STATE
OF MINNESOTA
Journal of the House
NINETY-FOURTH
SESSION - 2026
_____________________
SEVENTY-FIRST
LEGISLATIVE DAY
Saint Paul, Minnesota, Thursday, May 7, 2026
The House of Representatives convened at
1:00 p.m. and was called to order by Joe Schomacker, Speaker pro tempore.
Prayer was offered by Pastor Dan Doering,
People of Hope ELCA, Rochester, Minnesota.
The members of the House gave the pledge
of allegiance to the flag of the United States of America.
The roll was called and the following
members were present:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bahner
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Fogelman
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gomez
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jones
Jordan
Joy
Keeler
Klevorn
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Koznick
Kraft
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
McDonald
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Noor
Norris
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sencer-Mura
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
A quorum was present.
Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote
House Operations, the Speaker permitted the following members to vote via
remote means between the hours of 1:00 p.m. and 8:05 p.m.: name. Baker and McDonald.
Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to
Remote House Operations, the DFL Caucus Leader permitted the following member
to vote via remote means:
Momanyi-Hiltsley.
Speaker pro tempore Schomacker called
Olson to the Chair.
The Chief Clerk proceeded to read the
Journal of the preceding day. There
being no objection, further reading of the Journal was dispensed with and the
Journal was approved as corrected by the Chief Clerk.
PETITIONS AND
COMMUNICATIONS
The following communications were
received:
STATE OF
MINNESOTA
OFFICE OF
THE GOVERNOR
SAINT PAUL
55155
May 5,
2026
The
Honorable Lisa Demuth
Speaker
of the House of Representatives
The
State of Minnesota
Dear Speaker Demuth:
Please be advised that I have received,
approved, signed, and deposited in the Office of the Secretary of State the
following House Files:
H. F. No. 3593, relating to transportation; designating a portion of marked Trunk Highway 58 in Zumbrota as "Officer / Firefighter Gary L. Schroeder, Jr. Memorial Highway".
H. F. No. 3453, relating to public safety; controlled substances; establishing the legal age to possess kratom as 21 years of age or older.
H. F. No. 3676, relating to public safety; providing protections, remedies, and modifying various provisions of the Safe at Home program; establishing criminal penalties.
H. F. No. 4133, relating to insurance; prohibiting certain exclusions in homeowner's insurance policies when damage is done by a peace officer.
H. F. No. 3782, relating to public safety; requiring disclosure of chemical irritants used in certain buildings; requiring the commissioner of public safety to develop a standard form.
H. F. No. 3827, relating to public safety; clarifying certain grants from the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension to local law enforcement as reimbursements; updating law related to recording of crimes; establishing process for determining how certain criminal records are ineligible for sealing; requiring court to provide orders for protection for access by law enforcement.
Sincerely,
Tim
Walz
Governor
STATE
OF MINNESOTA
OFFICE OF
THE SECRETARY OF STATE
ST. PAUL
55155
The Honorable Lisa Demuth
Speaker of the House of
Representatives
The Honorable Bobby Joe Champion
President of the Senate
I have the honor to inform you that the
following enrolled Acts of the 2026 Session of the State Legislature have been
received from the Office of the Governor and are deposited in the Office of the
Secretary of State for preservation, pursuant to the State Constitution,
Article IV, Section 23:
|
S. F. No. |
H. F. No. |
Session Laws Chapter No. |
Time and Date Approved 2026 |
Date Filed 2026 |
3593 62 10:43 a.m. May 5 May
5
3453 63 10:43 a.m. May 5 May
5
1251 64 10:44
a.m. May 5 May 5
3868 65 10:44
a.m. May 5 May 5
3887 66 10:45
a.m. May 5 May 5
3676 67 10:45 a.m. May 5 May
5
4133 68 10:46 a.m. May 5 May
5
3782 69 10:46 a.m. May 5 May
5
3827 70 10:47 a.m. May 5 May
5
Sincerely,
Steve
Simon
Secretary
of State
REPORTS OF STANDING COMMITTEES AND
DIVISIONS
Frazier and Torkelson from the Committee on Ways and Means to which was referred:
H. F. No. 5074, A bill for an act relating to claims against the state; providing for the settlement of certain claims; appropriating money.
Reported the same back with the following amendments:
Page 1, after line 4, insert:
"Section 1. EXONERATION
AWARDS.
The amounts in this
section are appropriated in fiscal year 2027 from the general fund to the
commissioner of management and budget for full payment of awards of damages
under the Imprisonment and Exoneration Remedies Act, Minnesota Statutes,
sections 611.362 to 611.368. This
appropriation is available until June 30, 2027, for payment to:
(1)
James Lamar Davis, $250,000;
(2) Clayton Douglas
Groves, $350,000; and
(3) Marvin Haynes, $4,500,000."
Page 1, line 12, delete "......." and insert "Mark Carroll" and delete "........" and insert ", $4,570.40."
Renumber the sections in sequence
With the recommendation that when so amended the bill be placed on the General Register.
The
report was adopted.
SECOND READING
OF HOUSE BILLS
H. F. No. 5074 was read for
the second time.
INTRODUCTION
AND FIRST READING OF HOUSE BILLS
The
following House Files were introduced:
Tabke introduced:
H. F. No. 5122, A bill for an act relating to
transportation; modifying requirements governing electronic motor vehicle
documents; requiring certain electronic titling and lien release; providing for
certain electronic transmission and signatures related to motor vehicles;
modifying rulemaking authority; making technical changes; amending Minnesota
Statutes 2024, sections 168.33, subdivision 8a; 168A.06; 168A.09, subdivision
1, by adding a subdivision; 168A.14, as amended; 168A.18; 168A.20; 168A.24; 168A.29,
subdivision 1; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter
168A.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the
Committee on Transportation Finance and Policy.
Sencer-Mura and Jones introduced:
H. F. No. 5123, A bill for an act relating to employment;
requiring covered employers to provide commuter benefits to covered employees;
proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 181.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the
Committee on Workforce, Labor, and Economic Development Finance and Policy.
Agbaje and Buck introduced:
H. F. No. 5124, A bill for an act relating to public safety;
modifying procedures and training related to the treatment of potentially
suspicious deaths involving domestic violence; amending Minnesota Statutes
2024, sections 390.11, by adding subdivisions; 626.8451, subdivisions 2, 3, by
adding a subdivision; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes,
chapter 626.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the
Committee on Public Safety Finance and Policy.
Sencer-Mura introduced:
H. F. No. 5125, A bill for an act relating to taxation;
sales and use; repealing the exemption for data centers; repealing the
contingent reduction in special education aid appropriations; amending
Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 216B.02, by adding a subdivision; Minnesota
Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 216B.02, subdivision 12; 297A.75,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section
297A.68, subdivision 42; Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 10, article
7, section 8.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the
Committee on Energy Finance and Policy.
Dippel introduced:
H. F. No. 5126, A bill for an act relating to education;
modifying the construction project exception to the school year calendar start
date; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 120A.40.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the
Committee on Education Policy.
Mueller introduced:
H. F. No. 5127, A bill for an act relating to capital
investment; appropriating money for the Bioimaging Center at the Hormel
Institute in Austin; authorizing the sale and issuance of state bonds.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the
Committee on Capital Investment.
MESSAGES
FROM THE SENATE
The
following messages were received from the Senate:
Madam Speaker:
I hereby announce the passage by the Senate of the following Senate Files, herewith transmitted:
S. F. Nos. 3298 and 4476.
Thomas S. Bottern, Secretary of the Senate
FIRST READING OF
SENATE BILLS
S. F. No. 3298, A bill for an act relating to health occupations; modifying licensing and scope of practice for acupuncture and herbal medicine practice, athletic training, mortuary science, physician assistant practice, social work, dentistry practice, marriage and family therapy, pharmacy practice, physical therapists, and advanced practice registered nurses; establishing registration for massage therapists and Asian bodywork therapists; establishing licensure for music therapists; modifying certain unlicensed practice provisions; establishing advisory councils; imposing civil penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 144.0572, subdivision 1; 146A.06, subdivision 3; 146A.09, by adding a subdivision; 147.081, subdivision 1; 147A.01, subdivision 18; 147A.03, subdivision 1, by adding a subdivision; 147B.01, subdivisions 3, 4, 9, 14, by adding subdivisions; 147B.03, subdivisions 2, 3; 147B.05, subdivision 1; 147B.06, subdivisions 1, 5; 148.211, subdivision 1c, by adding a subdivision; 148.61, subdivision 5; 148.65, subdivisions 5, 6; 148.706, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 148.7802, subdivision 6, by adding a subdivision; 148.7806; 148.7807; 148.7814; 148.941, subdivision 6; 148B.35; 148E.065, subdivision 4a; 148E.195, subdivision 2a; 148E.280; 149A.02, subdivision 26; 149A.20, subdivisions 6, 7; 149A.30, subdivision 1; 150A.01, subdivision 6a; 150A.05, subdivisions 1, 2; 150A.06, subdivisions 1, 1a, 1b, 1c, 2, 2a, 2c, 2d, 3, 8, 9, 11; 150A.08, subdivision 1; 150A.081, subdivision 1; 150A.091, subdivisions 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9a, 10, 20, by adding a subdivision; 150A.10, subdivisions 1, 1a, 4; 150A.105, subdivision 8; 150A.106, subdivision 3; 150A.11, subdivision 1; 151.01, subdivision 27; 151.071, subdivision 2; 151.37, by adding a subdivision; 152.11, subdivision 2; 152.12, by adding a subdivision; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 147B.06, subdivision 4; 150A.06, subdivision 12; 151.01, subdivision 23; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 148; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 148H; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 147B.01, subdivision 18; 148.7802, subdivisions 4, 5; 150A.06, subdivision 6.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Health Finance and Policy.
