the reporting person.  Case support includes but is not limited to providing support and guidance during the law enforcement investigation; facilitating communication with criminal justice agencies and other government entities; compiling relevant information about ongoing cases; and providing information, referrals, and other types of support.

 

(b) As used in this subdivision:

 

(1) "reporting person" means the relative or nonrelative person who completed a case intake form with the office; and

 

(2) "victim" has the meaning given in section 611A.01.

 

(c) Data created, collected, received, stored, used, or maintained by the office related to paragraph (a), clause (14), are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12.

 

Sec. 36.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299A.90, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  Duties.  (a) The office has the following duties:

 

(1) advocate in the legislature for legislation that will facilitate the accomplishment of mandates identified in the report of the Task Force on Missing and Murdered African American Women;

 

(2) advocate for state agencies to take actions to facilitate the accomplishment of mandates identified in the report of the Task Force on Missing and Murdered African American Women;

 

(3) develop recommendations for legislative and agency actions to address injustice in the criminal justice system's response to cases of missing and murdered Black women and girls;

 

(4) facilitate research to refine the mandates in the report of the Task Force on Missing and Murdered African American Women and to assess the potential efficacy, feasibility, and impact of the recommendations;

 

(5) collect data on missing person and homicide cases involving Black women and girls, including the total number of cases, the rate at which the cases are solved, the length of time the cases remain open, and a comparison to similar cases involving different demographic groups;

 

(6) collect data on Amber Alerts, including the total number of Amber Alerts issued, the total number of Amber Alerts that involve Black girls, and the outcome of cases involving Amber Alerts disaggregated by the child's race and sex;

 

(7) collect data on reports of missing Black girls, including the number classified as voluntary runaways, and a comparison to similar cases involving different demographic groups;


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(8) analyze and assess the intersection between cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls and labor trafficking and sex trafficking;

 

(9) develop recommendations for legislative, agency, and community actions to address the intersection between cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls and labor trafficking and sex trafficking;

 

(10) analyze and assess the intersection between cases involving murdered Black women and girls and domestic violence, including prior instances of domestic violence within the family or relationship, whether an offender had prior convictions for domestic assault or related offenses, and whether the offender used a firearm in the murder or any prior instances of domestic assault;

 

(11) develop recommendations for legislative, agency, and community actions to address the intersection between cases involving murdered Black women and girls and domestic violence;

 

(12) develop tools and processes to evaluate the implementation and impact of the efforts of the office;

 

(13) track and collect Minnesota data on missing and murdered Black women and girls, and provide statistics upon public or legislative inquiry;

 

(14) facilitate technical assistance for local and Tribal law enforcement agencies during active cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls;

 

(15) conduct case reviews and report on the results of case reviews for the following types of cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls:  cold cases for missing Black women and girls and death investigation review for cases of Black women and girls ruled as suicide or overdose under suspicious circumstances;

 

(16) conduct case reviews of the prosecution and sentencing for cases where a perpetrator committed a violent or exploitative crime against a Black woman or girl.  These case reviews must identify those cases where the perpetrator is a repeat offender;

 

(17) prepare draft legislation as necessary to allow the office access to the data necessary for the office to conduct the reviews required in this section and advocate for passage of that legislation;

 

(18) review sentencing guidelines for crimes related to missing and murdered Black women and girls, recommend changes if needed, and advocate for consistent implementation of the guidelines across Minnesota courts;

 

(19) develop and maintain communication with relevant divisions in the Department of Public Safety, including but not limited to the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, regarding any cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls and on procedures for investigating cases involving missing and murdered Black women and girls;

 

(20) consult with the Council for Minnesotans of African Heritage established in section 15.0145; and

 

(21) coordinate, as relevant, with federal efforts, and efforts in neighboring states and Canada.; and

 

(22) provide case support to victims and families of missing or murdered Black women and girls or their designated family representative or the reporting person.  Case support includes but is not limited to providing support and guidance during the law enforcement investigation; facilitating communication with criminal justice agencies and other government entities; compiling relevant information about ongoing cases; and providing information, referrals, and other types of support.


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(b) As used in this subdivision:

 

(1) "labor trafficking" has the meaning given in section 609.281, subdivision 5; and

 

(2) "reporting person" means the relative or nonrelative person who completed a case intake form with the office;

 

(2) (3) "sex trafficking" has the meaning given in section 609.321, subdivision 7a.; and

 

(4) "victim" has the meaning given in section 611A.01.

 

(c) Data created, collected, received, stored, used, or maintained by the office related to paragraph (a), clause (22), are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12.

 

Sec. 37.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.05, is amended to read:

 

299C.05 CRIME DATA COLLECTION.

 

It shall be the duty of this division to collect, and preserve as a record of the bureau, information concerning the number and nature of offenses known to have been committed in the state, of the legal steps taken in connection therewith from the inception of the complaint to the final discharge of the defendant, and such other information as may be useful in the study of crime and the administration of justice.  The information shall be provided in a form prescribed by the superintendent.  The information so collected and preserved shall include such data as may be requested by the United States Department of Justice, at Washington, under its national system of crime reporting.  To the extent possible, the superintendent must utilize a nationally recognized system or standard approved by the Federal Bureau of Investigation to collect and preserve crime data.

 

Sec. 38.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.065, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Grants Reimbursements.  The commissioner of public safety shall make grants reimbursements to local officials for the following purposes:

 

(1) the cooperative investigation of cross jurisdictional criminal activity relating to the possession and sale of controlled substances;

 

(2) receiving or selling stolen goods;

 

(3) participating in gambling activities in violation of section 609.76;

 

(4) violations of section 609.322 or any other state or federal law prohibiting the recruitment, transportation, or use of juveniles for purposes of prostitution;

 

(5) for partial reimbursement of local costs associated with unanticipated, intensive, long-term, multijurisdictional criminal investigations that exhaust available local resources, except that the commissioner may not reimburse the costs of a local investigation involving a child who is reported to be missing and endangered unless the law enforcement agency complies with section 299C.53 and the agency's own investigative policy; and

 

(6) for partial reimbursement of local costs associated with criminal investigations into the activities of violent criminal gangs and gang members.


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Sec. 39.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.065, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 1a.  Witness and victim protection fund.  (a) A witness and victim protection fund is created under the administration of the commissioner of public safety.  The commissioner may make grants reimbursements to local officials to provide for the relocation or other protection of a victim, witness, or potential witness who is involved in a criminal prosecution and who the commissioner has reason to believe is or is likely to be the target of a violent crime or a violation of section 609.498 or 609.713, in connection with that prosecution.  The awarding of grants reimbursements under this subdivision is not limited to the crimes and investigations described in subdivision 1.

 

(b) The commissioner may award grants reimbursements for any of the following actions in connection with the protection of a witness or victim under this subdivision:

 

(1) to provide suitable documents to enable the person to establish a new identity or otherwise protect the person;

 

(2) to provide housing for the person;

 

(3) to provide for the transportation of household furniture and other personal property to the person's new residence;

 

(4) to provide the person with a payment to meet basic living expenses for a time period the commissioner deems necessary;

 

(5) to assist the person in obtaining employment; and

 

(6) to provide other services necessary to assist the person in becoming self-sustaining.

 

Sec. 40.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.065, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Application for grant reimbursement.  A county sheriff or the chief administrative officer of a municipal police department may apply to the commissioner of public safety for a grant reimbursement for any of the purposes described in subdivision 1 or 1a, on forms and pursuant to procedures developed by the superintendent.  For grants reimbursements under subdivision 1, the application shall describe the type of intended criminal investigation, an estimate of the amount of money required, and any other information the superintendent deems necessary.

 

Sec. 41.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.065, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  Investigation report.  A report shall be made to the commissioner at the conclusion of an investigation for which a grant reimbursement was made under subdivision 1 stating (1) the number of persons arrested, (2) the nature of charges filed against them, (3) the nature and value of controlled substances or contraband purchased or seized, (4) the amount of money paid to informants during the investigation, and (5) a separate accounting of the amount of money spent for expenses, other than "buy money," of bureau and local law enforcement personnel during the investigation.  The commissioner shall prepare and submit to the chairs of the committees in the senate and house of representatives with jurisdiction over criminal justice policy by January 1 of each even-numbered year a report of investigations receiving grants reimbursements under subdivision 1.

 

Sec. 42.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.065, subdivision 3a, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3a.  Accounting report.  The head of a law enforcement agency that receives a grant reimbursement under subdivision 1a shall file a report with the commissioner at the conclusion of the case detailing the specific purposes for which the money was spent.  The commissioner shall prepare and submit to the chairs of the committees in the senate and house of representatives with jurisdiction over criminal justice policy by January 1 of each even-numbered year a summary report of witness assistance services provided under this section.


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Sec. 43.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299C.46, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Orders for protection; no contact orders; harassment restraining orders.  (a) As used in this subdivision, "no contact orders" include orders issued as pretrial orders under section 629.72, subdivision 2, orders under section 629.75, and orders issued as probationary or sentencing orders at the time of disposition in a criminal domestic abuse case.

 

(b) The data communications network must include orders for protection issued under section 518B.01 or 609.2334, harassment restraining orders, and no contact orders issued against adults and juveniles.  A no contact order must be accompanied by a photograph of the offender for the purpose of enforcement of the order, if a photograph is available and verified by the court to be an image of the defendant.

 

(c) Data from orders for protection, harassment restraining orders, or no contact orders and data entered by law enforcement to assist in the enforcement of those orders are classified as private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12.  Data about the offender can be shared with the victim for purposes of enforcement of the order.

 

Sec. 44.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 299C.80, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Reporting.  (a) As provided for in chapter 13, the superintendent must make all inactive investigative data for officer-involved death investigations that are public under section 13.82, subdivision 7, or other applicable law available on the bureau's website within 30 days of the case becoming inactive as defined in section 13.82, subdivision 7, except any video that does not record, describe, or otherwise document actions and circumstances surrounding the officer-involved death.

 

(b) By February 1 of each year, the superintendent shall report to the commissioner, the governor, and the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public safety finance and policy the following information about the unit:  the number of investigations initiated; the number of incidents that began with a law enforcement response to a situation involving suspected or alleged domestic abuse, as defined in section 626.5537, subdivision 1; the number of incidents investigated; the outcomes or current status of each investigation; the charging decisions made by the prosecuting authority of incidents investigated by the unit; the number of plea agreements reached in incidents investigated by the unit; and any other information relevant to the unit's mission.

 

(c) Nothing in this subdivision modifies the requirements of chapter 13 or the classification of data.

 

Sec. 45.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.32, subdivision 8, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 8.  Applicant.  "Applicant" means any individual, partnership or corporation who has made application for a private detective or protective agent license.

 

Sec. 46.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.32, subdivision 10, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 10.  License holder.  "License holder" means any individual, partnership as defined in section 323A.0101, clause (8), or corporation licensed to perform the duties of a private detective or a protective agent.

 

Sec. 47.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.32, subdivision 10a, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 10a.  Minnesota manager.  "Minnesota manager" means the member of a partnership or corporation, who meets the qualifications for licensing as provided in sections 326.32 to 326.339.  The Minnesota manager must be actively involved in the day to day management and supervision of the licensed activity in the Minnesota office.


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Sec. 48.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.32, subdivision 10c, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 10c.  Proprietary employer.  A "proprietary employer" means an individual, partnership, or a corporation that is not engaged in the business of providing protective agents but employs individuals to serve as security guards solely on the employer's property and its curtilage.

 

Sec. 49.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.32, subdivision 12, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 12.  Qualified representative.  "Qualified representative" means the member of a partnership or corporation, who meets the qualifications for licensing as provided in sections 326.32 to 326.339.  The qualified representative must be actively involved in the day to day management and supervision of the licensed activity.

 

Sec. 50.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.33, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Members.  There is hereby created a Board of Private Detective and Protective Agent Services, consisting of the superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension or an assistant superintendent designated by the superintendent, and the following members appointed by the commissioner of public safety:  a licensed protective agent, or qualified representative for a licensed protective agent partnership or corporation,; a licensed private detective, or qualified representative for a licensed private detective partnership or corporation,; and two public members.  Filling of member vacancies shall be the responsibility of the commissioner of public safety.  Membership terms, compensation of members, removal of members, the filling of membership vacancies, and fiscal year and reporting requirements shall be as provided in sections 214.07 to 214.09.  The provision of staff, unless otherwise provided in sections 326.32 to 326.339; administrative services and office space; the review and processing of complaints; the setting of board fees, unless otherwise provided in sections 326.32 to 326.339; and other provisions relating to board operations shall be as provided in chapter 214.

 

Sec. 51.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.3381, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Application procedure.  The board shall issue a license upon application to any person qualified under sections 326.32 to 326.339 and under the rules of the board to engage in the business of private detective or protective agent.  The license shall remain effective for two years as long as the license holder complies with sections 326.32 to 326.339, the laws of Minnesota, and the rules of the board.  Upon receipt of an application for private detective or protective agent license, the board shall:

 

(1) post notice of the application in its office for a period of 20 days, and notify all persons who have requested notification of applications;

 

(2) conduct an investigation as it considers necessary to determine the qualifications of the applicant, qualified representative, Minnesota manager, and, if appropriate, a partner or corporate officer; and

 

(3) notify the applicant of the date on which the board will conduct a review of the license application.

 

Sec. 52.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.3381, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4.  Business entity applicant.  If the applicant for a license is a corporation or partnership, one member, the chief executive officer, the chief financial officer, the qualified representative, and the Minnesota manager, if one exists, of that corporation or partnership must meet the licensing requirements in sections 326.32 to 326.339, including the requirements of subdivision 3, paragraph (b).

 

Sec. 53.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.3382, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Application form.  (a) Application for a private detective or protective agent license shall be made on a form prescribed by the board.  Each applicant shall provide the following information:


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(1) the full name, date of birth, and sex of each person signing the application, and the residences of those persons for the past five years;

 

(2) all past and present occupations and employers, length of employment, and the name, address, and telephone numbers of supervisors for all persons signing the application;

 

(3) the address or a description indicating the location of the place of business of the applicant;

 

(4) a statement indicating that each person signing the application has attained the age of 18;

 

(5) if the applicant is a corporation, the name of the corporation, the date and place of incorporation, and the location of its principal place of business or registered office in its state of incorporation; and

 

(6) further facts as may be required by the board to show the good character, competency, and integrity of each person signing the application; and.