S. F. No. 4476, A bill for an act relating to state government; modifying provisions relating to human services continuity of care, aging and disability services, and behavioral health services; modifying provisions relating to health regulation of certain long-term care facilities and agencies; modifying provisions relating to Direct Care and Treatment; requiring reports; establishing working groups; providing for civil penalties; permitting retrieval fee for records; providing for transfers and cancellation of money; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 15.43, subdivision 3; 62A.135, subdivision 1; 62A.46, subdivision 2; 72A.13, subdivision 1; 144.0724, by adding a subdivision; 144.121, subdivision 9; 144.1503, subdivision 7; 144.292, subdivision 6; 144A.291, subdivision 2; 144A.471, subdivision 8; 144G.09, subdivision 2; 144G.15; 144G.16, by adding a subdivision; 144G.195, subdivision 1; 144G.31, subdivision 7; 144G.40, by adding a subdivision; 144G.41, subdivisions 1, 2, by adding a subdivision; 144G.45, subdivision 3; 144G.60, subdivision 4; 144G.61, subdivision 2; 144G.63, subdivisions 2, 5, by adding a subdivision; 245A.04, subdivisions 2, 2a; 245A.042, by adding a subdivision; 254A.03, subdivision 2; 254B.17; 256.01, subdivision 21; 256B.04, subdivisions 5, 23, by adding subdivisions; 256B.0625, by adding a subdivision; 256B.064, subdivisions 1c, 1d, 2; 256B.0659, subdivisions 12, 16, 17, 19; 256B.0761, subdivision 2; 256B.0911, subdivision 26; 256B.0913, subdivision 4; 256B.092, subdivision 5; 256B.49, subdivision 11; 256B.85, by adding subdivisions; 297E.02, subdivision 3; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 144.0724, subdivision 2; 144.121, subdivision 1a; 144A.474, subdivision 11; 144A.4799, subdivision 1; 144G.19, subdivision 5; 145D.40, by adding a subdivision; 145D.41, subdivisions 1, 2, by adding a subdivision; 254B.02, subdivision 5; 254B.0503, subdivision 1; 254B.0509, subdivision 2; 256.4792, subdivisions 1, 7, by adding a subdivision; 256B.0625, subdivisions 17, 18i; 256B.064, subdivision 1a; 256B.092, subdivision 3b; 256B.49, subdivision 17a; 256B.85, subdivision 7; 256I.04, subdivision 2a; Laws 2023, chapter 61, article 1, sections 61, subdivision 4, as amended; 67, subdivision 3, as amended; article 9, section 2, subdivision 5, as amended; Laws 2024, chapter 125, article 1, section 47; article 8, section 2, subdivisions 4, 14, as amended, 20; Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 3, article 8, section 43; article 20, section 19, subdivision 1; article 21, section 3, subdivision 2; Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 9, article 2, section 58, subdivision 9; article 4,
The bill was read for the first time.
Schomacker moved that S. F. No. 4476 and H. F. No. 4338, now on the General Register, be referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison. The motion prevailed.
REPORT
FROM THE COMMITTEE ON RULES
AND
LEGISLATIVE ADMINISTRATION
Long from the Committee on Rules and
Legislative Administration, pursuant to rules 1.21 and 3.33, designated the
following bills to be placed on the Calendar for the Day for Monday, May 11,
2026 and established a prefiling requirement for amendments offered to the
following bills:
S. F. No. 476; and
H. F. Nos. 4546 and 1695.
Niska moved that the House recess subject
to the call of the Chair. The motion
prevailed.
RECESS
RECONVENED
The House reconvened and was called to
order by Speaker pro tempore Olson.
Pursuant to Rule 10.05, relating to Remote
House Operations, the Speaker permitted the following member to vote via remote
means between the hours of 2:00 p.m. and 8:05 p.m.: Schultz.
CALENDAR FOR THE
DAY
S. F. No. 856 was reported
to the House.
Norris moved to amend S. F. No. 856, the third unofficial engrossment, as follows:
Page 8, line 27, before "or" insert "the United States Department of Justice for federal programs,"
Page 10, after line 7, insert:
"(j) When issuing
findings or recommending sanctions with respect to an investigation concerning
a program administered by the Department of Education, the inspector general
must consider the commissioner of education's authority to impose sanctions and
related requirements under section 127A.21.
The inspector general must not
investigate policy
decisions on instruction, curriculum, personnel, or other discretionary policy
decisions made by a school district; charter school; cooperative unit as
defined by section 123A.24, subdivision 2; or any library, library system, or
library district defined in section 134.001."
Page 11, line 8, after "629.34" insert "for offenses that are within the bureau's jurisdiction"
Page 11, delete lines 9 to 22 and insert:
"Subd. 2. Jurisdiction. (a) As used in this subdivision:
(1) "law
enforcement agency" has the meaning given in section 626.84, subdivision
1, paragraph (f);
(2) "public
employee" means a person employed by or acting for an agency or a county,
municipality, or other subdivision or governmental instrumentality of the state
for the purpose of exercising their respective powers and performing their respective
duties, and who is not a public officer.
Public employee includes a member of a charter commission; and
(3) "public
officer" has the meaning given in section 609.415, subdivision 1, clause
(1), paragraphs (a), (d), (e), and (f), and also includes a member of a
governing board of a county, municipality, or other subdivision of the state,
or other governmental instrumentality within the state.
(b) The Office of the
Inspector General Anti-Fraud and Waste Bureau has jurisdiction to initiate
inquiries and conduct investigations into suspected fraudulent activity,
misuse, or criminal misconduct involving:
(1) a state agency;
(2) a public officer
exercising official powers or performing official duties;
(3) a public employee;
(4) a program or service
funded or administered by the state;
(5) a public assistance
benefit; or
(6) public funds.
(c) At the inspector
general's discretion, the bureau may respond to the request of a law
enforcement agency to exercise law enforcement duties in cooperation with the
law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over the particular matter.
Subd. 3. Coordination
with other law enforcement agencies.
(a) The bureau must develop policies for notifying, coordinating
with, and referring investigations to other law enforcement agencies with
concurrent jurisdiction.
(b) The Department of
Human Services and the state Medicaid Fraud Control Unit have primary
responsibility to investigate suspected fraudulent activity in the Medicaid
program. The bureau may work with the
Department of Human Services, the state Medicaid Fraud Control Unit, the
Financial Crimes and Fraud Section of the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension, and
other state agencies and law enforcement agencies in cases involving suspected
fraudulent activity in the Medicaid program.
The bureau also has authority to conduct independent investigations into
suspected fraudulent activity in the Medicaid program.
(c) If
the bureau arrests a person, the bureau must notify the law enforcement agency
with jurisdiction over the location where the offense occurred and, if
different, the law enforcement agency with jurisdiction over the location where
the arrest took place. The bureau is
responsible for issuing any citations, filing any required reports, and
delivering an arrested person to a county jail or other appropriate facility
unless the bureau and a law enforcement agency with concurrent jurisdiction
enter an agreement under which the other law enforcement agency acts as the
lead agency.
(d) Following an arrest
made by the bureau, the bureau is responsible for any subsequent investigation
unless:
(1) the bureau is
responding to a law enforcement agency's request to exercise its duties in
cooperation with the law enforcement agency that has jurisdiction over the
particular matter; or
(2) the bureau and a law enforcement agency with concurrent jurisdiction enter an agreement under which the other law enforcement agency acts as the lead agency."
Page 12, delete subdivision 5 and insert:
"Subd. 6. Compliance. Except as otherwise provided in this
section, the bureau shall comply with all statutes and administrative rules
relating to the operation and management of a law enforcement agency.
Subd. 7. Powers
and duties; limitations. Powers
and duties for civil or administrative enforcement provided to the inspector
general or the Office of the Inspector General under this chapter do not apply
to the bureau. The inspector general
must not delegate the auxiliary powers described in section 15E.30, such as the
power to issue subpoenas, perform inspections without a warrant, and impose
penalties, to the bureau and must not exercise those auxiliary powers at the
direction of the bureau. Nothing in this
subdivision prohibits:
(1) the inspector
general from disseminating data to the bureau if there is reason to believe
that the data are evidence of criminal activity within the bureau's
jurisdiction; or
(2) the bureau from referring a matter to the inspector general for appropriate regulatory investigation."
Page 12, delete lines 11 to 28 and insert:
"Subd. 9. Annual
report on activities and cost-effectiveness. By February 1 of each year, the chief
law enforcement officer of the bureau shall report to the governor, inspector
general, and the chairs and ranking minority members of the legislative
committees with jurisdiction over state government policy and finance, and
public safety policy and finance, on the activities and cost-effectiveness of
the bureau since the previous report, including but not limited to:
(1) the number of
allegations or reports of suspected violations provided to the bureau;
(2) the number of
investigations initiated by the bureau;
(3) the outcomes and
current status of each investigation;
(4) the charging
decisions made by the prosecuting authority of incidents investigated by the
bureau;
(5) the amount of
restitution ordered in cases investigated by the bureau; and
(6) the amount of money
recovered by the bureau through restitution payments, asset forfeiture, or
other means and the distribution of that money.
Subd. 10. Assignment
of peace officers; employment status.
(a) Regardless of whether the inspector general establishes a law
enforcement agency under this section, the inspector general may enter into
memoranda of understanding with chief law enforcement officers of state and
local law enforcement agencies to assign peace officers as defined in section
626.84, subdivision 1, paragraph (c), to the Office of Inspector General or to
a multijurisdictional task force coordinated by the Office of Inspector General. Peace officers assigned to the Office of
Inspector General or a multijurisdictional task force under this subdivision
have statewide jurisdiction to conduct criminal investigations into matters
described in subdivision 2 and have the same powers of arrest as those
possessed by a sheriff.
(b) Peace officers
assigned to the Office of Inspector General or a multijurisdictional task force
under this subdivision remain employees of the same entity that employed them
before the assignment authorized under this section. Those officers are not employees of the
Office of Inspector General.
(c) Peace officers assigned to the Office of Inspector General or a multijurisdictional task force under this subdivision are subject to annual performance reviews conducted by the inspector general or an operational supervisor designated by the inspector general."