 

(b) Each application shall be signed and acknowledged as follows:

 

(1) if the applicant is an individual, by the individual; or

 

(2) if the applicant is a partnership, by each partner, one of whom must be a qualified representative; or

 

(3) (2) if the applicant is a corporation, by the chief executive officer, chief financial officer, and the qualified representative of the corporation.  If the principal place of the applicant's business is outside Minnesota, the application shall also include the signature of the Minnesota manager.

 

Sec. 54.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.3382, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4.  License disqualification.  Unlicensed activity will not be considered as legitimate experience for qualification in being licensed.  An individual, partnership, a corporation, a qualified representative, or a Minnesota manager engaged in the business of a private detective or protective agent without a license issued by the board is prohibited from applying for licensing for a period of one year from the date of a finding of the violation.

 

Sec. 55.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.3385, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Notice of successor.  (a) A corporate or partnership license holder shall, within seven days of the death, resignation, or removal of a person signing the license application, give written notice to the board of the change and the name and address of the successor in the vacated position.

 

(b) Within seven days of the death, resignation, or removal of a person signing the license application for a partnership or corporate license holder, the successor qualified representative, partner, Minnesota manager, chief executive officer, or chief financial officer who shall qualify under the same procedure and criteria, and must submit the documents required, as for an original application.

 

Sec. 56.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 326.3386, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  Designation fee.  When a licensed private detective or protective agent who is a partnership or corporation, desires to designate a new qualified representative or Minnesota manager, a fee equal to one-half of the license fee shall be submitted to the board.


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Sec. 57.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 364.03, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  Evidence of rehabilitation.  (a) A person who has been convicted of a crime or crimes which directly relate to the public employment sought or to the occupation for which a license is sought shall not may be disqualified from the employment or occupation if unless the person can show both:

 

(1) competent evidence of sufficient rehabilitation; and

 

(2) present fitness to perform the duties of the public employment sought or the occupation for which the license is sought.

 

(b) In determining whether the person has demonstrated both competent evidence of sufficient rehabilitation and present fitness to perform the relevant duties, the hiring or licensing authority may be established by the production of consider:

 

(1) the person's most recent certified copy of a United States Department of Defense form DD-214 showing the person's honorable discharge, or separation under honorable conditions, from the United States armed forces for military service rendered following conviction for any crime that would otherwise disqualify the person from the public employment sought or the occupation for which the license is sought, or:;

 

(1) (2) a copy of the local, state, or federal release order;, and

 

(2) evidence showing that at least one year has elapsed since release from any local, state, or federal correctional institution without subsequent conviction of a crime;, and evidence showing compliance with all terms and conditions of probation or parole; or

 

(3) a copy of the relevant Department of Corrections discharge order or other documents showing completion of probation or parole supervision.;

 

(b) In addition to the documentary evidence presented, the licensing or hiring authority shall consider any evidence presented by the applicant regarding:

 

(1) (4) evidence regarding the nature and seriousness of the crime or crimes for which the person was convicted;

 

(2) (5) all circumstances relative to the crime or crimes, including mitigating circumstances or social conditions surrounding the commission of the crime or crimes;

 

(3) (6) the age of the person at the time the crime or crimes were committed;

 

(4) (7) the length of time elapsed since the crime or crimes were committed; and

 

(5) (8) all other competent evidence of rehabilitation and present fitness presented, including, but not limited to, proof that the person has completed a treatment program and letters of reference by persons who have been in contact with the applicant since the applicant's release from any local, state, or federal correctional institution.

 

(c) The certified copy of a person's United States Department of Defense form DD-214 showing the person's honorable discharge or separation under honorable conditions from the United States armed forces ceases to qualify as competent evidence of sufficient rehabilitation for purposes of this section upon the person's conviction for any gross misdemeanor or felony committed by the person subsequent to the effective date of that honorable discharge or separation from military service.


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Sec. 58.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 364.05, is amended to read:

 

364.05 NOTIFICATION UPON DENIAL OF EMPLOYMENT OR DISQUALIFICATION FROM OCCUPATION.

 

If a hiring or licensing authority denies an individual a position of public employment or disqualifies the individual from pursuing, practicing, or engaging in any occupation for which a license is required, solely or in part because of the individual's prior conviction of a crime, the hiring or licensing authority shall notify the individual in writing of the following:

 

(1) the grounds and reasons for the denial or disqualification;

 

(2) the applicable complaint and grievance procedure as set forth in section 364.06;

 

(3) the earliest date on which the person may reapply for a position of public employment or a license with a hiring or licensing authority; and

 

(4) that the hiring or licensing authority will consider all competent evidence of rehabilitation presented will be considered upon reapplication.

 

Sec. 59.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 388.23, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Authority.  (a) The county attorney, or any deputy or assistant county attorney whom the county attorney authorizes in writing, has the authority to subpoena and require the production of:

 

(1) any records of:

 

(i) telephone companies, cellular phone companies, paging companies, and subscribers of private computer networks including Internet service providers or computer bulletin board systems;

 

(ii) electric companies, gas companies, and water utilities;

 

(iii) chemical suppliers;

 

(iv) hotels and motels;

 

(v) pawn shops;

 

(vi) airlines, buses, taxis, and other entities engaged in the business of transporting people; and

 

(vii) freight companies, warehousing companies, self-service storage facilities, package delivery companies, and other entities engaged in the businesses of transport, storage, or delivery;

 

(2) books, papers, correspondence, memoranda, agreements, and other documents or records related to a law enforcement investigation of financial crimes and fraud, including but not limited to fraud involving state funded or administered programs or services as defined in section 299C.061, subdivision 1, paragraph (b), and insurance fraud in violation of section 609.611;

 

(2) (3) records of the existence of safe deposit box account numbers and customer savings and checking account numbers maintained by financial institutions and safe deposit companies;


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(3)
(4) insurance records relating to the monetary payment or settlement of claims;

 

(4) (5) the banking, credit card, and financial records of a subject of an identity theft investigation or a vulnerable adult, whether held in the name of the vulnerable adult or a third party, including but not limited to safe deposit, loan and account applications and agreements, signature cards, statements, checks, transfers, account authorizations, safe deposit access records and documentation of fraud;

 

(5) (6) wage and employment records of an applicant or recipient of public assistance who is the subject of a welfare fraud investigation relating to eligibility information for public assistance programs; and

 

(6) (7) any of the following records of an employer or business entity who is the subject of or has information related to a wage theft investigation:

 

(i) accounting and financial records such as books, registers, payrolls, banking records, credit card records, securities records, and records of money transfers;

 

(ii) records required to be kept pursuant to section 177.30, paragraph (a); and

 

(iii) other records that in any way relate to wages or other income paid, hours worked, and other conditions of employment of any employee or of work performed by persons identified as independent contractors, and records of any payments to contractors, and records of workers' compensation insurance.

 

(b) Subpoenas may only be issued for records that are relevant to an ongoing legitimate law enforcement investigation.  Administrative subpoenas may only be issued in wage theft, welfare fraud, and identity theft cases, and cases related to a law enforcement investigation of financial crimes and fraud if there is probable cause to believe a crime has been committed.

 

(c) This subdivision applies only to the records of business entities and does not extend to private individuals or their dwellings.

 

(d) As used in this subdivision, "business entity" has the meaning given in section 308B.005.

 

Sec. 60.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 518B.02, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Standards for domestic abuse counseling programs and domestic abuse educational programs.  (a) Domestic abuse counseling or educational programs that provide group or class sessions for court-ordered domestic abuse offenders must provide documentation to the probation department or the court on program policies and how the program meets the criteria contained in paragraphs (b) to (l).

 

(b) Programs shall require offenders and abusing parties to attend a minimum of 24 sessions or 36 hours of programming, unless a probation agent has recommended fewer sessions.  The documentation provided to the probation department or the court must specify the length of the program that offenders are required to complete.

 

(c) Programs must have a written policy requiring that counselors and facilitators report to the court and to the offender's probation or corrections officer any threats of violence made by the offender or abusing party, acts of violence by the offender or abusing party, violation of court orders by the offender or abusing party, and violation of program rules that resulted in the offender's or abusing party's termination from the program.  Programs shall have written policies requiring that counselors and facilitators hold offenders and abusing parties solely responsible for their behavior.

 

Programs shall have written policies requiring that counselors and facilitators be violence free in their own lives.


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(d) Each program shall conduct an intake process with each offender or abusing party.  This intake process shall look for chemical dependency problems and possible risks the offender or abusing party might pose to self or others.  The program must have policies regarding referral of a chemically dependent offender or abusing party to a chemical dependency treatment center.  If the offender or abusing party poses a risk to self or others, the program shall report this information to the court, the probation or corrections officer, and the victim.

 

(e) If the offender or abusing party is reported back to the court or is terminated from the program, the program shall notify the victim of the circumstances unless the victim requests otherwise.

 

(f) Programs shall require court-ordered offenders and abusing parties to sign a release of information authorizing communication regarding the offender's or abusing party's progress in the program to the court, the offender's probation or corrections officer, other providers, and the victim.  The offender or abusing party may not enter the program if the offender does not sign a release.

 

(g) If a counselor or facilitator contacts the victim, the counselor or facilitator must not elicit any information that the victim does not want to provide.  A counselor or facilitator who contacts a victim shall (1) notify the victim of the right not to provide any information, (2) notify the victim of how any information provided will be used and with whom it will be shared, and (3) obtain the victim's permission before eliciting information from the victim or sharing information with anyone other than staff of the counseling program.

 

Programs shall have written policies requiring that counselors and facilitators inform victims of the confidentiality of information as provided by this subdivision.  Programs must maintain separate files for information pertaining to the offender or abusing party and to the victim.

 

If a counselor or facilitator contacts a victim, the counselor or facilitator shall provide the victim with referral information for support services.

 

(h) Programs shall have written policies forbidding program staff from disclosing any confidential communication made by the offender or abusing party without the consent of the offender or abusing party, except that programs must warn a potential victim of imminent danger based upon information provided by an offender or abusing party.

 

(i) The counseling program or educational program must provide services in a group setting, unless the offender or abusing party would be inappropriate in a group setting.

 

Programs must provide separate sessions for male and female offenders and abusing parties.

 

(j) Programs shall have written policies forbidding program staff from offering or referring marriage or couples counseling until the offender or abusing party has completed a domestic abuse counseling program or educational program for the minimum number of court-ordered sessions and the counselor or facilitator reasonably believes that the violence, intimidation, and coercion has ceased and the victim feels safe to participate.

 

(k) Programs must have written policies requiring that the counselor or facilitator report when the court-ordered offender or abusing party has completed the program to the court and the offender's probation or corrections officer.

 

(l) Programs must have written policies to coordinate with the court, probation and corrections officers, battered women's and domestic abuse programs, child protection services, and other providers on promotion of victim safety and offender accountability.


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Sec. 61.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 609.101, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Minimum fines.  Notwithstanding any other law, when a court sentences a person convicted of violating section 609.221, 609.222, 609.223, 609.2231, 609.224, 609.2242, 609.267, 609.2671, 609.2672, 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, or 609.345, it must impose a fine of not less than 30 percent of the maximum fine authorized by law nor more than the maximum fine authorized by law.

 

The court shall collect the portion of the fine mandated by this subdivision and forward 70 percent of it to a local victim assistance program that provides services locally in the county in which the crime was committed.  The court shall forward the remaining 30 percent to the commissioner of management and budget to be credited to the general fund.  If more than one victim assistance program serves the county in which the crime was committed, the court may designate on a case-by-case basis which program will receive the fine proceeds, giving consideration to the nature of the crime committed, the types of victims served by the program, and the funding needs of the program.  If no victim assistance program serves that county, the court shall forward 100 percent of the fine proceeds to the commissioner of management and budget to be credited to the general fund.  Fine proceeds received by a local victim assistance program must be used to provide direct services to crime victims.

 

The minimum fine required by this subdivision is in addition to the surcharge or assessment required by section 357.021, subdivision 6, and is in addition to any sentence of imprisonment or restitution imposed or ordered by the court.

 

As used in this subdivision, "victim assistance program" means victim witness programs within county attorney offices or any of the following programs:  crime victim crisis centers, victim-witness programs, domestic abuse victim shelters and nonshelter programs, sexual assault programs, and children's advocacy centers as defined in section 260E.02, subdivision 5.

 

Sec. 62.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.133, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4.  Petition; contents; fee.  (a) A prosecutor's petition for sentence adjustment shall be filed in the district court where the individual was convicted and include the following:

 

(1) the full name of the individual on whose behalf the petition is being brought and, to the extent possible, all other legal names or aliases by which the individual has been known at any time;

 

(2) the individual's date of birth;

 

(3) the individual's address;

 

(4) a brief statement of the reason the prosecutor is seeking a sentence adjustment for the individual;

 

(5) the details of the offense for which an adjustment is sought, including:

 

(i) the date and jurisdiction of the occurrence;

 

(ii) either the names of any victims or that there were no the number of identifiable victims;

 

(iii) whether there is a current order for protection, restraining order, or other no contact order prohibiting the individual from contacting the victims or whether there has ever been a prior order for protection or restraining order prohibiting the individual from contacting the victims;

 

(iv) the court file number; and


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(v) the date of conviction;

 

(6) what steps the individual has taken since the time of the offense toward personal rehabilitation, including treatment, work, good conduct within correctional facilities, or other personal history that demonstrates rehabilitation;

 

(7) the individual's criminal conviction record indicating all convictions for misdemeanors, gross misdemeanors, or felonies in this state, and for all comparable convictions in any other state, federal court, or foreign country, whether the convictions occurred before or after the conviction for which an adjustment is sought;

 

(8) the individual's criminal charges record indicating all prior and pending criminal charges against the individual in this state or another jurisdiction, including all criminal charges that have been continued for dismissal, stayed for adjudication, or were the subject of pretrial diversion; and

 

(9) to the extent known, all prior requests by the individual, whether for the present offense or for any other offenses in this state or any other state or federal court, for pardon, return of arrest records, or expungement or sealing of a criminal record, whether granted or not, and all stays of adjudication or imposition of sentence involving the petitioner.

 

(b) The filing fee for a petition brought under this section shall be waived.

 

(c) Notwithstanding chapter 13 or any other statute related to the classification of government data, a supervising agent or the commissioner of corrections may provide private or confidential data to a prosecutor for purposes of a petition for sentence adjustment.

 

Sec. 63.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.19, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Unintentional murders.  Whoever does either of the following is guilty of unintentional murder in the second degree and may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 40 years:

 

(1) causes the death of a human being, without intent to effect the death of any person, while committing or attempting to commit a felony offense other than criminal sexual conduct in the first or second degree with force or violence or a drive-by shooting; or

 

(2) causes the death of a human being without intent to effect the death of any person, while intentionally inflicting or attempting to inflict bodily harm upon the victim, when the perpetrator is restrained under an order for protection and the victim is a person designated to receive protection under the order.  As used in this clause, "order for protection" includes an order for protection issued under chapter 518B; a harassment restraining order issued under section 609.748; a court order setting conditions of pretrial release or conditions of a criminal sentence or juvenile court disposition; a restraining order issued in a marriage dissolution action; and any order issued by a court of another state or of, the United States, the District of Columbia, Tribal lands, United States territories, Canada, or a Canadian province that is similar to any of these orders.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.

 

Sec. 64.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 609.2334, subdivision 11, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 11.  Copy to law enforcement agency; lead investigative agency.  Within 24 hours of issuance of an order or continuance of an order under this section, the court administrator must forward the order for protection and any continuance of the order for protection to the local law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over the residence


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of the vulnerable adult and the lead investigative agency that received the report pursuant to subdivision 6.  The court administrator shall make available to law enforcement officers in Minnesota, through a system of verification, information as to the existence and status of an order for protection issued under this section.  Section 518B.01, subdivision 13, applies paragraphs (b) and (c), apply to orders granted under this section.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective January 1, 2027.

 

Sec. 65.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.27, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Sentence.  (a) Whoever violates subdivision 1 may be sentenced as follows:

 

(1) to imprisonment for not more than 90 days or to payment of a fine of not more than $1,000, or both if neither the pecuniary gain received by the violator nor the loss suffered by the person threatened or another as a result of the threat exceeds $300, or the benefits received or harm sustained are not susceptible of pecuniary measurement; or

 

(2) to imprisonment for not more than five years or to payment of a fine of not more than $10,000, or both, if such pecuniary gain or loss is more than $300 but less than $2,500; or

 

(3) to imprisonment for not more than ten years or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if such pecuniary gain or loss is $2,500, or more.

 

(b) A person who violates subdivision 1, clause (6), may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than ten years, or to payment of a fine of not more than $20,000, or both, if the violation is a substantial factor in the victim suffering great bodily harm.

 

(c) A person who violates subdivision 1, clause (6), may be sentenced to imprisonment for not more than 15 years, or to payment of a fine of not more than $30,000, or both, if the violation is a substantial factor in the victim suffering death.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.

 

Sec. 66.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.3471, is amended to read:

 

609.3471 RECORDS PERTAINING TO VICTIM IDENTITY CONFIDENTIAL.

 

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no data contained in records or reports relating to petitions, complaints, or indictments issued pursuant to section 609.322, 609.342, 609.343, 609.344, 609.345, 609.3453, or 609.3458, or 617.246, which specifically identifies a victim who is a minor shall be accessible to the public, except by order of the court.  Nothing in this section authorizes denial of access to any other data contained in the records or reports, including the identity of the defendant.

 

Sec. 67.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.522, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Definitions.  (a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.

 

(b) "Closed-loop gift card" means a card, code, or device that is issued to a consumer on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes in a specified amount, regardless of whether that amount may be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment, and is redeemable upon presentation by a consumer at a single merchant or group of affiliated merchants.


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(c) "Gift card" means a physical or digital closed-loop gift card or open-loop gift card that is either activated or not activated.

 

(d) "Open-loop gift card" means a card, code, or device that is issued to a consumer on a prepaid basis primarily for personal, family, or household purposes in a specified amount, regardless of whether that amount may be increased or reloaded in exchange for payment, and is redeemable upon presentation at multiple unaffiliated merchants for goods or services within the payment card network.

 

(b) (e) "Pattern of retail theft" means acts committed or directed by the defendant on at least two separate occasions in the preceding six months that would constitute a violation of:

 

(1) section 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (1), (3), or (4), involving retail merchandise;

 

(2) section 609.521;

 

(3) section 609.53, subdivision 1, involving retail merchandise;

 

(4) section 609.582 when the building was a retail establishment; or

 

(5) section 609.59.

 

(c) (f) "Retail establishment" means the building where a retailer sells retail merchandise.

 

(d) (g) "Retail merchandise" means all forms of tangible property, without limitation, held out for sale by a retailer and all gift cards.

 

(e) (h) "Retail theft enterprise" means a group of two or more individuals with a shared goal involving the unauthorized removal of retail merchandise from a retailer.  Retail theft enterprise does not require the membership of the enterprise to remain the same or that the same individuals participate in each offense committed by the enterprise.

 

(f) (i) "Retailer" means a person or entity that sells retail merchandise.

 

(g) (j) "Value" means:

 

(1) in the case of property, the retail market value at the time of the theft or, if the retail market value cannot be ascertained, the cost of replacement of the property within a reasonable time after the theft.; or

 

(2) in the case of a gift card, the greatest amount of economic loss the owner of the property might reasonably suffer, including but not limited to the full monetary face value or potential value for variable-load gift cards.

 

Sec. 68.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.522, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Organized retail theft.  A person is guilty of organized retail theft if:

 

(1) the person is employed by or associated with a retail theft enterprise;

 

(2) the person has previously engaged in a pattern of retail theft and intentionally commits an act or directs another member of the retail theft enterprise to commit an act involving retail merchandise that would constitute a violation of:


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(i) section 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (1), (3), or (4); or

 

(ii) section 609.53, subdivision 1; and

 

(3) the person or another member of the retail theft enterprise:

 

(i) resells or intends to resell the stolen retail merchandise;

 

(ii) advertises or displays any item of the stolen retail merchandise for sale; or

 

(iii) returns any item of the stolen retail merchandise to a retailer for anything of value.; or

 

(iv) tampers with the stolen retail merchandise or its packaging for the purpose of obtaining anything of value from the retailer or any retail customer.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date.

 

Sec. 69.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.527, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Definitions.  (a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given them in this subdivision.

 

(b) "Direct victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), whose identity has been transferred, used, or possessed in violation of this section.

 

(c) "False pretense" means any false, fictitious, misleading, or fraudulent information or pretense or pretext depicting or including or deceptively similar to the name, logo, website address, email address, postal address, telephone number, or any other identifying information of a for-profit or not-for-profit business or organization or of a government agency, to which the user has no legitimate claim of right.

 

(d) "Financial institution" has the meaning given in section 13A.01, subdivision 2.

 

(e) "Forged digital likeness" means any video recording, motion-picture film, sound recording, electronic image, or photograph, or any technological representation of speech or conduct substantially derivative thereof that:

 

(1) was created, adapted, altered, or modified in a manner that was substantially dependent upon technical means;

 

(2) misrepresents the appearance, speech, or conduct of the individual; and

 

(3) is so realistic that a reasonable person would believe it depicts the image or speech of an actual individual.

 

(e) (f) "Identity" means any name, voice or likeness, number, or data transmission that may be used, alone or in conjunction with any other information, to identify a specific individual or entity, including any of the following:

 

(1) a name, Social Security number, date of birth, official government-issued driver's license or identification number, government passport number, or employer or taxpayer identification number;

 

(2) a forged digital likeness;


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(2)
(3) a unique electronic identification number, address, account number, or routing code; or

 

(3) (4) a telecommunication identification information or access device.

 

(f) (g) "Indirect victim" means any person or entity described in section 611A.01, paragraph (b), other than a direct victim.

 

(g) (h) "Loss" means value obtained, as defined in section 609.52, subdivision 1, clause (3), and expenses incurred by a direct or indirect victim as a result of a violation of this section.

 

(h) (i) "Unlawful activity" means:

 

(1) any felony violation of the laws of this state or any felony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States; and

 

(2) any nonfelony violation of the laws of this state involving theft, theft by swindle, forgery, fraud, or giving false information to a public official, or any nonfelony violation of a similar law of another state or the United States.

 

(i) (j) "Scanning device" means a scanner, reader, or any other electronic device that is used to access, read, scan, obtain, memorize, or store, temporarily or permanently, information encoded on a computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card.

 

(j) (k) "Reencoder" means an electronic device that places encoded information from the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, onto the computer chip or magnetic strip or stripe of a different payment card, driver's license, or state-issued identification card, or any electronic medium that allows an authorized transaction to occur.

 

(k) (l) "Payment card" means a credit card, charge card, debit card, or any other card that:

 

(1) is issued to an authorized card user; and

 

(2) allows the user to obtain, purchase, or receive credit, money, a good, a service, or anything of value.

 

Sec. 70.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.605, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Gross misdemeanor.  Whoever trespasses upon the grounds of a facility providing emergency shelter services for battered women domestic abuse victims, as defined under section 611A.31, subdivision 3, or providing comparable services for sex trafficking victims, as defined under section 609.321, subdivision 7b, or of a facility providing transitional housing for battered women domestic abuse victims and their children or sex trafficking victims and their children, without claim of right or consent of one who has right to give consent, and refuses to depart from the grounds of the facility on demand of one who has right to give consent, is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.

 

Sec. 71.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.7495, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Definitions.  For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.

 

(a) "Facility" means any of the following:

 

(1) a hospital or other health institution licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.56;


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(2) a medical facility as defined in section 144.561;

 

(3) an agency, clinic, or office operated under the direction of or under contract with the commissioner of health or a community health board, as defined in section 145A.02;

 

(4) a facility providing counseling regarding options for medical services or recovery from an addiction;

 

(5) a facility providing emergency shelter services for battered women domestic abuse victims, as defined in section 611A.31, subdivision 3, or a facility providing transitional housing for battered women domestic abuse victims and their children;

 

(6) a facility as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 6;

 

(7) a facility as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 6, where the services described in that paragraph are provided;

 

(8) a place to or from which ambulance service, as defined in section 144E.001, is provided or sought to be provided; and

 

(9) a hospice provider licensed under section 144A.753.

 

(b) "Aggrieved party" means a person whose access to or egress from a facility is obstructed in violation of subdivision 2, or the facility.

 

Sec. 72.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609A.015, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 5.  Bureau of Criminal Apprehension to identify eligible persons and grant expungement relief.  (a) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall identify any records that qualify for a grant of expungement relief pursuant to this subdivision or subdivision 1, 2, or 3.  The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall make an initial determination of eligibility within 30 days of the end of the applicable waiting period.  If a record is not eligible for a grant of expungement at the time of the initial determination, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall make subsequent eligibility determinations annually until the record is eligible for a grant of expungement.

 

(b) In making the determination under paragraph (a), the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall identify individuals who are the subject of relevant records through the use of fingerprints and thumbprints where fingerprints and thumbprints are available.  Where fingerprints and thumbprints are not available, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall identify individuals through the use of the person's name and date of birth.  Records containing the same name and date of birth shall be presumed to refer to the same individual unless other evidence establishes, by a preponderance of the evidence, that they do not refer to the same individual.  The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension is not required to review any other evidence in making a determination.

 

(c) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall grant expungement relief to qualifying persons and seal its own records without requiring an application, petition, or motion.  Records shall be sealed 60 days after notice is sent to the judicial branch pursuant to paragraph (e) unless an order of the judicial branch prohibits sealing the records or additional information establishes that the records are not eligible for expungement.

 

(d) Nonpublic criminal records maintained by the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension and subject to a grant of expungement relief shall display a notation stating "expungement relief granted pursuant to section 609A.015."


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(e) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall inform the judicial branch of all cases for which expungement relief was granted pursuant to this section.  Notification may be through electronic means and may be made in real time or in the form of a monthly report.  Upon receipt of notice, the judicial branch shall seal all records relating to an arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, or dismissal and discharge for any case in which expungement relief was granted and shall issue any order deemed necessary to achieve this purpose.

 

(f) If the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension subsequently determines that a sealed record did not qualify for expungement relief under this section, the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall unseal the record and notify the judicial branch.  Upon notification, the judicial branch shall unseal all records relating to an arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, or dismissal and discharge.  The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall make this determination based only on a record stored in the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension's criminal history system.

 

(f) (g) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension shall inform each law enforcement agency that its records may be affected by a grant of expungement relief.  Notification may be through electronic means.  Each notified law enforcement agency that receives a request to produce records shall first determine if the records were subject to a grant of expungement under this section.  The law enforcement agency must not disclose records relating to an arrest, indictment or information, trial, verdict, or dismissal and discharge for any case in which expungement relief was granted and must maintain the data consistent with the classification in paragraph (g) (h).  This paragraph does not apply to requests from a criminal justice agency as defined in section 609A.03, subdivision 7a, paragraph (f).

 

(g) (h) Data on the person whose offense has been expunged under this subdivision, including any notice sent pursuant to paragraph (f) (g), are private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12.

 

(h) (i) The prosecuting attorney shall notify the victim that an offense qualifies for automatic expungement under this section in the manner provided in section 611A.03, subdivisions 1 and 2.

 

(i) (j) In any subsequent prosecution of a person granted expungement relief, the expunged criminal record may be pleaded and has the same effect as if the relief had not been granted.

 

(j) (k) The Bureau of Criminal Apprehension is directed to develop, modify, or update a system to provide criminal justice agencies with uniform statewide access to criminal records sealed by expungement.

 

Sec. 73.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 611A.03, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Plea agreements; notification of victim.  Prior to the entry of the factual basis for a plea pursuant to a plea agreement recommendation, a prosecuting attorney shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to inform the victim of:

 

(1) the contents of the plea agreement recommendation, including the amount of time recommended for the defendant to serve in jail or prison if the court accepts the agreement;

 

(2) the right to be present at the sentencing hearing and, to be present at the hearing during which the plea is presented to the court, and to express at the plea hearing orally or in writing, at the victim's option, any objection to the agreement or to the proposed disposition.  If the victim is not present when the court considers the recommendation, but has communicated objections to the prosecuting attorney, the prosecuting attorney shall make these objections known to the court; and

 

(3) the eligibility of the offense for automatic expungement pursuant to section 609A.015 of any offense pleaded to or dismissed as part of the plea agreement.


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Sec. 74.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 611A.03, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:

 

Subd. 4.  Plea hearing.  At the hearing during which the plea is presented to the court, the court shall ask the prosecutor if the victim has been notified of the plea agreement recommendation pursuant to this section, has been notified of the plea hearing, and if the victim wishes to express their objections to the plea agreement orally, in writing, or through the prosecutor.