Renumber the subdivisions in sequence
Page 18, line 31, delete "and" and insert "or"
Page 19, line 23, delete "6" and insert "7"
Page 20, line 13, after "changes" insert "affecting or relating"
Page 20, line 33, delete "6" and insert "7"
Page 22, line 31, after "employees" insert ", including but not limited to all employees transferred from the Department of Education,"
Page 23, line 25, delete "$8,070,000" and insert "$5,852,000" and delete "$8,070,000" and insert "$5,852,000"
Page 26, line 15, strike "that" and insert "and" and after "commissioner" insert "may"
Page 26, line 27, after "the" insert "inspector general has found that a" and before "pattern" insert "demonstrated"
Page 26, line 28, strike "an investigation finds" and insert "the commissioner determines" and after "evidence," insert "based on an investigation conducted by the inspector general, that a program participant committed"
Page 26, line 29, strike "by a program participant" and strike "inspector general" and insert "commissioner"
Page 26, line 30, strike "recommend that the"
Page 26, line 31, strike "commissioner"
Page 27, line 1, strike "implement" and insert "take action based on findings or"
Page 30, line 3, delete "inspector general shall"
Page 30, line 4, delete "notify and recommend to the commissioner to" and insert "commissioner may"
Page 30, line 6, delete "such payments"
Page 30, line 7, delete "for which an investigation is pending for" and insert "in"
Page 30, line 8, before "program" insert "pending investigation by the inspector general regarding a"
Page 30, line 25, delete "determines" and insert "notifies the commissioner that"
Page 36, after line 20, insert:
"Sec. 16. REVISOR
INSTRUCTION.
In the 2026 edition of Minnesota Statutes, the revisor of statutes must retitle section 127A.21 from "OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL" to "SANCTIONS; OTHER POWERS.""
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title as follows:
Page 1, line 3, delete "committee" and insert "commission"
SUSPENSION
OF RULES
Anderson,
P. E., moved that rule 3.33 relating to Amendments Must be Prefilled be
suspended for the purpose of offering the Anderson, P. E., amendment to the
Norris amendment to S. F. No. 856, the third unofficial engrossment. The motion prevailed.
Anderson, P. E., moved to amend the Norris amendment to S. F. No. 856, the third unofficial engrossment, as follows:
Page 4, line 10, delete everything after "General"
Page 4, line 11, delete everything before the period
Page 4, line 12, delete "or a multijurisdictional task force"
Page 4, line 16, delete everything after "General"
Page 4, line 17, delete "task force"
Page 4, line 20, delete everything after "General"
Page 4, line 21, delete "task force"
The
motion prevailed and the amendment to the amendment was adopted.
The question recurred on the Norris
amendment, as amended, to S. F. No. 856, the third unofficial
engrossment. The motion prevailed and
the amendment, as amended, was adopted.
Klevorn moved to amend S. F. No. 856, the third unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 8, after line 20, insert:
"(4) establish appropriate prepayment review procedures for all agencies;"
Renumber the clauses in sequence
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Klevorn
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 65 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Noor
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Klevorn moved to amend S. F. No. 856, the third unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 8, line 26, delete "and Waste Bureau" and insert "Enforcement Unit"
Page 11, lines 7 and 13, delete "and Waste Bureau" and insert "Enforcement Unit"
Page 12, line 30, delete "Bureau"
Page 16, line 5, delete "and Waste Bureau" and insert "Enforcement Unit"
Page 24, line 22, delete "and Waste Bureau" and insert "Enforcement Unit"
Page 34, line 31, delete "and Waste Bureau" and insert "Enforcement Unit"
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Klevorn
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 66 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The motion did
not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Moller moved to amend S. F. No. 856, the third unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 8, line 25, delete everything after "to"
Page 8, line 26, delete everything before "the"
Page 16, delete subdivision 8
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title accordingly
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Moller
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 65 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
The Speaker assumed the Chair.
S. F. No. 856, A bill for
an act relating to state government; creating the Office of the Inspector
General; creating an advisory committee; requiring reports; transferring
certain agency duties; placing limits and prohibiting certain programs from
receiving public funds; making conforming and technical changes; providing for
interagency
agreements; appropriating money; amending
Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 3.971, by adding a subdivision; 13.82,
subdivision 1; 15A.0815, subdivision 2; 127A.21, subdivisions 1a, 5, by adding
subdivisions; 142A.03, by adding a subdivision; 142A.12, subdivision 5; 144.05,
by adding a subdivision; 181.932, subdivision 1; 245.095, subdivision 5;
256.01, by adding a subdivision; 609.456, subdivision 2; 626.84, subdivision 1;
proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 15D; repealing
Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13.321, subdivision 12; 127A.21, subdivisions
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7.
The bill was read for the third time, as
amended, and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 127 yeas and 5 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bahner
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Fogelman
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jones
Jordan
Joy
Keeler
Klevorn
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
McDonald
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Norris
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Wolgamott
Youakim
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Kraft
Lee, K.
Sencer-Mura
Vang
Xiong
The
bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
There being no objection, the order of
business reverted to Messages from the Senate.
MESSAGES
FROM THE SENATE
The
following messages were received from the Senate:
Madam Speaker:
I hereby announce the passage by the Senate of the following House File, herewith returned:
H. F. No. 3521, A bill for an act relating to health; providing for an exception to the hospital construction moratorium; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.551, subdivision 1.
Thomas S. Bottern, Secretary of the Senate
Madam Speaker:
I hereby announce the passage by the Senate of the following House File, herewith returned, as amended by the Senate, in which amendments the concurrence of the House is respectfully requested:
H. F. No. 1141, A bill for an act relating to housing; establishing a supplemental budget for the Minnesota Housing Finance Agency; authorizing the issuance of housing infrastructure bonds; modifying the authority of the Minnesota Housing Finance Agency over the housing development fund; requiring reports; transferring money; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 462A.05, subdivision 8; 462A.20, subdivisions 3, 4, by adding a subdivision; 462A.21, subdivisions 10, 12a; 462A.37, by adding a subdivision; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 462A.37, subdivision 5; Laws 2025, chapter 32, article 1, section 2, subdivisions 1, 3, 15, by adding a subdivision; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 462A; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 462A.21, subdivision 5.
Thomas S. Bottern, Secretary of the Senate
Howard moved that the House refuse to
concur in the Senate amendments to H. F. No. 1141, that the
Speaker appoint a Conference Committee of 4 members of the House, and that the
House requests that a like committee be appointed by the Senate to confer on
the disagreeing votes of the two houses.
The motion prevailed.
Madam Speaker:
I hereby announce the passage by the Senate of the following Senate File, herewith transmitted:
S. F. No. 2373.
Thomas S. Bottern, Secretary of the Senate
FIRST READING OF
SENATE BILLS
S. F. No. 2373, A bill for an act relating to labor and industry; exempting minor league baseball players from minimum wage and overtime requirements; modifying construction codes and licensing provisions; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 177.23, subdivision 7; 326B.107, subdivision 2; 326B.32, subdivision 2; 326B.33, subdivisions 4, 19; 326B.36, subdivision 3; 326B.37, subdivision 7; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 326B.37, subdivisions 5, 6; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 326B.31, subdivision 7; 326B.33, subdivisions 3, 5, 6.
The bill was read for the first time.
Pinto moved that S. F. No. 2373 and H. F. No. 2441, now on the General Register, be referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison. The motion prevailed.
ANNOUNCEMENT
BY THE SPEAKER
The Speaker announced the appointment of
the following members of the House to a Conference Committee on
H. F. No. 1141:
Howard, Kozlowski, Igo and Nash.
ANNOUNCEMENT
BY THE SPEAKER
Pursuant
to Rule 1.15(c)
A
message from the Senate has been received requesting concurrence by the House
to amendments adopted by the Senate to the following House File: H. F. No. 3709
CALENDAR FOR THE
DAY
S. F. No. 4612 was reported
to the House.
The Speaker called Olson to the Chair.
Bierman
moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as follows:
Delete
everything after the enacting clause and insert the following language of H. F.
No. 4466, the second engrossment:
"ARTICLE 1
HEALTH-RELATED LICENSING BOARDS
Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13.381, subdivision 20, is amended to read:
Subd. 20. Insulin safety net. Data collected relating to an individual who seeks to access urgent-need covered insulin or participates in a manufacturer's patient assistance program is classified under section 151.74, subdivision 11.
Subd. 5. Student
physical therapist. "Student
physical therapist" means a person in a professional educational program,
approved by the board under section 148.705, who is satisfying supervised
clinical education requirements by performing physical therapy under the on-site
direct supervision of a licensed physical therapist. "On-site supervision" means the
physical therapist is easily available for instruction to the student physical
therapist. The physical therapist shall
have direct contact with the patient during at least every second treatment
session by the student physical therapist.
"Direct supervision" means that the physical therapist is
physically present and immediately available for supervision. Telecommunications, except within the facility,
does not meet the requirement of on-site direct supervision.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.65, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6. Student
physical therapist assistant. "Student
physical therapist assistant" means a person in a physical therapist
assistant educational program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation in
Physical Therapy Education (CAPTE) or a recognized comparable national
accrediting agency approved by the board.
The student physical therapist assistant, under the direct supervision
of the physical therapist, or the direct supervision of the physical therapist
and physical therapist assistant team, performs physical therapy
interventions and assists with coordination, communication, documentation, and
patient-client-related instruction. "Direct
supervision" means the physical therapist or physical therapist
assistant when supervising a student physical therapist assistant as part of a
physical therapist and physical therapist assistant team is physically
present and immediately available to provide instruction to the student
physical therapist assistant. Telecommunications
does not meet the requirement of direct supervision.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.706, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Supervision. (a) Every physical therapist who
uses the services of a physical therapist assistant or physical therapy aide
for the purpose of assisting in the practice of physical therapy is responsible
for functions performed by the assistant or aide while engaged in such
assistance. The physical therapist shall
delegate direct duties to the physical therapist assistant and
assign tasks to the physical therapy aide in accordance with subdivision 2. Physical therapists who instruct student
physical therapists and student physical therapist assistants are responsible
for the functions performed by the students and shall supervise the students as
provided under section 148.65, subdivisions 5 and 6. A licensed physical therapist may supervise
no more than two physical therapist assistants at any time.