 

Sec. 75.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 611A.0311, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Definitions.  (a) "Domestic abuse" has the meaning given in section 518B.01, subdivision 2.

 

(b) "Domestic abuse case" means a prosecution for:

 

(1) a crime that involves domestic abuse;

 

(2) violation of a condition of release following an arrest for a crime that involves domestic abuse; or

 

(3) violation of a domestic abuse order for protection issued pursuant to section 518B.01;

 

(4) violation of a harassment restraining order issued pursuant to section 609.748 committed against a family or household member by a family or household member;

 

(5) harassment or stalking within the meaning of section 609.749 committed against a family or household member by a family or household member; or

 

(6) violation of a domestic abuse no contact order issued pursuant to section 629.75.

 

Sec. 76.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 611A.036, subdivision 7, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 7.  Definition.  As used in this section, "violent crime" means a violation or attempt to violate any of the following:  section 609.185 (murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the second degree); 609.195 (murder in the third degree); 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); 609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree); 609.2112, 609.2113, or 609.2114 (criminal vehicular homicide or injury); 609.221 (assault in the first degree); 609.222 (assault in the second degree); 609.223 (assault in the third degree); 609.2231 (assault in the fourth degree); 609.2241 (knowing transfer of communicable disease); 609.2242 (domestic assault); 609.2245 (female genital mutilation); 609.2247 (domestic assault by strangulation); 609.228 (great bodily harm caused by distribution of drugs); 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); 609.231 (mistreatment of residents or patients); 609.2325 (criminal abuse); 609.233 (criminal neglect); 609.235 (use of drugs to injure or facilitate crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.245 (aggravated robbery); 609.247 (carjacking); 609.25 (kidnapping); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.265 (abduction); 609.2661 (murder of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.2663 (murder of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.2664 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.267 (assault of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2671 (assault of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn child in commission of a crime); 609.282 (labor trafficking); 609.322 (solicitation, inducement, and promotion of prostitution; sex trafficking); 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree); 609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree); 609.344 (criminal sexual conduct in the third degree); 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth degree); 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree); 609.3453 (criminal sexual predatory conduct); 609.3458 (sexual extortion); 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child); 609.561, subdivision 1 (arson in the first degree; dwelling);


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609.582, subdivision 1, paragraph (a) or (c) (burglary in the first degree; occupied dwelling or involving an assault); 609.66, subdivision 1e, paragraph (b) (drive-by shooting; firing at or toward a person, or an occupied building or motor vehicle); or 609.749, subdivision 2 (harassment); or 609.749, subdivision 5 (stalking); or Minnesota Statutes 2012, section 609.21.

 

Sec. 77.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 611A.038, is amended to read:

 

611A.038 RIGHT TO SUBMIT STATEMENT AT SENTENCING.

 

(a) A victim has the right to submit an impact statement to the court at the time of sentencing or disposition hearing.  The impact statement may be presented to the court orally or in writing, at the victim's option.  If the victim requests, the prosecutor or the prosecutor's designee must orally present the statement to the court.  Statements may include the following, subject to reasonable limitations as to time and length:

 

(1) a summary of the harm or trauma suffered by the victim as a result of the crime;

 

(2) a summary of the economic loss or damage suffered by the victim as a result of the crime; and

 

(3) a victim's reaction to the proposed sentence or disposition.

 

(b) At the sentencing or disposition hearing, the court shall ask the prosecutor if the victim has been notified of the hearing, if the victim is in court, and if the victim wishes to submit a victim impact statement orally, in writing, or through the prosecutor or the prosecutor's designee.

 

(b) (c) A representative of the community affected by the crime may submit an impact statement in the same manner that a victim may as provided in paragraph (a).  This impact statement shall describe the adverse social or economic effects the offense has had on persons residing and businesses operating in the community where the offense occurred.

 

(c) (d) If the court permits the defendant or anyone speaking on the defendant's behalf to present a statement to the court, the court shall limit the response to factual issues which are relevant to sentencing.

 

(d) (e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to extend the defendant's right to address the court under section 631.20.

 

Sec. 78.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 611A.039, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Notice required.  (a) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision 2, within 15 working days after a conviction, acquittal, or dismissal in a criminal case in which there is an identifiable crime victim, the prosecutor shall make reasonable good faith efforts to provide to each affected crime victim oral or written notice of the final disposition of the case and, of the victim rights under section 611A.06, and of the eligibility of the offense for automatic expungement under section 609A.015 of any offense that was dismissed or for which the defendant was convicted or acquitted.  When the court is considering modifying the sentence for a felony or a crime of violence or an attempted crime of violence, the prosecutor shall make a reasonable and good faith effort to notify the victim of the crime.  The notice must include:

 

(1) the date and approximate time of the review;

 

(2) the location where the review will occur;

 

(3) the name and telephone number of a person to contact for additional information; and


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(4) a statement that the victim may provide input to the court concerning the sentence modification.

 

(b) The Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety shall develop and update a model notice of postconviction rights under this subdivision and section 611A.06.

 

(c) As used in this section:

 

(1) "crime of violence" has the meaning given in section 624.712, subdivision 5, and also includes violations of section 609.3458, gross misdemeanor violations of section 609.224, and nonfelony violations of sections 518B.01, 609.2231, 609.3451, 609.748, and 609.749; and

 

(2) "victim" has the meaning given in section 611A.01, paragraph (b).

 

Sec. 79.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 611A.31, subdivision 5, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 5.  Commissioner.  "Commissioner" means the commissioner of the Department of Corrections Public Safety or a designee.

 

Sec. 80.  [626.5537] DOMESTIC ABUSE; REPORTING.

 

Subdivision 1.  Definitions.  (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.

 

(b) "Domestic abuse" has the meaning given in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), and also includes the following, if committed against a family or household member by a family or household member:

 

(1) violation of an order for protection within the meaning of section 518B.01, subdivision 14;

 

(2) violation of a harassment restraining order within the meaning of section 609.748, subdivision 6;

 

(3) harassment or stalking within the meaning of section 609.749; and

 

(4) violation of a domestic abuse no contact order within the meaning of section 629.75, subdivision 2.

 

(c) "Family or household member" has the meaning given in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).

 

Subd. 2.  Collection of information; reporting.  The head of a local law enforcement agency or state law enforcement department that employs peace officers, as defined in section 626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), must report every incident a peace officer reasonably believes, or a victim alleges, constitutes an act of domestic abuse to the commissioner of public safety by January 15 each year.  The superintendent of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension must adopt a reporting form to be used by law enforcement agencies in making the reports required under this section.  The reports must include all of the following for each incident:

 

(1) the date of the incident;

 

(2) the location of the incident;

 

(3) the crime suspected to have been committed;

 

(4) whether the response began as a call for service alleging an act of domestic abuse;

 

(5) the perceived gender of the alleged victim and suspect;


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(6) the perceived race of the alleged victim and suspect;

 

(7) whether a suspect was arrested at the time of the incident;

 

(8) whether a suspect was arrested at a later date and, if so, the time between the incident and the arrest;

 

(9) whether the alleged victim was arrested at the time of the incident and, if so, any alleged crime that formed the basis for the arrest;

 

(10) whether the alleged offender possessed, or was reported to possess, a firearm at the time of the incident;

 

(11) whether the case was referred for prosecution;

 

(12) whether the determination that the incident constituted an act of domestic abuse was based on an officer's reasonable belief, the victim's allegation, or both; and

 

(13) any additional information the superintendent deems necessary for the acquisition of accurate and relevant data.

 

Subd. 3.  Annual report.  The commissioner of public safety must summarize and analyze the information received under subdivision 2 and provide an annual report to the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over public safety.  The annual report may be included in the department's annual uniform crime report.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective January 1, 2028.

 

Sec. 81.  [626.745] USE OF CHEMICAL IRRITANTS; DISCLOSURE REQUIRED.

 

Subdivision 1.  Definition.  For purposes of this section, "building" has the meaning given in section 609.581, subdivision 2.

 

Subd. 2.  Notice of use; identification of products deployed.  (a) Notwithstanding any data classification under chapter 13, a peace officer, law enforcement agency, and local unit of government must provide information about the use of any chemical irritant, smoke screen, or diversionary device deployed within a building as required under this section.

 

(b) A peace officer from a law enforcement agency that deploys a chemical irritant within a building, or an officer from the lead law enforcement agency if officers from multiple agencies deploy chemical irritants, must provide notice of the deployment to the owner of the building and, if the building is a private residence, the occupant of the residence.  If the building contains two or more dwelling units, the peace officer must notify the occupant of any unit in which a chemical irritant was deployed.  A peace officer may notify the occupant of any other unit.  A peace officer may provide notice by giving a building owner or occupant the standard form created by the commissioner of public safety, leaving the form in a place where it is likely to be seen by a building owner or occupant, or providing the information contained in the form orally or in another format.

 

(c) Upon request, the law enforcement agency or local government unit that employs a peace officer who deployed a chemical irritant, smoke screen, or diversionary device within a building must disclose information about the products deployed to:

 

(1) the building owner;


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(2) any tenant in the building;

 

(3) any applicable insurer; and

 

(4) any person retained to provide cleaning or other remediation services related to the deployment of chemical irritants, smoke screens, or diversionary devices.

 

(d) Information about any products deployed within a building must include the name, product number, and total number of all chemical irritants, smoke screens, and diversionary devices deployed by a peace officer employed by the law enforcement agency or local government unit.

 

(e) If officers from multiple law enforcement agencies deployed chemical irritants, smoke screens, or diversionary devices, the lead law enforcement agency must identify the other law enforcement agencies involved when responding to a request described in paragraph (c).

 

Subd. 3.  Standard form.  (a) The commissioner of public safety must create a standard notification form for use by peace officers and law enforcement agencies.  At a minimum, the form must state that:

 

(1) a chemical irritant was deployed within the building;

 

(2) specialized cleanup or treatment of the building may be appropriate; and

 

(3) the building owner or occupant may contact the law enforcement agency or local government unit that employs the peace officer for more information about what substance was deployed in the building.

 

(b) The commissioner must provide the standard form to law enforcement agencies and local government units upon request and at no cost.

 

Sec. 82.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 628.26, is amended to read:

 

628.26 LIMITATIONS.

 

(a) Indictments or complaints for any crime resulting in the death of the victim may be found or made at any time after the death of the person killed.

 

(b) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.25 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense.

 

(c) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense if the victim was under the age of 18 at the time of the offense.

 

(d) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.282 where the victim was 18 years of age or older at the time of the offense, or 609.42, subdivision 1, clause (1) or (2), shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission of the offense.

 

(e) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.322, 609.342 to 609.345, and 609.3458 may be found or made at any time after the commission of the offense.

 

(f) Indictments or complaints for a violation of section 609.561 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within ten years after the commission of the offense.


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(g) Indictments or complaints for violation of chapter 80A, or a rule adopted or order issued under that chapter, made as provided in section 80A.75 or for violation of section 508.80; 609.465; 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (4); 609.53; or 609.645 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within seven years after the commission of the offense.

 

(g) (h) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.466 and 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), item (iii), shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within six years after the commission of the offense.

 

(h) (i) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.2335, 609.52, subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clause (3), items (i) and (ii), (4), (15), or (16), 609.631, or 609.821, where the value of the property or services stolen is more than $35,000, or for violation of section 609.527 where the offense involves eight or more direct victims or the total combined loss to the direct and indirect victims is more than $35,000, shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.

 

(i) (j) Except for violations relating to false material statements, representations or omissions, indictments or complaints for violations of section 609.671 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.

 

(j) (k) Indictments or complaints for violation of sections 609.562 and 609.563, shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within five years after the commission of the offense.

 

(k) (l) Indictments or complaints for violation of section 609.746 shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within the later of three years after the commission of the offense or three years after the offense was reported to law enforcement authorities.

 

(l) (m) In all other cases, indictments or complaints shall be found or made and filed in the proper court within three years after the commission of the offense.

 

(m) (n) The limitations periods contained in this section shall exclude any period of time during which the defendant was not an inhabitant of or usually resident within this state.

 

(n) (o) The limitations periods contained in this section for an offense shall not include any period during which the alleged offender participated under a written agreement in a pretrial diversion program relating to that offense.

 

(o) (p) The limitations periods contained in this section shall not include any period of time during which physical evidence relating to the offense was undergoing DNA analysis, as defined in section 299C.155, unless the defendant demonstrates that the prosecuting or law enforcement agency purposefully delayed the DNA analysis process in order to gain an unfair advantage.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date and to crimes committed before that date if the limitations period for the crime did not expire before August 1, 2026.

 

Sec. 83.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.341, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Arrest; referral for prosecution.  (a) Notwithstanding section 629.34 or any other law or rule, a peace officer may arrest a person anywhere without a warrant, including at the person's residence, if the peace officer has probable cause to believe that within the preceding 72 hours 28 days, exclusive of the day probable cause was established, the person has committed nonfelony domestic abuse, as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2.  The arrest may be made even though the assault did not take place in the presence of the peace officer.


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(b) If a peace officer has probable cause to believe that a person has committed any act that constitutes harassing or stalking any person in violation of section 609.749; domestic abuse as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2; violation of an order for protection as described in section 518B.01, subdivision 14; or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order as described in section 629.75 and the person was not arrested, the peace officer should seek a warrant from a judge for the person's arrest without undue delay.  A warrant issued under this paragraph is not subject to the limitations described in section 629.31.

 

Sec. 84.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.341, subdivision 4, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4.  Report required.  (a) Whenever a peace officer investigates an allegation that an incident described in subdivision 1 has occurred, whether or not an arrest is made, a person has committed a qualified domestic violence‑related offense and the victim is a family or household member, the officer shall make a written police report of the alleged incident regardless of whether an arrest is made.  The report must contain at least the following information:  the name, address and telephone number of the victim, if provided by the victim, a statement as to whether an arrest occurred, the name of the arrested person, and a brief summary of the incident.  Data that identify a victim who has made a request under section 13.82, subdivision 17, paragraph (d), and that are private data under that subdivision, shall be private in the report required by this section.  A copy of this report must be provided upon request, at no cost, to the victim of domestic abuse, the victim's attorney, or organizations designated by the Office of Justice Programs in the Department of Public Safety that are providing services to victims of domestic abuse.  The officer shall submit the report to the officer's supervisor or other person to whom the employer's rules or policies require reports of similar allegations of criminal activity to be made.

 

(b) As used in this subdivision:

 

(1) "qualified domestic violence-related offense" has the meaning given in section 609.02, subdivision 16; and

 

(2) "family or household member" has the meaning given in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, paragraph (b).

 

Sec. 85.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.72, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 1a.  Detention in lieu of citation; release.  (a) Notwithstanding any other law or rule, an arresting officer may not issue a citation in lieu of arrest and detention to an individual charged with harassing or stalking, domestic abuse, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order.

 

(b) Notwithstanding any other law or rule, an individual who is arrested on a charge of harassing or stalking any person, domestic abuse, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order, must be brought to the police station or county jail.  An individual who is arrested on a charge of violation of an order for protection or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order must be detained until the person's first court appearance as required under sections 518B.01, subdivision 14, paragraph (e), and 629.75, subdivision 3.  The officer in charge of the police station or the county sheriff in charge of the jail shall issue a citation in lieu of continued detention for a charge of harassing or stalking any person or for domestic abuse unless it reasonably appears to the officer or sheriff that release of the person (1) poses a threat to the alleged victim or another family or household member, (2) poses a threat to public safety, or (3) involves a substantial likelihood the arrested person will fail to appear at subsequent proceedings.  In determining if the person poses a threat to the alleged victim or another family or household member, the officer in charge of the police station or the county sheriff in charge of the jail must consider the person's history of domestic violence, including but not limited to:

 

(i) any previous arrest or conviction for harassing or stalking any person, domestic abuse, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order;


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(ii) any order for protection, harassment restraining order, or domestic abuse no contact order in which the person was identified as the subject of the order; and

 

(iii) any pending petitions for an order for protection or a harassment restraining order in which the person is a respondent.

 

(c) If the arrested person is not issued a citation by the officer in charge of the police station or the county sheriff, the arrested person must be brought before the nearest available judge of the district court in the county in which the alleged harassing or stalking, domestic abuse, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order took place without unnecessary delay as provided by court rule.

 

Sec. 86.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.72, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Judicial review; release; bail.  (a) The judge before whom the arrested person is brought shall review the facts surrounding the arrest and detention of a person arrested for domestic abuse, harassing or stalking, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order.  The prosecutor or prosecutor's designee shall present relevant information involving the victim's or the victim's family's account of the alleged crime to the judge to be considered in determining the arrested person's release.  If the person was arrested for violation of an order for protection or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order, the prosecutor or prosecutor's designee must describe the allegations in the underlying petition or criminal case.  The prosecutor or prosecutor's designee may present information and bail recommendations in person or by filing it with the court through the appropriate electronic filing system.  In making a decision concerning pretrial release conditions of a person arrested for domestic abuse, harassing or stalking, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order, the judge shall review the facts of the arrest and detention of the person and the relevant information presented or filed by the prosecutor or prosecutor's designee and determine whether:  (1) release of the person poses a threat to the alleged victim, another family or household member, or public safety; or (2) there is a substantial likelihood the person will fail to appear at subsequent proceedings.  Before releasing a person arrested for or charged with a crime of domestic abuse, harassing or stalking, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order, the judge shall make findings on the record, to the extent possible, concerning the determination made in accordance with the factors specified in clauses (1) and (2).  The findings should describe whether the person:

 

(i) was previously arrested for, or convicted of, harassing or stalking any person, domestic abuse, violation of an order for protection, or violation of a domestic abuse no contact order;

 

(ii) has ever been the subject of an order for protection, harassment restraining order, or domestic abuse no contact order and, if so, the nature of the allegations or charges that gave rise to the order; and

 

(iii) is the respondent in any pending petition for an order for protection or harassment restraining order and, if so, the nature of the allegations in any petition.

 

(b) The judge may impose conditions of release or bail, or both, on the person to protect the alleged victim or other family or household members and to ensure the appearance of the person at subsequent proceedings.  These conditions may include an order:

 

(1) enjoining the person from threatening to commit or committing acts of domestic abuse or harassing or stalking against the alleged victim or other family or household members or from violating an order for protection or a domestic abuse no contact order;

 

(2) prohibiting the person from harassing, annoying, telephoning, contacting, or otherwise communicating with the alleged victim, either directly or indirectly;


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(3) directing the person to vacate or stay away from the home of the alleged victim and to stay away from any other location where the alleged victim is likely to be;

 

(4) prohibiting the person from possessing a firearm or other weapon specified by the court;

 

(5) prohibiting the person from possessing or consuming alcohol or controlled substances; and

 

(6) specifying any other matter required to protect the safety of the alleged victim and to ensure the appearance of the person at subsequent proceedings.

 

(c) If conditions of release are imposed, the judge shall issue a written order for conditional release.  The court administrator shall immediately distribute a copy of the order for conditional release to the agency having custody of the arrested person and shall provide the agency having custody of the arrested person with any available information on the location of the victim in a manner that protects the victim's safety.  Either the court or its designee or the agency having custody of the arrested person shall serve upon the defendant a copy of the order.  Failure to serve the arrested person with a copy of the order for conditional release does not invalidate the conditions of release.

 

(d) If the judge imposes as a condition of release a requirement that the person have no contact with the alleged victim, the judge may also, on its own motion or that of the prosecutor or on request of the victim, issue an ex parte temporary restraining order under section 609.748, subdivision 4, or an ex parte temporary order for protection under section 518B.01, subdivision 7.  Notwithstanding section 518B.01, subdivision 7, paragraph (b), or 609.748, subdivision 4, paragraph (c), the temporary order is effective until the defendant is convicted or acquitted, or the charge is dismissed, provided that upon request the defendant is entitled to a full hearing on the restraining order under section 609.748, subdivision 5, or on the order for protection under section 518B.01.  The hearing must be held within seven days of the defendant's request.

 

Sec. 87.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 629.72, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2a.  Electronic monitoring; condition of pretrial release.  (a) Until the commissioner of corrections has adopted standards governing electronic monitoring devices used to protect victims of domestic abuse, the court, as a condition of release, may not order a person arrested for a crime described in section 609.135, subdivision 5a, paragraph (b), to use an electronic monitoring device to protect a victim's safety.

 

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), the chief judge of a judicial district may appoint and convene an advisory group comprised of representatives from law enforcement, prosecutors, defense attorneys, corrections, court administrators, judges, and battered women's domestic abuse organizations to develop standards for the use of electronic monitoring and global positioning system devices to protect victims of domestic abuse and for evaluating the effectiveness of electronic monitoring.  After the advisory group does this, the chief judge, in consultation with the advisory group, may conduct a pilot project for implementation of the electronic monitoring standards.  A judicial district that conducts a pilot project shall report on the standards and the pilot project to the chairs and ranking minority members of the senate and house of representatives committees having jurisdiction over criminal justice policy and the state court administrator's office.

 

Sec. 88.  RULEMAKING; DEPARTMENT OF CORRECTIONS; LICENSED JUVENILE FACILITIES.

 

Subdivision 1.  Administrative and medical separation.  (a) The notification requirements in this subdivision apply to juvenile facilities licensed by the commissioner of corrections under Minnesota Statutes, sections 241.011 to 241.013.


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(b) A facility's chief administrator must notify the commissioner according to Minnesota Rules, part 2960.0270, subpart 12, if a resident is expected to be, or has been, in administrative or medical separation for more than seven days.

 

(c) The notification under paragraph (b) must be within ten days of the resident's placement, or expected placement, in administrative separation or medical separation for more than seven days.

 

(d) This subdivision expires when the rules adopted under subdivision 2 are effective.

 

Subd. 2.  Rulemaking.  (a) The commissioner of corrections must amend Minnesota Rules, parts 2960.0740, subpart 3, and 2960.0750, subpart 3, to require notification according to subdivision 1, paragraphs (b) and (c).

 

(b) The commissioner may use the good cause exemption under Minnesota Statutes, section 14.388, subdivision 1, clause (3), to adopt rules under this subdivision.

 

(c) Notwithstanding Minnesota Laws 1995, chapter 226, article 3, sections 50, 51, and 60, or any other law to the contrary, the joint rulemaking authority with the commissioners of the Department of Human Services and other state agencies does not apply to rules adopted under this subdivision.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective the day following final enactment.

 

Sec. 89.  REVISOR INSTRUCTION.

 

(a) The revisor of statutes must renumber each section of Minnesota Statutes listed in column A with the number listed in column B.

 

 

Column A

 

Column B

 

241.021, subdivision 4

241.74, subdivision 1

 

241.021, subdivision 4a

241.39

 

241.021, subdivision 4b

241.74, subdivision 2, paragraph (a)

 

241.021, subdivision 4c

241.74, subdivision 2, paragraph (b)

 

241.021, subdivision 4d

241.74, subdivision 3

 

241.021, subdivision 4e

241.254

 

(b) As a result of amendments to Minnesota Statutes, sections 241.011 to 241.021, the revisor of statutes must work with the Department of Corrections to correct cross-references in Minnesota Statutes and Minnesota Rules and make other necessary grammatical and technical changes.

 

Sec. 90.  REVISOR INSTRUCTION.

 

The revisor of statutes must change the term "battered women" to "domestic abuse victims" or a similar term wherever the term or similar terms appear in Minnesota Statutes.  The revisor must make any necessary grammatical changes or changes to sentence structure necessary to preserve the meaning of the text as a result of the changes.

 

Sec. 91.  REPEALER.

 

(a) Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 241.021, subdivisions 1g, 1h, 2a, 2b, 3, and 6; 299C.12; and 629.72, subdivision 3, are repealed.

 

(b) Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 241.021, subdivision 2, is repealed."


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Delete the title and insert:

 

"A bill for an act relating to public safety; providing policy for public safety, correctional facilities, investigations, Department of Public Safety data, controlled substances, crime victims, orders for protection, private detective and protective agent licensure, employment disqualifications, sentence adjustments, expungement relief, domestic abuse-related crimes and data, use of chemical irritants, and crimes of coercion, retail theft, identity theft, and fraud; providing for reimbursements; replacing the term "battered women" in statute where it appears; providing criminal penalties; requiring reports; requiring rulemaking; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 8.16, subdivision 1; 12.221, subdivision 6; 13.69, subdivision 1; 13.6905, by adding subdivisions; 13.871, subdivision 5; 116L.362, subdivision 1; 119A.37, subdivision 4; 142G.12, subdivision 2; 142G.53; 152.027, subdivision 7; 203B.06, subdivision 3; 203B.11, subdivision 1; 241.021, subdivisions 1f, 1i, 4a; 241.69, subdivisions 1, 3, 4, 5, 6; 256D.02, subdivision 12a; 256G.02, subdivision 6; 257.75, subdivision 6; 260E.02, subdivision 1; 299A.85, subdivision 4; 299A.90, subdivision 3; 299C.05; 299C.065, subdivisions 1, 1a, 2, 3, 3a; 299C.46, subdivision 6; 326.32, subdivisions 8, 10, 10a, 10c, 12; 326.33, subdivision 1; 326.3381, subdivisions 2, 4; 326.3382, subdivisions 1, 4; 326.3385, subdivision 2; 326.3386, subdivision 3; 364.03, subdivision 3; 364.05; 518B.02, subdivision 2; 609.133, subdivision 4; 609.19, subdivision 2; 609.27, subdivision 2; 609.3471; 609.522, subdivisions 1, 2; 609.527, subdivision 1; 609.605, subdivision 2; 609.7495, subdivision 1; 609A.015, subdivision 5; 611A.03, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 611A.0311, subdivision 1; 611A.036, subdivision 7; 611A.038; 611A.039, subdivision 1; 611A.31, subdivision 5; 629.341, subdivisions 1, 4; 629.72, subdivisions 1a, 2, 2a; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 120B.22, subdivision 1; 201.061, subdivision 3; 241.021, subdivision 1; 244.46, subdivision 1; 256G.03, subdivision 2; 299C.80, subdivision 6; 388.23, subdivision 1; 609.101, subdivision 2; 609.2334, subdivision 11; 628.26; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 241; 626; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 241.021, subdivisions 1g, 1h, 2a, 2b, 3, 6; 299C.12; 629.72, subdivision 3; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 241.021, subdivision 2."

 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

Novotny moved to amend S. F. No. 4760, the second engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 50, after line 2, insert:

 

"EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective the day following final enactment."

 

Page 50, after line 15, insert:

 

"EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective the day following final enactment."

 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

Lee, F., moved to amend S. F. No. 4760, the second engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 44, after line 23, insert:

 

"Sec. 44.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 299C.76, subdivision 1, is amended to read:

 

Subdivision 1.  Definitions.  (a) For the purposes of this section, the following definitions apply.


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(b) "Federal tax information" means federal tax returns and return information or information derived or created from federal tax returns, in possession of or control by the requesting agency, that is covered by the safeguarding provisions of section 6103(p)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code.

 

(c) "IRS Publication 1075" means Internal Revenue Service Publication 1075 that provides guidance and requirements for the protection and confidentiality of federal tax information as required in section 6103(p)(4) of the Internal Revenue Code.

 

(d) "National criminal history record information" means the Federal Bureau of Investigation identification records as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 28, section 20.3(d).

 

(e) "Requesting agency" means the Department of Revenue; Department of Employment and Economic Development; Department of Human Services; Department of Children, Youth, and Families; board of directors of MNsure; Department of Information Technology Services; attorney general; Office of the Legislative Auditor; and counties."

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

Witte moved to amend S. F. No. 4760, the second engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 32, after line 13, insert:

 

"Sec. 24.  Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 241.021, subdivision 4f, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 4f.  Provision of medications in correctional facilities.  (a) Correctional facilities licensed by the commissioner shall administer to confined and incarcerated persons the same medications prescribed to those individuals prior to their confinement or incarceration upon such prescriptions being verified as current and valid by the correctional facility based on information reasonably available to the facility's staff at the time of intake and documented in the person's medical records.  A facility must make a reasonable attempt to verify a prescription as current and valid and staff must document their efforts to verify the prescription.  A reasonable attempt will be considered to have been made if a licensed health care professional or facility staff seeks to confirm the prescription through one or more reliable sources, including but not limited to the confined or incarcerated person, prescription records, pharmacies, health care providers, or prescription monitoring programs.