(b) A licensed physical
therapist may supervise no more than two physical therapist assistants at any
time. A physical therapist supervising
physical therapist assistants is not required to be on site, but must be easily
available by telecommunications.
(c) Physical therapists
who instruct student physical therapists and student physical therapist
assistants are responsible for the functions performed by the students and
shall supervise the students as provided under section 148.65, subdivisions 5
and 6. A physical therapist supervising
a student physical therapist must have direct contact with the patient during
at least every second treatment session by the student physical therapist. A physical therapist or physical therapist
assistant as part of a physical therapist and physical therapist assistant team
who is supervising a student physical therapist assistant must have direct
contact with the patient during at least every second treatment session by the
student physical therapist assistant.
Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 148.706, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Delegation
Direction of duties. The
physical therapist may delegate is authorized to direct patient
treatment procedures only to a physical therapist assistant who has sufficient
didactic and clinical preparation. The
physical therapist may must not delegate direct the
following activities to the a physical therapist assistant or to
other supportive personnel: initial
patient examination and evaluation, treatment planning, initial
treatment, change of treatment, development and modification of the plan
of care, and initial or final documentation.
Subd. 3. Observation
of and collaboration with physical therapist assistants. When a physical therapist directs
components of a patient's treatment are delegated to a physical
therapist assistant, a physical therapist must provide on-site observation
of the treatment and documentation of its appropriateness at least every six
treatment sessions. The physical
therapist is not required to be on site, but must be easily available by
telecommunications. do the
following at least every six treatment sessions that the physical therapist
assistant provides services:
(1) observe a portion of
the patient treatment session with the physical therapist assistant, either in
person or remotely via telehealth; and
(2) document a
collaborative discussion with the physical therapist assistant and the
continued appropriateness of the plan of care.
Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Establishment. (a) By July 1, 2020, Each
manufacturer must establish procedures to make covered insulin available
in accordance with this section to eligible individuals who are in urgent need
of covered insulin or who are in need of access to an affordable covered
insulin supply.
(b) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1)
"manufacturer" means a manufacturer engaged in the manufacturing of covered
insulin that is self‑administered on an outpatient basis;
(2) "MNsure" means the Board of Directors of MNsure established in chapter 62V;
(3) "navigator"
has the meaning provided in section 62V.02; and
(4) "pharmacy"
means a pharmacy located in Minnesota and licensed under section 151.19 that
operates in the community or outpatient license category under Minnesota Rules,
part 6800.0350.; and
(5) "covered
insulin" means a drug that is validly prescribed by a practitioner and
contains insulin for use to treat diabetes.
Covered insulin does not include an insulin product with a label
approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration that indicates the
product is only for use for intravenous infusion.
(c) Any manufacturer with an annual gross revenue of $2,000,000 or less from covered insulin sales in Minnesota is exempt from this section. To request a waiver under this paragraph, the manufacturer must submit a request to the Board of Pharmacy that includes documentation indicating that the manufacturer is eligible for an exemption.
(d) An A covered
insulin product is exempt from this section if the wholesale acquisition cost
of the covered insulin is $8 or less per milliliter or applicable
National Council for Prescription Drug Plan billing unit, for the entire
assessment time period, adjusted annually based on the Consumer Price Index.
Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Eligibility for urgent-need safety net program. (a) To be eligible to receive an urgent-need supply of covered insulin under this section, an individual must attest to:
(1) being a resident of Minnesota;
(3) not being enrolled in prescription drug coverage that limits the total amount of cost-sharing that the enrollee is required to pay for a 30-day supply of covered insulin, including co-payments, deductibles, or coinsurance, to $75 or less, regardless of the type or amount of covered insulin prescribed;
(4) not having received an urgent-need supply of covered insulin through this program within the previous 12 months, unless authorized under subdivision 9; and
(5) being in urgent need of covered insulin.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "urgent need of covered insulin" means having readily available for use less than a seven-day supply of covered insulin and in need of covered insulin in order to avoid the likelihood of suffering significant health consequences.
Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. Access to urgent-need covered insulin. (a) MNsure shall develop an application form to be used by an individual who is in urgent need of covered insulin. The application must ask the individual to attest to the eligibility requirements described in subdivision 2. The form shall be accessible through MNsure's website. MNsure shall also make the form available to pharmacies and health care providers who prescribe or dispense covered insulin, hospital emergency departments, urgent care clinics, and community health clinics. By submitting a completed, signed, and dated application to a pharmacy, the individual attests that the information contained in the application is correct.
(b) If the individual is in urgent need of covered insulin, the individual may present a completed, signed, and dated application form to a pharmacy. The individual must also:
(1) have a valid covered
insulin prescription; and
(2) present the pharmacist with identification indicating Minnesota residency in the form of a valid Minnesota identification card, driver's license or permit, individual taxpayer identification number, or Tribal identification card as defined in section 171.072, paragraph (b). If the individual in urgent need of covered insulin is under the age of 18, the individual's parent or legal guardian must provide the pharmacist with proof of residency.
(c) Upon receipt of a
completed and signed application, the pharmacist shall dispense the prescribed
covered insulin in an amount that will provide the individual with a
30-day supply. The pharmacy must notify
the health care practitioner who issued the prescription order no later than 72
hours after the covered insulin is dispensed.
(d) The pharmacy may submit to the manufacturer of the dispensed covered insulin product or to the manufacturer's vendor a claim for payment that is in accordance with the National Council for Prescription Drug Program standards for electronic claims processing, unless the manufacturer agrees to send to the pharmacy a replacement supply of the same covered insulin as dispensed in the amount dispensed. If the pharmacy submits an electronic claim to the manufacturer or the manufacturer's vendor, the manufacturer or vendor shall reimburse the pharmacy in an amount that covers the pharmacy's acquisition cost.
(e) The pharmacy may
collect an a covered insulin co-payment from the individual to
cover the pharmacy's costs of processing and dispensing in an amount not to
exceed $35 for the 30-day supply of covered insulin dispensed.
(f) The pharmacy shall also provide each eligible
individual with the information sheet described in subdivision 7 and a
list of trained navigators provided by the Board of Pharmacy for the individual
to contact if the individual needs to access ongoing covered insulin
coverage options, including assistance in:
(1) applying for medical assistance or MinnesotaCare;
(2) applying for a qualified health plan offered through MNsure, subject to open and special enrollment periods;
(3) accessing information on providers who participate in prescription drug discount programs, including providers who are authorized to participate in the 340B program under section 340b of the federal Public Health Services Act, United States Code, title 42, section 256b; and
(4) accessing covered insulin manufacturers' patient assistance programs, co-payment assistance programs, and other foundation-based programs.
(g) The pharmacist shall retain a copy of the application form submitted by the individual to the pharmacy for reporting and auditing purposes.
(h) A manufacturer may submit to the commissioner of administration a request for reimbursement in an amount not to exceed $35 for each 30-day supply of covered insulin the manufacturer provides under paragraph (d). The commissioner of administration shall determine the manner and format for submitting and processing requests for reimbursement. After receiving a reimbursement request, the commissioner of administration shall reimburse the manufacturer in an amount not to exceed $35 for each 30-day supply of covered insulin the manufacturer provided under paragraph (d).
Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Continuing safety net program; general. (a) Each manufacturer shall make a patient assistance program available to any individual who meets the requirements of this subdivision. Each manufacturer's patient assistance programs must meet the requirements of this section. Each manufacturer shall provide the Board of Pharmacy with information regarding the manufacturer's patient assistance program, including contact information for individuals to call for assistance in accessing their patient assistance program.
(b) To be eligible to participate in a manufacturer's patient assistance program, the individual must:
(1) be a Minnesota resident with a valid Minnesota identification card that indicates Minnesota residency in the form of a Minnesota identification card, driver's license or permit, individual taxpayer identification number, or Tribal identification card as defined in section 171.072, paragraph (b). If the individual is under the age of 18, the individual's parent or legal guardian must provide proof of residency;
(2) have a family income that is equal to or less than 400 percent of the federal poverty guidelines;
(3) not be enrolled in medical assistance or MinnesotaCare;
(4) not be eligible to receive health care through a federally funded program or receive prescription drug benefits through the Department of Veterans Affairs; and
(5) not be enrolled in prescription drug coverage through an individual or group health plan that limits the total amount of cost-sharing that an enrollee is required to pay for a 30-day supply of covered insulin, including co‑payments, deductibles, or coinsurance to $75 or less, regardless of the type or amount of covered insulin needed.
(d) An individual who is interested in participating in a manufacturer's patient assistance program may apply directly to the manufacturer; apply through the individual's health care practitioner, if the practitioner participates; or contact a trained navigator for assistance in finding a long-term covered insulin supply solution, including assistance in applying to a manufacturer's patient assistance program.
Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. Continuing safety net program; manufacturer's responsibilities. (a) Upon receipt of an application for the manufacturer's patient assistance program, the manufacturer shall process the application and determine eligibility. The manufacturer shall notify the applicant of the determination within ten business days of receipt of the application. If necessary, the manufacturer may request additional information from the applicant. If additional information is needed, the manufacturer must notify the applicant within five business days of receipt of the application as to what information is being requested. Within three business days of receipt of the requested information, the manufacturer must determine eligibility and notify the applicant of the determination. If the individual has been determined to be not eligible, the manufacturer must include the reasons for denying eligibility in the notification. The individual may seek an appeal of the determination in accordance with subdivision 8.
(b) If the individual is determined to be eligible, the manufacturer shall provide the individual with an eligibility statement or other indication that the individual has been determined eligible for the manufacturer's patient assistance program. An individual's eligibility is valid for 12 months and is renewable upon a redetermination of eligibility.
(c) If the eligible individual has prescription drug coverage through an individual or group health plan, the manufacturer may determine that the individual's covered insulin needs are better addressed through the use of the manufacturer's co-payment assistance program, in which case, the manufacturer shall inform the individual and provide the individual with the necessary coupons to submit to a pharmacy. In no instance shall an eligible individual be required to pay more than the co-payment amount specified under subdivision 6, paragraph (e).
Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6. Continuing safety net program; process. (a) The individual shall submit to a pharmacy the statement of eligibility provided by the manufacturer under subdivision 5, paragraph (b). Upon receipt of an individual's eligibility status, the pharmacy shall submit an order containing the name of the covered insulin product and the daily dosage amount as contained in a valid prescription to the product's manufacturer.
(b) The pharmacy must include with the order to the manufacturer the following information:
(1) the pharmacy's name and shipping address;
(2) the pharmacy's office telephone number, fax number, email address, and contact name; and
(3) any specific days or times when deliveries are not accepted by the pharmacy.
(c) Upon receipt of an order from a pharmacy and the information described in paragraph (b), the manufacturer shall send to the pharmacy a 90-day supply of covered insulin as ordered, unless a lesser amount is requested in the order, at no charge to the individual or pharmacy.
(e) The pharmacy may collect a co-payment from the individual to cover the pharmacy's costs for processing and dispensing in an amount not to exceed $50 for each 90-day supply if the covered insulin is sent to the pharmacy.
(f) The pharmacy may submit to a manufacturer a reorder for an individual if the individual's eligibility statement has not expired. Upon receipt of a reorder from a pharmacy, the manufacturer must send to the pharmacy an additional 90-day supply of the product, unless a lesser amount is requested, at no charge to the individual or pharmacy if the individual's eligibility statement has not expired.
(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (c), a manufacturer may send the covered insulin as ordered directly to the individual if the manufacturer provides a mail order service option.
(h) A manufacturer may submit to the commissioner of administration a request for reimbursement in an amount not to exceed $105 for each 90-day supply of covered insulin the manufacturer provides under paragraphs (c) and (f). The commissioner of administration shall determine the manner and format for submitting and processing requests for reimbursement. After receiving a reimbursement request, the commissioner of administration shall reimburse the manufacturer in an amount not to exceed $105 for each 90-day supply of covered insulin the manufacturer provided under paragraphs (c) and (f). If the manufacturer provides less than a 90-day supply of covered insulin under paragraphs (c) and (f), the manufacturer may submit a request for reimbursement not to exceed $35 for each 30-day supply of covered insulin provided.
Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. Board of Pharmacy and MNsure responsibilities. (a) The Board of Pharmacy shall develop an information sheet to post on its website and provide a link to the information sheet on the board's website for pharmacies, health care practitioners, hospital emergency departments, urgent care clinics, and community health clinics. The information sheet must contain:
(1) a description of the urgent-need covered insulin safety net program, including how to access the program;
(2) a description of each covered insulin manufacturer's patient assistance program and cost-sharing assistance program, including contact information on accessing the assistance programs for each manufacturer;
(3) information on how to
contact a trained navigator for assistance in applying for medical assistance,
MinnesotaCare, a qualified health plan, or an a covered insulin
manufacturer's patient assistance programs;
(4) information on how to contact the Board of Pharmacy if a manufacturer determines that an individual is not eligible for the manufacturer's patient assistance program; and
(5) notification that an individual in need of assistance may contact their local county social service department for more information or assistance in accessing ongoing affordable covered insulin options.
(b) The board shall also inform each individual who accesses urgent-need covered insulin through the insulin safety net program or accesses a manufacturer's patient assistance program that the individual may participate in a survey conducted by the Department of Health regarding satisfaction with the program. The board shall provide contact information for the individual to learn more about the survey and how to participate. This information may be included on the information sheet described in paragraph (a).
(d) MNsure, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, shall compile a list of navigators who have completed the training program and who are available to assist individuals in accessing affordable covered insulin coverage options. The list shall be made available through the board's website and to pharmacies and health care practitioners who dispense and prescribe covered insulin.
(e) If a navigator assists
an individual in accessing an a covered insulin manufacturer's
patient assistance program, MNsure, within the available appropriation, shall
pay the navigator a onetime application assistance bonus of no less than $25. If a navigator receives a payment per
enrollee of an assistance bonus under section 62V.05, subdivision 4, or
256.962, subdivision 5, the navigator shall not receive compensation under this
paragraph.
Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 9, is amended to read:
Subd. 9. Additional 30-day urgent-need covered insulin supply. (a) If an individual has applied for medical assistance or MinnesotaCare but has not been determined eligible or has been determined eligible but coverage has not become effective or the individual has been determined ineligible for the manufacturer's patient assistance program by the manufacturer and the individual has requested a review pursuant to subdivision 8 but the panel has not rendered a decision, the individual may access urgent-need covered insulin under subdivision 3 if the individual is in urgent need of covered insulin as defined under subdivision 2, paragraph (b).
(b) To access an additional 30-day supply of covered insulin, the individual must attest to the pharmacy that the individual meets the requirements of paragraph (a) and must comply with subdivision 3, paragraph (b).
Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 10, is amended to read:
Subd. 10. Penalty. (a) If a manufacturer fails to comply with this section, the board may assess an administrative penalty of $200,000 per month of noncompliance, with the penalty increasing to $400,000 per month if the manufacturer continues to be in noncompliance after six months, and increasing to $600,000 per month if the manufacturer continues to be in noncompliance after one year. The penalty shall remain at $600,000 per month for as long as the manufacturer continues to be in noncompliance.
(b) In addition, a manufacturer is subject to the administrative penalties specified in paragraph (a) if the manufacturer fails to:
(1) provide a hotline for individuals to call or access between 8 a.m. and 10 p.m. on weekdays and between 10 a.m. and 6 p.m. on Saturdays; and
(2) list on the manufacturer's website the eligibility requirements for the manufacturer's patient assistance programs for Minnesota residents.
(c) Any penalty assessed under this subdivision shall be deposited in a separate covered insulin assistance account in the special revenue fund.
Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 11, is amended to read:
Subd. 11. Data. (a) Any data collected, created, received, maintained, or disseminated by the Board of Pharmacy, the legislative auditor, the commissioner of health, MNsure, or a trained navigator under this section related to an individual who is seeking to access urgent-need covered insulin or participate in a manufacturer's patient assistance program under this section is classified as private data on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, and may not be retained for longer than ten years.
Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 13, is amended to read:
Subd. 13. Reports. (a) By February 15 of each year, beginning
February 15, 2021, each manufacturer shall report to the Board of Pharmacy
the following:
(1) the number of Minnesota residents who accessed and received covered insulin on an urgent-need basis under this section in the preceding calendar year;
(2) the number of Minnesota residents participating in the manufacturer's patient assistance program in the preceding calendar year, including the number of Minnesota residents who the manufacturer determined were ineligible for their patient assistance program; and
(3) the value of the covered insulin provided by the manufacturer under clauses (1) and (2).
For purposes of this paragraph, "value" means the wholesale acquisition cost of the covered insulin provided.
(b) By March 15 of each
year, beginning March 15, 2021, the Board of Pharmacy shall submit the
information reported in paragraph (a) to the chairs and ranking minority
members of the legislative committees with jurisdiction over health and human
services policy and finance. The board
shall also include in the report any administrative penalties assessed under
subdivision 10, including the name of the manufacturer and amount of the
penalty assessed.
Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.74, subdivision 14, is amended to read:
Subd. 14. Program review; legislative auditor. (a) The legislative auditor is requested to conduct a program review to determine:
(1) whether the manufacturers are meeting the responsibilities required under this section, including but not limited to:
(i) reimbursing pharmacies for urgent-need covered insulin dispensed under subdivision 3;
(ii) determining eligibility in a timely manner and notifying the individuals as required under subdivision 5; and
(iii) providing pharmacies with covered insulin product under the
manufacturers' patient assistance programs; and
(2) whether the training program developed for navigators is adequate and easily accessible for navigators interested in becoming trained, and that there is a sufficient number of trained navigators to provide assistance to individuals in need of assistance.
(b) The legislative auditor may access application forms retained by pharmacies under subdivision 3, paragraph (g), to determine whether urgent-need covered insulin is being dispensed in accordance with this section.
Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.741, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Board" means the Minnesota Board of Pharmacy under section 151.02.
(c)
"Covered insulin" has the meaning given in section 151.74,
subdivision 1.
(c) (d)
"Manufacturer" means a manufacturer licensed under section 151.252
and engaged in the manufacturing of prescription covered insulin.
Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 151.741, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Assessment of registration fee. (a) The board shall assess each manufacturer an annual registration fee of $100,000, except as provided in paragraph (b). The board shall notify each manufacturer of this requirement beginning November 1, 2024, and each November 1 thereafter.
(b) A manufacturer may
request an exemption from the annual registration fee. The board shall exempt a manufacturer from
the annual registration fee if the manufacturer can demonstrate to the board,
in the form and manner specified by the board, that gross revenue from sales of
prescription covered insulin produced by that manufacturer and
sold or delivered within or into Minnesota was less than five percent of the
total gross revenue from sales of prescription covered insulin
produced by all manufacturers and sold or delivered within or into Minnesota in
the previous calendar year.
Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 151.741, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. Insulin repayment account; annual transfer from health care access fund. (a) The insulin repayment account is established in the special revenue fund in the state treasury. Money in the account is appropriated each fiscal year to the commissioner of administration to reimburse manufacturers for covered insulin dispensed under the insulin safety net program in section 151.74, in accordance with section 151.74, subdivisions 3, paragraph (h), and 6, paragraph (h), and to cover costs incurred by the commissioner in providing these reimbursement payments.
(b) By June 30, 2025, and each June 30 thereafter, the commissioner of administration shall certify to the commissioner of management and budget the total amount expended in the prior fiscal year for:
(1) reimbursement to manufacturers for covered insulin dispensed under the insulin safety net program in section 151.74, in accordance with section 151.74, subdivisions 3, paragraph (h), and 6, paragraph (h); and
(2) costs incurred by the commissioner of administration in providing the reimbursement payments described in clause (1).
(c) The commissioner of management and budget shall transfer from the health care access fund to the insulin repayment account, beginning July 1, 2025, and each July 1 thereafter, an amount equal to the amount to which the commissioner of administration certified pursuant to paragraph (b).
Sec. 22. REPEALER.
Minnesota Statutes 2024,
section 151.74, subdivision 15, is repealed.
ARTICLE 2
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62U.04, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Encounter data. (a) All health plan companies, dental organizations, and third-party administrators shall submit encounter data on a monthly basis to a private entity designated by the commissioner of health. The data shall be submitted in a form and manner specified by the commissioner subject to the following requirements:
(2) the data for each encounter must include an identifier for the patient's health care home if the patient has selected a health care home, data on contractual value-based payments, and data deemed necessary by the commissioner to uniquely identify claims in the individual health insurance market;
(3) the data must include
enrollee race and ethnicity, to the extent available, for claims incurred on or
after January 1, 2023; and
(4) except for the data
described in clauses (2) and (3), the data must not include information that is
not included in a health care claim, dental care claim, or equivalent encounter
information transaction that is required under section 62J.536.; and
(5) the data must include
at least the following data fields for any fully denied claims:
(i) an indicator of which
claim lines were denied;
(ii) the reason for
denial of each denied claim line;
(iii) the claim line
status in terms of adjudication; and
(iv) a claim identifier
to link the original claim to subsequent action on the claim.
(b) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall only use the data submitted under paragraph (a) to carry out the commissioner's responsibilities in this section, including supplying the data to providers so they can verify their results of the peer grouping process consistent with the recommendations developed pursuant to subdivision 3c, paragraph (d), and adopted by the commissioner and, if necessary, submit comments to the commissioner or initiate an appeal.
(c) Data on providers collected under this subdivision are private data on individuals or nonpublic data, as defined in section 13.02. Notwithstanding the data classifications in this paragraph, data on providers collected under this subdivision may be released or published as authorized in subdivision 11. The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall establish procedures and safeguards to protect the integrity and confidentiality of any data that it maintains.
(d) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall not publish analyses or reports that identify, or could potentially identify, individual patients.
(e) The commissioner shall compile summary information on the data submitted under this subdivision. The commissioner shall work with its vendors to assess the data submitted in terms of compliance with the data submission requirements and the completeness of the data submitted by comparing the data with summary information compiled by the commissioner and with established and emerging data quality standards to ensure data quality.
Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62U.04, subdivision 13, is amended to read:
Subd. 13. Expanded access to and use of the all-payer claims data. (a) The commissioner or the commissioner's designee shall make the data submitted under subdivisions 4, 5, 5a, and 5b, including data classified as private or nonpublic, available to individuals and organizations engaged in research on, or efforts to effect transformation in, health care outcomes, access, quality, disparities, or spending, provided the use of the data serves a public benefit. Data made available under this subdivision may not be used to:
(2) reidentify or attempt to reidentify an individual in the data; or
(3) publicly report contract details between a health plan company and provider and derived from the data.
(b) To implement paragraph (a), the commissioner shall:
(1) establish detailed requirements for data access; a process for data users to apply to access and use the data; legally enforceable data use agreements to which data users must consent; a clear and robust oversight process for data access and use, including a data management plan, that ensures compliance with state and federal data privacy laws; agreements for state agencies and the University of Minnesota to ensure proper and efficient use and security of data; and technical assistance for users of the data and for stakeholders;
(2) develop a assess
fees according to the fee schedule in subdivision 14 to support the
cost of expanded access to and use of the data, provided the fees charged under
the schedule do not create a barrier to access or use for those most affected
by disparities; and
(3) create a research
advisory group to advise the commissioner on applications for data use under
this subdivision, including an examination of the rigor of the research
approach, the technical capabilities of the proposed user, and the ability of
the proposed user to successfully safeguard the data.; and
(4) annually publish on
the Department of Health website a list of projects authorized under this
subdivision.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 62U.04, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 14. Fees
for expanded access to and use of the all-payer claims database. (a) For purposes of this section:
(1) "custom data
set or analysis" means a de-identified data set or report for which a
standard data set or limited use data sets are not appropriate, that only
provides the minimum necessary data, and that is de-identified using the expert
determination method as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45,
section 164.514(b)(1);
(2) "data
file" means a data file derived from medical claims, pharmacy claims,
dental claims, eligibility information, membership information, or provider
information for a single year;
(3) "limited use
data set" means a data set that meets the requirements in Code of Federal
Regulations, title 45, section 164.514(e)(2), and may include protected health
information from which certain direct identifiers of individuals have been
removed under the principle of minimum information necessary; and
(4) "standard data
set" means a static data release designed by the commissioner to serve a
wide range of projects in which nearly all de-identified data elements are
disclosed in one release after applying the safe harbor de‑identification
method defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 45, section 164.514(b)(2),
and from which protected health information and any combination of data
elements that directly identify any person are excluded.
(b) The commissioner
must assess fees on an individual or organization that receives data under
subdivision 13 for the cost of accessing or receiving the data. Costs under this paragraph may include but
are not limited to the cost of producing and releasing data to the individual
or organization under subdivision 13 and managing infrastructure and operations. The commissioner must assess fees according
to the following schedule based on the type of data requested and number of
years for which access is requested:
(1)
the fee for a standard data set is $3,500 per data file per year;
(2) the fee for a
limited use data set is $7,000 per data file per year; and
(3) the fee for a custom
data set or analysis is $89 per hour of staff time expended, with fees not to
exceed the cost of 65 hours of staff time.
(c) An individual or
organization that receives approval to access or receive data under subdivision
13 must pay all the required fees in full before accessing or receiving the
requested data.
(d) The commissioner may
grant a partial or full waiver of the fees in paragraph (b) if the individual
or organization requesting the data meets at least one of the following
criteria:
(1) the fees represent a
financial hardship to the individual or organization;
(2) the organization is
a self-insured data submitter under this section;
(3) the individual or
organization is affiliated with an academic institution;
(4) the individual or
organization requests a high volume of data files; or
(5) the request is from
a Tribal health director for, or the governing body of, one of the 11 federally
recognized Tribes in Minnesota.
In determining whether to grant a waiver
under this paragraph, the commissioner may consult the research advisory group
established under subdivision 13.
(e) Fees paid by an
individual or organization approved to access or receive data under subdivision
13 are nonrefundable. Fees collected
under this subdivision must be deposited into an account in the special revenue
fund. Money in that account does not
cancel and is appropriated to the commissioner to offset the cost of providing
access to data under subdivision 13 and maintaining data submitted under
subdivisions 4 to 5b.
(f) The commissioner
must publish the fee schedule in paragraph (b) on the Department of Health
website.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1222, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 2e. Private
residential pool used for certified swimming classes. Notwithstanding Minnesota Rules, part
4717.0250, subpart 7, a private residential pool may be used as part of a
business if the private residential pool is used by a paying guest of the
homeowner and the guest is participating in a certified swimming class
conducted by the homeowner, provided that:
(1) the homeowner is a
certified swimming instructor and is conducting a certified swimming class on a
one‑on‑one basis;
(2) not more than four
individuals are in the pool at the same time during the class;
(3) prior to each new
paying guest beginning participation in a certified swimming class:
(i) the guest, or the
guest's parent or legal guardian if the guest is a minor, provides written
consent to use of the pool. The written
consent must include a statement that the guest, or the guest's parent or legal
guardian if the guest is a minor, has received and read materials provided by
the Department of Health with information on the risk of
disease
transmission and other risks associated with pools and a statement that the
Department of Health does not monitor or inspect the homeowner's pool to ensure
compliance with the requirements in section 144.1222 or Minnesota Rules,
chapter 4717; and
(ii) the homeowner tests
the pool's water for the concentration of chlorine or bromine, pH, and
alkalinity, and the water in the pool meets the requirements for disinfection
residual, pH, and alkalinity in Minnesota Rules, part 4717.1750, subparts 4, 5,
and 6; and
(4) the following notice
is conspicuously posted at the pool and, prior to each new paying guest
beginning participation in a certified swimming class, is provided to the guest
or to the guest's parent or legal guardian if the guest is a minor:
"NOTICE
This pool is exempt from
state and local anti-entrapment and sanitary requirements that prevent
waterborne diseases such as Legionnaires' disease, Pseudomonas folliculitis
(hot tub rash), and chemical burns and is not subject to inspection.
USE AT YOUR OWN RISK"
Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1222, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Definitions. (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given them.
(b) "ASME/ANSI standard" means a safety standard accredited by the American National Standards Institute and published by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers.
(c) "ASTM standard" means a safety standard issued by ASTM International, formerly known as the American Society for Testing and Materials.
(d) "Public pool" means any pool other than a private residential pool, that is: (1) open to the public generally, whether for a fee or free of charge; (2) open exclusively to members of an organization and their guests; (3) open to residents of a multiunit apartment building, apartment complex, residential real estate development, or other multifamily residential area; (4) open to patrons of a hotel or lodging or other public accommodation facility; or (5) operated by a person in a park, school, licensed child care facility, group home, motel, camp, resort, club, condominium, manufactured home park, or political subdivision with the exception of swimming pools at family day care homes licensed under section 142B.41, subdivision 9, paragraph (a).
(e) "Unblockable suction outlet or drain" means a drain of any size and shape that a human body cannot sufficiently block to create a suction entrapment hazard and meets ASME/ANSI standards.
(f) "Certified
swimming class" means an infant swimming resource (ISR) class; an American
Red Cross swimming class, swimming lesson, or learn-to-swim class; or any other
swimming class certified by a nationally accredited organization that operates
in all 50 states.
(g) "Certified
swimming instructor" means a certified ISR instructor; a certified
American Red Cross swimming instructor or swim coach; or any other swimming
instructor certified by a nationally accredited organization that operates in
all 50 states.
Subdivision 1. Duty to perform testing. (a) It is the duty of (1) the administrative officer or other person in charge of each institution caring for infants 28 days or less of age, (2) the person required in pursuance of the provisions of section 144.215, to register the birth of a child, or (3) the nurse midwife or midwife in attendance at the birth, to arrange to have administered to every infant or child in its care tests for heritable and congenital disorders according to subdivision 2 and rules prescribed by the state commissioner of health.