 

(b) Unless a confined or incarcerated person is subject to a Jarvis order, which is an order issued under section 253B.092, subdivision 8, that dictates otherwise, paragraph (a) does not apply when:

 

(1) a licensed health care professional determines, after consulting making reasonable efforts to consult with the licensed health care professional who prescribed the medication, that the prescribed medication is not medically appropriate for the person based on the person's current medical condition or status;

 

(2) a licensed health care professional determines a that the medication should be changed to a different medication available to treat the condition that is at least as effective as the current medication the person is prescribed is available to treat the condition and the licensed health care professional who prescribed the current medication approves the change in medications and reasonable attempts were made to consult the health care professional who prescribed the medication; or


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(3) the physical or mental condition of the person creates a medical or mental health emergency that requires an immediate medication change based on circumstances that either exist or would be caused by the continuation of current medications when those circumstances are identified and documented by a licensed health care professional; or

 

(4) the person provides written notice to informs the licensed health care professional who is responsible for inmate health care at the correctional facility or the licensed health care professional's designee that the person no longer desires to take the medication and the decision is documented in the person's medical records.

 

(c) As used in this subdivision, "licensed health care professional" means a physician licensed under chapter 147, physician assistant licensed under chapter 147A, or advanced practice registered nurse as defined in section 148.171, subdivision 3."

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

Duran moved to amend S. F. No. 4760, the second engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 37, after line 10, insert:

 

"Sec. 34.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260B.007, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Delinquent child.  (a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), "delinquent child" means a child:

 

(1) who has violated any state or local law, except as provided in section 260B.225, subdivision 1, and except for juvenile offenders as described in subdivisions 16 to 18;

 

(2) who has violated a federal law or a law of another state and whose case has been referred to the juvenile court if the violation would be an act of delinquency if committed in this state or a crime or offense if committed by an adult;

 

(3) who has escaped from confinement to a state juvenile correctional facility after being committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections; or

 

(4) who has escaped from confinement to a local juvenile correctional facility after being committed to the facility by the court.

 

(b) The term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have committed murder in the first degree after becoming 16 years of age, but the term delinquent child does include a child alleged to have committed attempted murder in the first degree.

 

(c) The term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have engaged in conduct which would, if committed by an adult, violate any federal, state, or local law relating to being hired, offering to be hired, or agreeing to be hired by another individual to engage in sexual penetration or sexual conduct.


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(d) Effective August 1, 2026 2027, and applied to acts committed on or after that date, the term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have committed a delinquent act before becoming 13 years old.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026.

 

Sec. 35.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.007, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Child in need of protection or services.  "Child in need of protection or services" means a child who is in need of protection or services because the child:

 

(1) is abandoned or without parent, guardian, or custodian;

 

(2)(i) has been a victim of physical or sexual abuse as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 18 or 20, (ii) resides with or has resided with a victim of child abuse as defined in subdivision 5 or domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision 13, (iii) resides with or would reside with a perpetrator of domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision 13 or child abuse as defined in subdivision 5 or 13, or (iv) is a victim of emotional maltreatment as defined in subdivision 15;

 

(3) is without necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or other required care for the child's physical or mental health or morals because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide that care;

 

(4) is without the special care made necessary by a physical, mental, or emotional condition because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide that care;

 

(5) is medically neglected, which includes, but is not limited to, the withholding of medically indicated treatment from an infant with a disability with a life-threatening condition.  The term "withholding of medically indicated treatment" means the failure to respond to the infant's life-threatening conditions by providing treatment, including appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication which, in the treating physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's reasonable medical judgment, will be most likely to be effective in ameliorating or correcting all conditions, except that the term does not include the failure to provide treatment other than appropriate nutrition, hydration, or medication to an infant when, in the treating physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's reasonable medical judgment:

 

(i) the infant is chronically and irreversibly comatose;

 

(ii) the provision of the treatment would merely prolong dying, not be effective in ameliorating or correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions, or otherwise be futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or

 

(iii) the provision of the treatment would be virtually futile in terms of the survival of the infant and the treatment itself under the circumstances would be inhumane;

 

(6) is one whose parent, guardian, or other custodian for good cause desires to be relieved of the child's care and custody, including a child who entered foster care under a voluntary placement agreement between the parent and the responsible social services agency under section 260C.227;

 

(7) has been placed for adoption or care in violation of law;

 

(8) is without proper parental care because of the emotional, mental, or physical disability, or state of immaturity of the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian.  A child is not considered to be without proper parental care based solely on the disability of the child's parent, guardian, or custodian;


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(9) is one whose behavior, condition, or environment is such as to be injurious or dangerous to the child or others.  An injurious or dangerous environment may include, but is not limited to, the exposure of a child to criminal activity in the child's home;

 

(10) is experiencing growth delays, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that have been diagnosed by a physician and are due to parental neglect;

 

(11) is a sexually exploited youth;

 

(12) is a labor trafficked youth;

 

(13) has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense before becoming ten years old.  This clause expires July 31, 2026;

 

(14) is a runaway;

 

(15) is a habitual truant;

 

(16) has been found incompetent to proceed or has been found not guilty by reason of mental illness or mental deficiency in connection with a delinquency proceeding, a certification under section 260B.125, an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, or a proceeding involving a juvenile petty offense;

 

(17) has a parent whose parental rights to one or more other children were involuntarily terminated or whose custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to a relative and there is a case plan prepared by the responsible social services agency documenting a compelling reason why filing the termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.503, subdivision 2, is not in the best interests of the child; or

 

(18) effective August 1, 2026 2027, has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense before becoming 13 years old.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026."

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.

 

 

      The question was taken on the Duran amendment and the roll was called.  There were 66 yeas and 67 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Bliss

Burkel

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Engen

Fogelman

Franson

Gander

Gillman

Gordon

Harder

Heintzeman

Hudson

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lawrence

McDonald

Mekeland

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Perryman

Quam

Rarick

Repinski

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6290

       Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Elkins

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Huot

Hussein

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Noor

Norris

Pérez-Vega

Pinto

Pursell

Rehm

Rehrauer

Reyer

Sencer-Mura

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim


 

 

      The motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.

 

 

Duran moved to amend S. F. No. 4760, the second engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 37, after line 10, insert:

 

"Sec. 34.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260B.007, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Delinquent child.  (a) Except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d), "delinquent child" means a child:

 

(1) who has violated any state or local law, except as provided in section 260B.225, subdivision 1, and except for juvenile offenders as described in subdivisions 16 to 18;

 

(2) who has violated a federal law or a law of another state and whose case has been referred to the juvenile court if the violation would be an act of delinquency if committed in this state or a crime or offense if committed by an adult;

 

(3) who has escaped from confinement to a state juvenile correctional facility after being committed to the custody of the commissioner of corrections; or

 

(4) who has escaped from confinement to a local juvenile correctional facility after being committed to the facility by the court.

 

(b) The term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have committed murder in the first degree after becoming 16 years of age, but the term delinquent child does include a child alleged to have committed attempted murder in the first degree.

 

(c) The term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have engaged in conduct which would, if committed by an adult, violate any federal, state, or local law relating to being hired, offering to be hired, or agreeing to be hired by another individual to engage in sexual penetration or sexual conduct.

 

(d) Effective August 1, 2026, and applied to acts committed on or after that date, the term delinquent child does not include a child alleged to have committed a delinquent act before becoming 13 years old unless the child was at least ten years old and alleged to have committed a crime of violence as defined in section 624.712, subdivision 5.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6291

Sec. 35.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 260C.007, subdivision 6, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 6.  Child in need of protection or services.  "Child in need of protection or services" means a child who is in need of protection or services because the child:

 

(1) is abandoned or without parent, guardian, or custodian;

 

(2)(i) has been a victim of physical or sexual abuse as defined in section 260E.03, subdivision 18 or 20, (ii) resides with or has resided with a victim of child abuse as defined in subdivision 5 or domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision 13, (iii) resides with or would reside with a perpetrator of domestic child abuse as defined in subdivision 13 or child abuse as defined in subdivision 5 or 13, or (iv) is a victim of emotional maltreatment as defined in subdivision 15;

 

(3) is without necessary food, clothing, shelter, education, or other required care for the child's physical or mental health or morals because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide that care;

 

(4) is without the special care made necessary by a physical, mental, or emotional condition because the child's parent, guardian, or custodian is unable or unwilling to provide that care;

 

(5) is medically neglected, which includes, but is not limited to, the withholding of medically indicated treatment from an infant with a disability with a life-threatening condition.  The term "withholding of medically indicated treatment" means the failure to respond to the infant's life-threatening conditions by providing treatment, including appropriate nutrition, hydration, and medication which, in the treating physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's reasonable medical judgment, will be most likely to be effective in ameliorating or correcting all conditions, except that the term does not include the failure to provide treatment other than appropriate nutrition, hydration, or medication to an infant when, in the treating physician's, advanced practice registered nurse's, or physician assistant's reasonable medical judgment:

 

(i) the infant is chronically and irreversibly comatose;

 

(ii) the provision of the treatment would merely prolong dying, not be effective in ameliorating or correcting all of the infant's life-threatening conditions, or otherwise be futile in terms of the survival of the infant; or

 

(iii) the provision of the treatment would be virtually futile in terms of the survival of the infant and the treatment itself under the circumstances would be inhumane;

 

(6) is one whose parent, guardian, or other custodian for good cause desires to be relieved of the child's care and custody, including a child who entered foster care under a voluntary placement agreement between the parent and the responsible social services agency under section 260C.227;

 

(7) has been placed for adoption or care in violation of law;

 

(8) is without proper parental care because of the emotional, mental, or physical disability, or state of immaturity of the child's parent, guardian, or other custodian.  A child is not considered to be without proper parental care based solely on the disability of the child's parent, guardian, or custodian;

 

(9) is one whose behavior, condition, or environment is such as to be injurious or dangerous to the child or others.  An injurious or dangerous environment may include, but is not limited to, the exposure of a child to criminal activity in the child's home;

 

(10) is experiencing growth delays, which may be referred to as failure to thrive, that have been diagnosed by a physician and are due to parental neglect;


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6292

(11) is a sexually exploited youth;

 

(12) is a labor trafficked youth;

 

(13) has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense before becoming ten years old.  This clause expires July 31, 2026;

 

(14) is a runaway;

 

(15) is a habitual truant;

 

(16) has been found incompetent to proceed or has been found not guilty by reason of mental illness or mental deficiency in connection with a delinquency proceeding, a certification under section 260B.125, an extended jurisdiction juvenile prosecution, or a proceeding involving a juvenile petty offense;

 

(17) has a parent whose parental rights to one or more other children were involuntarily terminated or whose custodial rights to another child have been involuntarily transferred to a relative and there is a case plan prepared by the responsible social services agency documenting a compelling reason why filing the termination of parental rights petition under section 260C.503, subdivision 2, is not in the best interests of the child; or

 

(18) effective August 1, 2026, has committed a delinquent act or a juvenile petty offense before becoming 13 years old unless the child was at least ten years old and alleged to have committed a crime of violence as defined in section 624.712, subdivision 5.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026."

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.

 

 

      The question was taken on the Duran amendment and the roll was called.  There were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Bliss

Burkel

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Engen

Fogelman

Franson

Gander

Gillman

Gordon

Harder

Heintzeman

Hudson

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lawrence

McDonald

Mekeland

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Perryman

Quam

Rarick

Repinski

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Elkins

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6293

Hanson, J.

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Huot

Hussein

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Noor

Norris

Pérez-Vega

Pinto

Pursell

Rehm

Rehrauer

Reyer

Sencer-Mura

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim


 

 

      The motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.

 

 

Greenman moved to amend S. F. No. 4760, the second engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 62, after line 21, insert:

 

"Sec. 72.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 609.75, subdivision 3, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 3.  What are not bets.  The following are not bets:

 

(1) a contract to insure, indemnify, guarantee or otherwise compensate another for a harm or loss sustained, even though the loss depends upon chance;

 

(2) a contract for the purchase or sale at a future date of securities or other commodities, except as provided in section 609.7615;

 

(3) offers of purses, prizes or premiums to the actual contestants in any bona fide contest for the determination of skill, speed, strength, endurance, or quality or to the bona fide owners of animals or other property entered in such a contest;

 

(4) the game of bingo when conducted in compliance with sections 349.11 to 349.23;

 

(5) a private social bet not part of or incidental to organized, commercialized, or systematic gambling;

 

(6) the operation of equipment or the conduct of a raffle under sections 349.11 to 349.22, by an organization licensed by the Gambling Control Board or an organization exempt from licensing under section 349.166;

 

(7) pari-mutuel betting on horse racing when the betting is conducted under chapter 240; and

 

(8) the purchase and sale of State Lottery tickets under chapter 349A.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026.

 

Sec. 73.  [609.7615] PREDICTION MARKETS.

 

Subdivision 1.  Definitions.  (a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.

 

(b) "Athletic event" means a sports game, match, or activity, or series of games, matches, activities, or tournaments involving the physical proficiency of one or more players or participants.  Athletic event includes horse racing as defined in section 240.01, subdivision 8.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6294

(c) "Esports event" means a competition between individuals or teams using video games in a game, match, contest, or series of games, matches, or contests, or a tournament, or by a person or team against a specified measure of performance which is hosted at a physical location or online.

 

(d) "Game of skill" means a game, match, or tournament, or a series of games, matches, and tournaments involving the dexterity or mental skill of one or more players or participants.  Game of skill includes an esports event.

 

(e) "Prediction market" means a system that allows consumers to place a wager on the future outcome of a specified event that is not determined or affected by the performance of the parties to the contract, including but not limited to:

 

(1) an athletic event or game of skill, or portions thereof or individual performance statistics therein;

 

(2) any game played with cards, dice, equipment, or any mechanical or electronic device or machine;

 

(3) war, state or national emergencies, natural or human-made disasters, mass shootings, acts of terrorism, or public health crises, or the ancillary effects thereof;

 

(4) any event or events happening to a natural person or group of people;

 

(5) a federal, state, or local election, or the actions or conduct of the federal, state, or local government and the government's agencies, employees, and officers;

 

(6) legal actions, including but not limited to a civil or criminal suit, grand jury action, jury trial, settlement, plea, or conviction;

 

(7) the death, assassination, or attempted killing of a person or group of persons, or mass casualty events;

 

(8) the weather;

 

(9) events in popular culture, including but not limited to awards and the date a piece of entertainment will be released; and

 

(10) whether a person will make a particular statement.

 

(f) "Wager" means a contract, including a prediction market contract, whereby the parties to the contract agree to a gain or loss by one to the other of money, property, or benefit.

 

Subd. 2.  Prediction markets; hosting prohibited.  A person is guilty of a felony if the person, for consideration and as part of a business:

 

(1) creates a prediction market;

 

(2) operates, manages, or controls a platform or system intending that consumers will use the platform or system to make wagers in a prediction market;

 

(3) intentionally facilitates the operation of a prediction market by:

 

(i) identifying or listing events knowing the events will be used by consumers to make wagers;


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6295

(ii) accepting, holding, or directing the disposition of funds or other things of value for the purpose of allowing consumers to make wagers or to settle wagers made by consumers;

 

(iii) determining, administering, or enforcing the terms, pricing, or settlement of wagers made by consumers;

 

(iv) regularly or continuously acting as a counterparty to wagers made by consumers by entering into a wager, offering to enter into a wager, or taking a temporary position in a wager that may be replaced by a different consumer; or

 

(v) setting or adjusting the prices, odds, or terms that apply to wagers entered into by consumers;

 

(4) provides data, information, or verification services, including the provision of event outcomes, directly to a prediction market knowing that the data, information, or verification services will be used to allow consumers to make wagers or to settle wagers made by consumers; or

 

(5) provides supportive services to a prediction market or consumer knowing that the services will be used to identify a consumer's location, transfer funds, or make or process payments for the purpose of allowing consumers to make wagers or to settle wagers made by consumers.

 

Subd. 3.  Prediction markets; advertising prohibited.  Whoever advertises or markets financial or technological products that promote transactions prohibited under this section is guilty of a felony.

 

Subd. 4.  Exceptions.  Subdivision 2 does not apply to:

 

(1) activities that are not bets under section 609.75, subdivision 3; and

 

(2) contracts authorized and regulated under chapters 59A to 79A.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to crimes committed on or after that date."

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.

 

 

POINT OF ORDER

 

      West raised a point of order pursuant to rule 4.03, relating to Ways and Means Committee; Budget Resolution; Effect on Expenditure and Revenue Bills, that the Greenman amendment was not in order.  Speaker pro tempore Olson ruled the point of order not well taken and the Greenman amendment in order.

 

 

      The question recurred on the Greenman amendment and the roll was called.  There were 72 yeas and 59 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Bakeberg

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Elkins

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Huot

Hussein

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6296

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Myers

Nadeau

Noor

Norris

Pérez-Vega

Pinto

Pursell

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Reyer

Sencer-Mura

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Baker

Bliss

Burkel

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Engen

Fogelman

Franson

Gander

Gillman

Gordon

Harder

Heintzeman

Hudson

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Kresha

Lawrence

McDonald

Mekeland

Mueller

Murphy

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Perryman

Quam

Repinski

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

      S. F. No. 4760, A bill for an act relating to public safety; modifying provisions regarding data protection, domestic abuse, victims' rights, license revocation, community-based correctional facilities, private detectives and protective agents, law enforcement grants, criminal records, orders for protection, harassment restraining orders, judicial officials, disqualifications based on criminal history, substance abuse care, mental health unit beds, community supervision, medication for incarcerated persons, the crime of coercion, reverse-location data, financial crimes and fraud, organized retail theft, age deception, background checks, eviction processes, and smoke alarms; extending the time available to use an appropriation; making technical corrections; providing criminal penalties; requiring a report; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13.69, subdivision 1; 13.6905, by adding subdivisions; 13.871, subdivision 5; 116L.362, subdivision 1; 119A.37, subdivision 4; 142G.12, subdivision 2; 142G.53; 171.09, subdivision 3; 171.12, subdivision 7c, by adding a subdivision; 171.177, subdivision 8; 203B.06, subdivision 3; 203B.11, subdivision 1; 241.021, subdivisions 1f, 1i, 4a; 241.69, subdivisions 1, 3, 4, 5, 6; 244.10, subdivision 5a; 256D.02, subdivision 12a; 256G.02, subdivision 6; 257.75, subdivision 6; 260E.02, subdivision 1; 299A.85, subdivision 4; 299A.90, subdivision 3; 299C.05; 299C.065; 299C.46, subdivision 6; 326.32, subdivisions 8, 10, 10a, 10c, 12; 326.33, subdivision 1; 326.3381, subdivisions 2, 4; 326.3382, subdivisions 1, 4; 326.3385, subdivision 2; 326.3386, subdivision 3; 364.03, subdivision 3; 364.05; 504B.321, subdivision 2; 518B.01, subdivision 6; 518B.02, subdivision 2; 559.21, by adding a subdivision; 609.133, subdivision 4; 609.27, subdivision 2; 609.3471; 609.522, subdivisions 1, 2; 609.527, subdivision 1; 609.605, subdivision 2; 609.748, by adding a subdivision; 609.7495, subdivision 1; 609A.015, subdivision 5; 611A.03, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 611A.0311, subdivision 1; 611A.036, subdivision 7; 611A.038; 611A.039, subdivision 1; 611A.31, subdivision 5; 629.341, subdivisions 1, 4; 629.72, subdivisions 1a, 2, 2a, 6; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 120B.22, subdivision 1; 171.12, subdivision 7; 171.178, subdivision 5; 171.306, subdivision 1; 201.061, subdivision 3; 241.021, subdivisions 1, 4f; 256G.03, subdivision 2; 299C.061, subdivision 3; 299C.76, subdivision 1; 299C.80, subdivision 6; 480.40, subdivision 1; 480.50, subdivision 1; 609.101, subdivision 2; 609.2334, subdivision 11; 628.26; Laws 2023, chapter 52, article 2, section 3, subdivision 8, as amended; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 241; 518B; 559; 609; 626; 626A; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 169A.54, subdivision 6; 241.021, subdivisions 1g, 1h, 2a, 2b, 3, 6; 299C.12; 629.72, subdivision 3; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 241.021, subdivision 2.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6297

       The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and placed upon its final passage.

 

      The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 116 yeas and 16 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Robbins

Schomacker

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Altendorf

Davis

Dippel

Fogelman

Gordon

Heintzeman

Jacob

Joy

Knudsen

Murphy

O'Driscoll

Roach

Rymer

Schultz

West

Wiener


 

 

      The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.

 

 

      The Speaker assumed the Chair.

 

 

      S. F. No. 2971, A bill for an act relating to transportation; requiring data collection on bridge-related suicides; requiring development of best practices for suicide prevention on bridges; requiring implementation of suicide reduction railings on bridge projects identified as appropriate and feasible; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 165.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.

 

      The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 134 yeas and 0 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6298

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The bill was passed and its title agreed to.

 

 

      S. F. No. 3888, A bill for an act relating to transportation; permitting tow trucks to use variable message signs; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 168B.16.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.

 

      The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 134 yeas and 0 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The bill was passed and its title agreed to.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6299

       H. F. No. 4063 was reported to the House.

 

 

Rehm moved to amend H. F. No. 4063, the first engrossment, as follows:

 

Page 2, delete section 2

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title as follows:

 

Page 1, line 2, delete everything after the semicolon

 

Page 1, line 3, delete everything before "modifying"

 

Correct the title numbers accordingly

 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

      H. F. No. 4063, A bill for an act relating to transportation; modifying stopping requirements for vehicles approaching school buses; modifying first aid kit requirements on school buses; requiring USDOT numbers for all school buses; authorizing use of school buses on public roads for training purposes; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 169.011, subdivision 71; 169.444, subdivision 1; 169.448, subdivision 1; 169.449, by adding a subdivision; 169.454, subdivision 5, by adding a subdivision.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and placed upon its final passage.

 

      The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 134 yeas and 0 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6300

       H. F. No. 3709, A bill for an act relating to financial institutions; allowing certain virtual-currency custody services to be offered and performed; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 48; 52.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.

 

      The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 130 yeas and 4 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Hansen, R.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling


 

 

      The bill was passed and its title agreed to.

 

 

      S. F. No. 4171 was reported to the House.

 

 

Dotseth moved to amend S. F. No. 4171, the first engrossment, as follows:

 

Page 3, after line 10, insert:

 

"Sec. 4.  Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 504B.321, subdivision 2, is amended to read:

 

Subd. 2.  Expedited procedure.  (a) In an eviction action brought under section 504B.171 or on the basis that the residential tenant engages in behavior that seriously endangers the safety of other residents, assaults the landlord or the landlord's employees or contractors, or intentionally and seriously damages the property of the landlord or a tenant, the person filing the complaint shall file an affidavit stating specific facts and instances in support of why an expedited hearing is required.  For the purposes of this subdivision, "assault" has the meaning given in section 609.02, subdivision 10.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6301

(b) The complaint and affidavit shall be reviewed by a referee or judge and scheduled for an expedited hearing only if sufficient supporting facts are stated and they meet the requirements of this paragraph.

 

(c) The appearance in an expedited hearing shall be not less than five days nor more than seven days from the date the summons is issued.  The summons, in an expedited hearing, shall be served upon the residential tenant within 24 hours of issuance unless the court orders otherwise for good cause shown.

 

(d) If the court determines that the person seeking an expedited hearing did so without sufficient basis under the requirements of this subdivision, the court shall impose a civil penalty of up to $500 $750 for abuse of the expedited hearing process.

 

(e) The court may only consider allegations under paragraph (a) during an expedited hearing.  The court may not consolidate claims heard under the expedited procedure with any additional claims, including but not limited to breach of lease, holding over under section 504B.285, or nonpayment of rent under section 504B.291.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to eviction actions filed on or after that date."

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

Hussein moved to amend S. F. No. 4171, the first engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 2, after line 28, insert:

 

"Sec. 3.  [504B.2136] MINORS AS DEFENDANTS PROHIBITED.

 

(a) A residential landlord shall not list the minor child of a residential tenant as a defendant in an eviction action complaint against a residential tenant.  If a minor is the only person renting the unit from the landlord, the landlord may list the minor as a defendant in an eviction action complaint against the minor.

 

(b) The requirements of this section may not be waived or modified by the parties to a residential lease.  Any provision, whether oral or written, of a lease or other agreement by which any provision of this section is waived by a tenant is contrary to public policy and void.

 

(c) The tenant shall recover from the landlord actual damages or $300, whichever is greater, for a violation of this section.

 

EFFECTIVE DATE.  This section is effective August 1, 2026, and applies to eviction actions filed on or after that date."

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6302

       S. F. No. 4171, A bill for an act relating to housing; providing for submetered utility service final billing for vacating tenants; modifying provisions related to the payment of rent by tenants; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 216B.023, by adding a subdivision; 504B.118; 504B.216, by adding a subdivision.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and placed upon its final passage.

 

      The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 134 yeas and 0 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.

 

 

      S. F. No. 1750 was reported to the House.

 

 

Bahner moved to amend S. F. No. 1750, the second unofficial engrossment, as follows:

 

Page 13, line 32, after the period, insert "Notice may be provided in any reasonable manner."

 

Page 15, line 5, delete "the board proposes, and the association's members approve" and insert ", at a board meeting" and after "amount" insert "is approved by owners of units to which a majority of the votes in the association are allocated,"

 

Page 15, line 6, delete "at an annual meeting,"

 

Page 15, line 9, delete "a resident's" and insert "the" and before the semicolon, insert "of a resident, occupant, or guest"


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6303

Page 15, line 14, before the comma, insert "pursuant to section 515B.3-115(g) or 515B.3-1151(g)"

 

Page 15, line 15, after "it" insert a comma

 

Page 15, line 17, after the period, insert "The unit owner has the right to be advised by an attorney or a designated representative at the hearing."

 

Page 15, line 19, after "a" insert "final"

 

Page 15, line 20, after "provide" insert ", in any reasonable manner,"

 

Page 15, line 21, after the first "the" insert "final resolution within 30 days of its adoption.  The" and delete ", which" and delete "the rationale" and insert "an explanation" and delete the comma

 

Page 15, line 22, delete "within 30 days of adoption"

 

Page 15, line 24, delete "adopt a schedule" and insert "provide a list"

 

Page 15, line 25, before "violations" insert "common" and delete "must provide"

 

Page 15, line 26, delete ".  The association must provide the schedule and description"

 

Page 15, line 28, delete "a unit owner purchases a unit or"

 

Page 15, line 29, delete "when"

 

Page 17, line 1, strike "assistance" and insert "advice"

 

Page 18, delete lines 3 to 7 and insert:

 

"(g) An association may not refuse to accept payment from an owner of any amount for any assessment, fine, or fee, except if the association has commenced a foreclosure under chapter 580 or 581.  Acceptance of a payment does not constitute a waiver of any claim or defense the association may assert.  Nothing in this paragraph affects the unit owner's right to reinstate under section 580.30.

 

(h) A payment by a unit owner must be applied to assessments for common expenses and special assessments first before it is applied to fines, fees, or other assessments, except that the payment can be applied:

 

(1) in a different manner upon the agreement of the unit owner and the association; or

 

(2) by the association to fines that remain unpaid for more than 120 days if the fine is for a violation that:

 

(i) has a serious and immediate impact on the health or safety of a resident, occupant, or guest;

 

(ii) causes physical damage to another unit or a common element; or

 

(iii) involves using the property for financial enrichment, including renting or offering for rent a unit in violation of the declaration, bylaws, or a rule or regulation prohibiting short-term or long-term rentals, as provided under subsection (a)(11).

 

An association must consider offering a reasonable payment plan for a delinquency."

 

Page 18, line 8, delete "(h)" and insert "(i)"


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6304

Page 20, line 18, delete the new language

 

Page 20, delete lines 19 to 22

 

Page 20, line 24, after the period, insert "Elections of directors must occur regularly, as provided in section 515B.3-108.  Each term of a director must not exceed three years, provided there is no limit on the number of terms a director may serve.  The terms of directors must be staggered, unless the duration of the terms is one year or less.  If filling a vacancy on the board of directors, the director will serve the remainder of the term vacated until a new election is held at the end of the term as provided in section 515B.3-108."

 

Page 21, line 6, after the period, insert "The requirement to make documents available to unit owners does not apply to documents related to items discussed at a closed meeting of the board."

 

Page 21, line 11, before "At" insert "Before any action is taken on an agenda item" and delete "before"

 

Page 21, line 12, delete everything before the comma

 

Page 21, line 20, delete everything after "statement"

 

Page 21, line 21 delete everything before the period

 

Page 22, line 15, delete "or property manager"

 

Page 23, line 12, after "process" insert ", including the criteria used,"

 

Page 23, line 13, delete ".  The records must be made available for inspection for a period of" and insert "for the last" and before the period, insert ", and make those records available to unit owners at cost or as otherwise provided in section 515B.3-118" and delete everything after the period

 

Page 23, delete lines 14 to 21

 

Page 23, line 26, delete everything after the period and insert "An association may decline to renew an automatically renewing contract for another term, provided the association gives written notice to the other party no less than three months before the date the contract will automatically renew."