(b) Testing, recording of test results, reporting of test results, and follow-up of infants with heritable congenital disorders, including hearing loss detected through the early hearing detection and intervention program in section 144.966, shall be performed at the times and in the manner prescribed by the commissioner of health.
(c) The fee to support the
newborn screening program, including tests administered under this section and
section 144.966, shall be $184.35 per specimen.
This fee amount shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to
the state government special revenue fund.
If the individual described in paragraph (a) submits to an insurer a
claim for reimbursement for a newborn screening program fee but does not
receive reimbursement from the insurer, the individual may request a special
fee exemption form from the newborn screening program and may apply for an
exemption from the fee. To qualify for
the exemption, the individual must provide documentation to the newborn
screening program that the insurer did not reimburse the individual for the
fee.
(d) The fee to offset the cost of the support services provided under section 144.966, subdivision 3a, shall be $15 per specimen. This fee shall be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the general fund.
Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1501, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Availability. (a) The commissioner of health shall use money appropriated for health professional education loan forgiveness in this section:
(1) for medical residents, physicians, mental health professionals, and alcohol and drug counselors agreeing to practice in designated rural areas or underserved urban communities or specializing in the area of pediatric psychiatry;
(2) for midlevel practitioners agreeing to practice in designated rural areas or to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in the nursing field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate level;
(3) for nurses who agree to practice in a Minnesota nursing home; in an intermediate care facility for persons with developmental disability; in a hospital if the hospital owns and operates a Minnesota nursing home and a minimum of 50 percent of the hours worked by the nurse is in the nursing home; in an assisted living facility as defined in section 144G.08, subdivision 7; or for a home care provider as defined in section 144A.43, subdivision 4; or agree to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in the nursing field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate level;
(4) for other health care technicians agreeing to teach at least 12 credit hours, or 720 hours per year in their designated field in a postsecondary program at the undergraduate level or the equivalent at the graduate level. The commissioner, in consultation with the Healthcare Education-Industry Partnership, shall determine the health care fields where the need is the greatest, including, but not limited to, respiratory therapy, clinical laboratory technology, radiologic technology, and surgical technology;
(5) for pharmacists, advanced dental therapists, dental therapists, and public health nurses who agree to practice in designated rural areas;
(7) for nurses employed as a hospital nurse by a nonprofit hospital and providing direct care to patients at the nonprofit hospital.
(b) Appropriations made for
health professional education loan forgiveness in this section do not cancel
and are available until expended, except that at the end of each biennium,
any remaining balance in the account that is not committed by contract and not
needed to fulfill existing commitments shall cancel to the fund.
Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1503, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. Selection
process. The commissioner shall
determine a maximum award for grants and loan forgiveness, and shall make
selections based on the information provided in the grant application,
including the demonstrated need for an applicant provider to enhance the
education of its workforce, the proposed employee scholarship or loan
forgiveness selection process, the applicant's proposed budget, and other
criteria as determined by the commissioner.
Notwithstanding any law or rule to the contrary, amounts appropriated
for purposes of this section do not cancel and are available until expended,
except that at the end of each biennium, any remaining amount that is not committed by contract and not needed to fulfill
existing commitments shall cancel to the general fund.
Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1505, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Definitions. For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:
(1) "eligible advanced
practice registered nurse program" means a program that is located in
Minnesota and is currently accredited as a master's, doctoral, or postgraduate
level advanced practice registered nurse program by the Commission on Collegiate
Nursing Education or by the Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing,
or is has presented a credible plan as a candidate for
accreditation;
(2) "eligible dental
therapy program" means a dental therapy education program or advanced
dental therapy education program that is located in Minnesota and is
either that:
(i) is approved by
the Board of Dentistry; or
(ii) is currently
accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation; or
(iii) has presented a
credible plan as a candidate for accreditation;
(3) "eligible mental
health professional program" means a program that is located in Minnesota
and is listed currently accredited as a mental health
professional program by the appropriate accrediting body for clinical social
work, psychology, marriage and family therapy, or licensed professional
clinical counseling, or is has presented a credible plan as a
candidate for accreditation;
(4) "eligible pharmacy program" means a program that is located in Minnesota and is currently accredited as a doctor of pharmacy program by the Accreditation Council on Pharmacy Education or has presented a credible plan as a candidate for accreditation;
(6) "mental health professional" means an individual providing clinical services in the treatment of mental illness who meets one of the qualifications under section 245.462, subdivision 18;
(7) "eligible physician training program" means a medical school training program or a physician residency training program located in Minnesota and that is currently accredited by the accrediting body or has presented a credible plan as a candidate for accreditation;
(8) "eligible dental
program" means a dental education program or a dental residency training
program located in Minnesota and that is currently accredited by the
accrediting body or has presented a credible plan as a candidate for
accreditation; and
(9) "project"
means a project to establish or expand (i) plan or implement a new
eligible clinical training for physician assistants, advanced practice
registered nurses, pharmacists, dental therapists, advanced dental therapists,
or mental health professionals in Minnesota. program or increase the base number of
trainees in an existing eligible clinical training program, or (ii) add or
expand rural rotations or clinical training experiences in an existing eligible
clinical training program;
(10) "rural
community" means a Tribal Nation, statutory city, home rule charter city,
or township in Minnesota that is outside the seven-county metropolitan area as
defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2, excluding the cities of Duluth, Mankato,
Moorhead, Rochester, and St. Cloud; and
(11) "underserved
community" means a Minnesota area or population included in the list of
designated primary medical care health professional shortage areas, medically
underserved areas, or medically underserved populations maintained and updated
by the United States Department of Health and Human Services.
Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1505, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Programs. (a) For advanced practice provider
clinical training expansion grants, the commissioner of health shall award health
professional training site grants to eligible physician assistant, advanced
practice registered nurse, pharmacy, dental therapy, and mental health
professional programs to plan and implement expanded a new eligible
clinical training program or increase the base number of trainees in an
existing eligible clinical training program. Clinical training must take place in rural
communities or underserved communities.
A planning grant shall not exceed $75,000, and a three-year training
grant shall not exceed $300,000 per project.
The commissioner may provide a one-year, no-cost extension for
grants.
(b) For health professional
rural and underserved clinical rotations grants, the commissioner of
health shall award health professional training site grants to existing
eligible physician, physician assistant, advanced practice registered nurse,
pharmacy, dentistry, dental therapy, and mental health professional training
programs to augment existing clinical training programs to add,
expand, or enhance rural and underserved rotations or clinical
training experiences, such as credential or certificate rural tracks or other
specialized training. Rotations and
clinical training experiences must take place in rural communities. For physician and dentist training, the
expanded training must include rotations in primary care settings such as
community clinics, hospitals, health maintenance organizations, or practices in
rural communities.
(c) Advanced practice provider clinical training expansion grant funds may be used for:
(1) establishing or
expanding rotations planning and implementing a new clinical
training program or increasing the base number of trainees in an existing
clinical training program as described in paragraph (a);
(3) connecting students with
appropriate clinical training sites, internships, practicums, or externship activities
opportunities;
(4) travel and lodging for students;
(5) faculty, student, and preceptor salaries, incentives, or other financial support;
(6) development and
implementation of health equity and cultural competency responsiveness
training;
(7) evaluations of the clinical training program to inform program improvements;
(8) training site
improvements, fees, equipment, and supplies required to establish, maintain, or
expand a training program; and
(9) supporting clinical
education in which trainees are part of a primary care team model.;
and
(10) onboarding expenses
for trainees to meet clinical training site requirements.
(d) Health professional
rural clinical rotation grant funds may be used for:
(1) adding, expanding, or
enhancing rural rotations and clinical training experiences in an existing
clinical training program as described in paragraph (b);
(2) recruitment,
training, and retention of students, faculty, and preceptors;
(3) connecting students
with appropriate clinical training sites, internships, practicums, or
externship opportunities;
(4) travel and lodging
for students;
(5) faculty, student, and
preceptor salaries, stipends, or other financial support;
(6) development and
implementation of health equity and cultural responsiveness training;
(7) evaluations of the
rural rotation or clinical training experience to inform program improvements;
(8) training site
improvements, fees, equipment, and supplies required to establish or expand
rural rotations or clinical training experiences;
(9) supporting clinical
education in which trainees are part of a primary care team model; and
(10) onboarding expenses
for trainees to meet clinical training site requirements.
Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1505, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. Applications. (a) Eligible physician assistant,
advanced practice registered nurse, pharmacy, dental therapy, dental,
physician, and mental health professional programs seeking a grant shall apply
to the commissioner. Applications for
advanced practice provider clinical training expansion grants must include
a description of the number of additional students who will be trained using
grant funds; and attestation that funding will be used to support
an increase in the number of clinical training slots;.
(b) All
applications must include: (1) a
description of the problem that the proposed project will address; (2) a
description of the project, including all costs associated with the project,;
(3) sources of funds for the project,; (4) detailed uses of
all funds for the project, and the results expected; and (5) a
plan to maintain or operate any component included in the project after
the grant period, including a description of potential barriers to
sustainability. The applicant
Applicants must describe achievable objectives, a timetable, and roles
and capabilities of responsible individuals in the organization.
Applicants applying under
subdivision 2, paragraph (b), (c) Applications for rural clinical
rotation grants must include a description of the new, expanded, or
enhanced rural rotations or clinical training experiences; attestation that
funding will be used to support improved rural clinical training experiences;
and information about length of training and training site settings,
geographic location of rural sites, and rural populations expected to be
served.
Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Eligible program" means a program that meets the following criteria:
(1) is located in Minnesota;
(2) trains medical residents in the specialties of family medicine, general internal medicine, general pediatrics, psychiatry, geriatrics, or general surgery in rural residency training programs or in community-based ambulatory care centers that primarily serve the underserved, or trains postdoctoral psychology residents; and
(3) is accredited by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or the American Psychological Association or presents a credible plan to obtain accreditation.