 

Page 23, delete lines 27 to 29

 

Page 26, line 26, delete "vehicle's length" and insert "vehicle, when parked," and after "property" insert ", fully or partially block access to a pedestrian walkway,"

 

Page 26, line 27, delete "or" and insert ", driveways, parking spaces," and before the period, insert ", or limited common elements"

 

Page 27, line 26, after the period, insert "The association shall make available in any reasonable manner a copy of the proposed budget prior to the meeting at which the budget is scheduled to be discussed and approved."

 

Page 28, line 33, delete everything before the period

 

Page 29, line 1, delete "A" and insert "The"

 

Page 29, line 5, after "(2)" insert "a law firm, engaged by the board to foreclose an association's lien for assessments, to send" and delete "be sent"


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6305

Page 29, line 6, delete "when a law firm has been hired to foreclose an association's"

 

Page 29, line 7, delete everything before the period

 

Page 31, line 25, after the period, insert "The association shall make available, in any reasonable manner, a copy of the proposed budget prior to the meeting at which the budget is scheduled to be discussed and approved."

 

Page 33, line 9, delete everything before the period

 

Page 33, line 10, delete "A" and insert "The"

 

Page 33, line 14, after "(2)" insert "a law firm, engaged by the board to foreclose an association's lien for assessments, to send"

 

Page 33, line 15, delete "when a law firm has been hired to foreclose an association's" and insert a period

 

Page 33, delete line 16

 

Page 35, line 6, delete "(c)" and insert "(a), clause (11)"

 

Page 37, delete lines 20 to 22 and insert:

 

"(c) Notice under this section is not required to be given before referring a matter to the association's legal counsel if:

 

(1) the matter involves pending or threatened litigation;

 

(2) the unit owner has retained legal counsel and the association is responding to the owner's attorney; or

 

(3) immediate legal action is necessary to preserve the legal rights of the association or to prevent immediate harm to persons or property."

 

Page 43, line 26, delete "and"

 

Page 43, line 27, delete "schedules of" and insert "list of common"

 

Page 43, line 29, delete the period and insert "; and"

 

Page 43, after line 29, insert:

 

"(25) a statement providing the following information:

 

(i) purchasing a unit in the common interest community will impact property rights and may impose certain obligations as a unit owner;

 

(ii) governing documents for a common interest community dictate how decisions will be made related to the property, including financial decisions, maintenance decisions, and restrictions on the use of the property, which may include, but not be limited to, restrictions on parking, appearance, noise, smoking, pets, and rental of your unit;

 

(iii) governing documents may also be modified or changed at any time with the appropriate approval and any modifications or amendments will apply to existing unit owners; and


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6306

(iv) it is advisable to consult with an attorney before purchasing a unit.
"

 

Page 44, line 18, delete "schedules of" and insert "list of common"

 

Page 49, after line 32, insert:

 

"(f) A purchaser should be aware of the following information:

 

(1) purchasing a unit in the common interest community will impact property rights and may impose certain obligations as a unit owner;

 

(2) governing documents for a common interest community dictate how decisions will be made related to the property, including financial decisions, maintenance decisions, and restrictions on the use of the property, which may include, but not be limited to, restrictions on parking, appearance, noise, smoking, pets, and rental of your unit;

 

(3) governing documents may also be modified or changed at any time with the appropriate approval and any modifications or amendments will apply to existing unit owners; and

 

(4) it is advisable to consult with an attorney before purchasing a unit."

 

Page 51, line 26, after "2027" insert ", for all common interest communities created on or after that date"

 

Page 51, line 29, delete everything after the period

 

Page 51, delete line 30

 

Page 52, delete lines 1 to 6

 

 

Gottfried moved to amend the Bahner amendment to S. F. No. 1750, the second unofficial engrossment, as follows:

 

Page 2, after line 24, insert:

 

"Page 18, after line 13, insert:

 

"(i) An association or property management company shall not sell or disclose the name and address, or personal information, of a home owner or resident unless there is an express business purpose.  In the case of an expressed business purpose, the association or property management company must retain an agreement from the third party or vendor that they shall not disclose or sell information of the unit owners or occupants without expressed written permission.""

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.

 

 

      Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote House Operations, the Speaker permitted the following member to vote via remote means between the hours of 4:20 p.m. and 6:10 p.m.:  Franson.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6307

       The question was taken on the Gottfried amendment to the Bahner amendment and the roll was called.  There were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Elkins

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Huot

Hussein

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Noor

Norris

Pérez-Vega

Pinto

Pursell

Rehm

Rehrauer

Reyer

Sencer-Mura

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Bliss

Burkel

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Engen

Fogelman

Franson

Gander

Gillman

Gordon

Harder

Heintzeman

Hudson

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lawrence

McDonald

Mekeland

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Perryman

Quam

Rarick

Repinski

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The motion did not prevail and the amendment to the amendment was not adopted.

 

 

      The question recurred on the Bahner amendment to S. F. No. 1750, the second unofficial engrossment.  The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

Keeler moved to amend S. F. No. 1750, the second unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 51, after line 5, insert:

 

"(f) A disclosure by the association of data in violation of the Safe at Home program under section 5B.05, paragraph (d), is a violation of this chapter."

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6308

       The question was taken on the Keeler amendment and the roll was called.  There were 69 yeas and 65 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Noor

Norris

Pérez-Vega

Pinto

Pursell

Rehm

Rehrauer

Reyer

Sencer-Mura

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Bliss

Burkel

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Fogelman

Franson

Gander

Gillman

Gordon

Harder

Heintzeman

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lawrence

McDonald

Mekeland

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Novotny

O'Driscoll

Olson

Perryman

Quam

Rarick

Repinski

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.

 

 

O'Driscoll moved to amend S. F. No. 1750, the second unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:

 

Page 51, delete section 14

 

Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references

 

Amend the title accordingly

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.

 

 

      Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote House Operations, the Speaker permitted the following member to vote via remote means between the hours of 5:35 p.m. and 6:25 p.m.:  Myers.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6309

       The question was taken on the O'Driscoll amendment and the roll was called.  There were 47 yeas and 86 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Baker

Bliss

Buck

Cha

Davis

Duran

Falconer

Fogelman

Gander

Greene

Hansen, R.

Heintzeman

Hill

Huot

Johnson, W.

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lillie

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

Nadeau

O'Driscoll

Quam

Rehm

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Wiener

Witte


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Agbaje

Bahner

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Burkel

Carroll

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Dippel

Dotseth

Elkins

Engen

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greenman

Hanson, J.

Harder

Hicks

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Rarick

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      The motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.

 

 

      S. F. No. 1750, A bill for an act relating to common interest communities; modifying powers and duties of common interest communities; modifying rights of a unit owner; modifying threshold for termination of a common interest community; establishing dispute resolution process; modifying notice of meetings; limiting late fees, fines, and attorney fees; modifying foreclosure requirements; establishing conflict of interest standards for board members; prohibiting local governments from requiring creation of homeowners associations; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 515B.1-102; 515B.1-103; 515B.2-103; 515B.2-119; 515B.3-102; 515B.3-103; 515B.3-106; 515B.3-107; 515B.3-108; 515B.3-115; 515B.3-1151; 515B.3-116; 515B.4-102; 515B.4-1021; 515B.4-116; Laws 2024, chapter 96, article 2, section 13; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 515B.

 

 

      The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and placed upon its final passage.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6310

       The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called.  There were 100 yeas and 34 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Davids

Dippel

Dotseth

Elkins

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Franson

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Mahamoud

McDonald

Mekeland

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Nadeau

Nash

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

Olson

Pérez-Vega

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Robbins

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Torkelson

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Bliss

Curran

Davis

Duran

Engen

Fogelman

Gander

Heintzeman

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lawrence

Luger-Nikolai

Mueller

Murphy

Myers

O'Driscoll

Roach

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Stier

Swedzinski

Van Binsbergen

Wiener


 

 

      The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.

 

 

MOTIONS AND RESOLUTIONS

 

 

      Hanson, J., moved that the name of Pinto be added as an author on H. F. No. 955.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Keeler moved that the name of Allen be added as an author on H. F. No. 1266.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Howard moved that the name of Jones be added as an author on H. F. No. 2021.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Norris moved that the name of Johnson, W., be added as an author on H. F. No. 2627.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Liebling moved that the name of Johnson, P., be added as an author on H. F. No. 3476.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Hussein moved that the name of Jones be added as an author on H. F. No. 3640.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Bierman moved that the name of Moller be added as an author on H. F. No. 3964.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Elkins moved that the name of Freiberg be added as an author on H. F. No. 4247.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Schultz moved that the name of Perryman be added as an author on H. F. No. 4290.  The motion prevailed.


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6311

       Gander moved that the name of Joy be added as an author on H. F. No. 4301.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Igo moved that the name of Zeleznikar be added as an author on H. F. No. 4383.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Baker moved that the name of Perryman be added as an author on H. F. No. 4414.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Kotyza-Witthuhn moved that the name of Youakim be added as chief author on H. F. No. 4548.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Agbaje moved that the name of Rehm be added as an author on H. F. No. 4841.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Davids moved that the names of Burkel, Gander, Bakeberg, Kozlowski and Johnson, W., be added as authors on H. F. No. 5031.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Jones moved that the name of Jones be stricken as an author on H. F. No. 5077.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Huot moved that the name of Rehrauer be added as an author on H. F. No. 5082.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Jordan moved that the names of Youakim and Sencer-Mura be added as authors on H. F. No. 5098.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Rymer moved that H. F. No. 4779 be returned to its author.  The motion prevailed.

 

 

      Franson, Myers, Nash and O'Driscoll were excused for the remainder of today's session.

 

 

MOTION TO SUSPEND RULES

 

      Niska moved that the rules of the House be so far suspended so that H. F. No. 3819 be recalled from the Committee on Children and Families Finance and Policy, be given its second and third readings and be placed upon its final passage.

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.

 

 

      The question was taken on the Niska motion and the roll was called.  There were 63 yeas and 67 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Bliss

Burkel

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Engen

Fogelman

Gander

Gillman

Gordon

Harder

Heintzeman

Hudson

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lawrence

McDonald

Mekeland

Mueller

Murphy

Nadeau

Nelson

Niska

Novotny

Olson

Perryman

Quam

Rarick

Repinski

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6312

       Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Elkins

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Huot

Hussein

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Noor

Norris

Pérez-Vega

Pinto

Pursell

Rehm

Rehrauer

Reyer

Sencer-Mura

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim


 

 

      The motion did not prevail.

 

 

MOTION TO SUSPEND RULES

 

      Long moved that the rules of the House be so far suspended so that H. F. No. 76 be recalled from the Committee on Energy Finance and Policy, be given its second and third readings and be placed upon its final passage.

 

 

      A roll call was requested and properly seconded.

 

 

CALL OF THE HOUSE

 

      On the motion of Pursell and on the demand of 10 members, a call of the House was ordered.  The following members answered to their names:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bahner

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Berg

Bierman

Bliss

Buck

Burkel

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Davids

Davis

Dippel

Dotseth

Duran

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Fogelman

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gander

Gillman

Gomez

Gordon

Gottfried

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Harder

Heintzeman

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Hudson

Huot

Hussein

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, P.

Johnson, W.

Jones

Jordan

Joy

Keeler

Klevorn

Knudsen

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Koznick

Kraft

Kresha

Lawrence

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Mekeland

Moller

Mueller

Murphy

Nadeau

Nelson

Niska

Noor

Norris

Novotny

Olson

Perryman

Pinto

Pursell

Quam

Rarick

Rehm

Rehrauer

Repinski

Reyer

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sencer-Mura

Sexton

Skraba

Smith

Stephenson

Stier

Swedzinski

Tabke

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Vang

Virnig

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6313

       The question recurred on the Long motion and the roll was called.  There were 69 yeas and 61 nays as follows:

 

      Those who voted in the affirmative were:

 


Acomb

Agbaje

Bahner

Berg

Bierman

Buck

Carroll

Cha

Clardy

Coulter

Curran

Dippel

Elkins

Engen

Falconer

Feist

Finke

Fischer

Frazier

Frederick

Freiberg

Gomez

Gottfried

Greene

Greenman

Hansen, R.

Hanson, J.

Hicks

Hill

Hollins

Howard

Huot

Hussein

Johnson, P.

Jones

Jordan

Keeler

Klevorn

Koegel

Kotyza-Witthuhn

Kozlowski

Kraft

Lee, F.

Lee, K.

Lee, X.

Liebling

Lillie

Long

Luger-Nikolai

Mahamoud

Moller

Momanyi-Hiltsley

Noor

Norris

Pérez-Vega

Pinto

Pursell

Rehm

Rehrauer

Reyer

Sencer-Mura

Smith

Stephenson

Tabke

Vang

Virnig

Wolgamott

Xiong

Youakim


 

 

      Those who voted in the negative were:

 


Allen

Altendorf

Anderson, P. E.

Anderson, P. H.

Backer

Bakeberg

Baker

Bennett

Bliss

Burkel

Davids

Davis

Dotseth

Duran

Fogelman

Gander

Gillman

Gordon

Harder

Heintzeman

Hudson

Igo

Jacob

Johnson, W.

Joy

Knudsen

Koznick

Kresha

Lawrence

McDonald

Mekeland

Mueller

Murphy

Nadeau

Nelson

Niska

Novotny

Olson

Perryman

Quam

Rarick

Repinski

Roach

Robbins

Rymer

Schomacker

Schultz

Schwartz

Scott

Sexton

Skraba

Stier

Swedzinski

Torkelson

Van Binsbergen

Warwas

West

Wiener

Witte

Zeleznikar

Spk. Demuth


 

 

      Not having received the constitutionally required two-thirds vote, the motion did not prevail.

 

 

ADJOURNMENT

 

      Niska moved that when the House adjourns today it adjourn until 1:00 p.m., Monday, May 4, 2026.  The motion prevailed.

 

      Niska moved that the House adjourn.  The motion prevailed, and the Speaker declared the House stands adjourned until 1:00 p.m., Monday, May 4, 2026.

 

 

Patrick Duffy Murphy, Chief Clerk, House of Representatives

 

 

 

 

 

 

 


 


Journal Of the House - 67th -Thursday, April 30, 2026 - Top of Page 6314