(c) "Rural
community" means a Tribal Nation, statutory city, home rule charter city,
or township in Minnesota that is outside the seven-county metropolitan area as
defined in section 473.121, subdivision 2, excluding the cities of Duluth,
Mankato, Moorhead, Rochester, and St. Cloud.
(c) (d) "Rural
residency training program" means a rural medical residency program
or a rural psychology residency program that provides an initial year
of training in an accredited residency program in Minnesota. The subsequent years of the residency
program are At least two-thirds of the residency training must be
based in rural communities, utilizing local clinics and community hospitals,
with specialty rotations in nearby regional medical centers. When specialty rotations cannot be
fulfilled within rural communities, training may occur in regional or urban
sites as long as at least one-half of all training occurs in rural communities. For residency training programs in general
surgery, pediatrics, and psychiatry, at least one-half of the residency
training must be based in communities outside the seven-county metropolitan
area, with rotations in rural communities.
(d) (e) "Community-based
ambulatory care centers" means federally qualified health centers,
community mental health centers, rural health clinics, health centers operated
by the Indian Health Service, an Indian Tribe or Tribal organization, or an
urban American Indian organization or an entity receiving funds under Title X
of the Public Health Service Act.
(e) (f) "Eligible
project" means a project to establish and maintain a rural residency
training program.
Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Rural
residency training program. (a) The
commissioner of health shall award rural residency training program grants to
eligible programs to plan, implement, and sustain rural residency training
programs. A rural medical
residency training program grant shall not exceed $250,000 per year for up to
three years for planning and development, and $225,000 per resident per year
for each year thereafter to sustain the program. A rural
psychology
residency training program grant shall not exceed $150,000 per year for up to
three years for planning and development, and $150,000 per resident per year
for each year thereafter to sustain the program. Medical and psychology residency programs
that meet eligibility guidelines and continue to demonstrate financial need
shall be granted sustaining funds, renewable every five years.
(b) Funds may be spent to cover the costs of:
(1) planning related to establishing accredited rural residency training programs;
(2) obtaining accreditation by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the American Psychological Association, or another national body that accredits rural residency training programs;
(3) establishing new rural residency training programs;
(4) recruitment, training, and retention of new residents and faculty related to the new rural residency training program;
(5) travel and lodging for new residents;
(6) faculty, new resident, and preceptor salaries related to new rural residency training programs;
(7) training site improvements, fees, equipment, and supplies required
for new rural residency training programs; and
(8) supporting clinical education in which trainees are part of a primary care team model.
Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Consideration of grant applications. The commissioner shall review each application to determine if the residency program application is complete, if the proposed rural residency program and residency slots are eligible for a grant, and if the program is eligible for federal graduate medical education funding, and when the funding is available. If eligible programs are not eligible for federal graduate medical education funding, the commissioner may award continuation funding to the eligible program beyond the initial grant period without requiring a competitive application. The commissioner shall award grants to support training programs in family medicine, general internal medicine, general pediatrics, psychiatry, geriatrics, general surgery, psychology, and other primary care focus areas.
Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1507, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 6. Clinical
training program coordination. The
commissioner may award grants to the University of Minnesota to provide
technical assistance to residency training programs for coordinated development
of rural clinical training programs.
Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1911, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Establishment. The international medical graduates
assistance program is established to address barriers to practice and
facilitate pathways to assist immigrant international medical graduates to
integrate into the Minnesota health care delivery system, with the goal of
increasing access to primary care in rural and underserved areas of the state. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary,
appropriations made to the program do not cancel and are available until
expended.
Subd. 5. Clinical
preparation. (a) The
commissioner shall award grants to support clinical preparation for Minnesota
international medical graduates needing additional clinical preparation or
experience to qualify for residency. The
grant program shall include:
(1) proposed training curricula;
(2) associated policies and procedures for clinical training sites, which must be part of existing clinical medical education programs in Minnesota; and
(3) monthly stipends for
international medical graduate participants.
Priority shall be given to primary care sites in rural or underserved
areas of the state, and.
International medical graduate participants who receive support from
the international medical graduate primary care residency grant program
must commit to serving at least five years in a rural or underserved community
of the state.
(b) The policies and
procedures for the clinical preparation grants must be developed by December
31, 2015, including an implementation schedule that begins awarding grants to
clinical preparation programs beginning in June of 2016.
Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 144.1911, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6. International
medical graduate primary care residency grant program and revolving account. (a) The commissioner shall award grants
to support primary care residency positions designated for Minnesota immigrant
physicians who are willing to serve in rural or underserved areas of the state. No grant shall exceed $150,000 per residency
position per year. Eligible primary care
residency grant recipients include accredited family medicine, general surgery,
internal medicine, obstetrics and gynecology, psychiatry, and pediatric
residency programs. Eligible primary
care residency programs shall apply to the commissioner. Applications must include the number of
anticipated residents to be funded using grant funds and a budget. Notwithstanding any law to the contrary,
funds awarded to grantees in a grant agreement do not lapse until the grant
agreement expires. Before any funds
are distributed, a grant recipient shall provide the commissioner with the
following:
(1) a copy of the signed contract between the primary care residency program and the participating international medical graduate;
(2) certification that the participating international medical graduate has lived in Minnesota for at least two years and is certified by the Educational Commission on Foreign Medical Graduates. Residency programs may also require that participating international medical graduates hold a Minnesota certificate of clinical readiness for residency, once the certificates become available; and
(3) verification that the participating international medical graduate has executed a participant agreement pursuant to paragraph (b).
(b) Upon acceptance by a participating residency program, international medical graduates shall enter into an agreement with the commissioner to provide primary care for at least five years in a rural or underserved area of Minnesota after graduating from the residency program and make payments to the revolving international medical graduate residency account for five years beginning in their second year of postresidency employment. Participants shall pay $15,000 or ten percent of their annual compensation each year, whichever is less.
(c) A revolving international medical graduate residency account is established as an account in the special revenue fund in the state treasury. The commissioner of management and budget shall credit to the account appropriations, payments, and transfers to the account. Earnings, such as interest, dividends, and any other earnings
(1) the contributing entity may not specify the recipient or recipients of any grant issued under this subdivision;
(2) the commissioner shall make public the identity of any private contributor to the account, as well as the amount of the contribution provided; and
(3) a contributing entity may not specify that the recipient or recipients of any funds use specific products or services, nor may the contributing entity imply that a contribution is an endorsement of any specific product or service.
Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.02, subdivision 26, is amended to read:
Subd. 26. Intern. "Intern" means an individual that
who: (1)(i) has met the
educational and testing requirements for a license to practice mortuary science
in Minnesota,; (ii) has completed a mortuary science program
accredited by the American Board of Funeral Service Education; or (iii) is
enrolled in a mortuary science program accredited by the American Board of
Funeral Service Education; (2) has registered with the commissioner of
health,; and (3) is engaged in the practice of mortuary
science under the direction and supervision of a currently licensed Minnesota
mortuary science practitioner.
Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.20, subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6. Internship. (a) A person who attains a passing
score on both examinations in subdivision 5 must complete a registered
internship under the direct supervision of an individual currently licensed to
practice mortuary science in Minnesota. Interns
must file with the commissioner: A
person may begin the registered internship while the person is enrolled in a
mortuary science program accredited by the American Board of Funeral Service
Education, upon completion of the accredited mortuary science program, or after
attaining a passing score on both examinations in subdivision 5.
(b) An applicant for an
internship must file with the commissioner:
(1) the appropriate fee; and
(2) a registration form
indicating the name and home address of the intern, applicant;
the date the internship begins, and; the name, license number,
and business address of the primary supervising mortuary science
licensee.; and the name, license number, and business address of the
alternate supervising mortuary science licensee, if applicable; and
(3) if the applicant is
currently enrolled in a mortuary science program accredited by the American
Board of Funeral Service Education, a letter from the program specifying the
name and address of the program; verifying the applicant's enrollment, number
of credit hours completed, and anticipated graduation date; and specifying
whether the applicant has completed coursework in embalming and restorative
arts.
(b) (c) Any
changes in information provided in the registration must be immediately
reported to the commissioner. The
internship shall be a minimum of 2,080 hours to be completed within a
three-year period, however, during enrollment in a mortuary science
program accredited by the American Board of Funeral Service Education, after
graduation, or both during enrollment and after graduation. However, the commissioner may waive
Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.20, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. Application procedure and documentation. After completing the registered internship, the applicant for an initial license to practice mortuary science must submit to the commissioner a complete application and the appropriate fee. A complete application includes:
(1) a completed application form, as provided by the commissioner;
(2) proof of age;
(3) an official transcript from each post high school educational institution attended, including colleges of funeral service education;
(4) certification of a passing score on the National Board Examination from the commissioner of the Conference of Funeral Service Examining Boards of the United States, Inc.;
(5) a copy of the notification of a passing score on the state licensing examination; and
(6) a signed, dated, and notarized affidavit from the registered primary supervising licensee who supervised the Minnesota internship stating the date the internship began and ended and that both the applicant and the registered primary supervising licensee fulfilled the requirements under subdivision 6.
Upon receipt of the completed application and appropriate fee, the commissioner shall review and verify all information. Upon completion of the verification process and resolution of any deficiencies in the application information, the commissioner shall make a determination, based on all the information available, to grant or deny licensure. If the commissioner's determination is to grant licensure, the applicant shall be notified and the license shall issue and remain valid for a period prescribed on the license, but not to exceed one calendar year from the date of issuance of the license. If the commissioner's determination is to deny licensure, the commissioner must notify the applicant, in writing, of the denial and provide the specific reason for the denial.
Subdivision 1. Licensees
of other states. (a) The
commissioner may issue a reciprocal license to practice mortuary science
to a person who holds a current license or other credential from another
jurisdiction if the commissioner determines that the requirements for that
license or other credential are substantially similar to the requirements under
this chapter. The individual seeking
reciprocal licensing must person:
(1) attain attains:
(i) a passing score
on the Minnesota state licensing examination; and
(ii) a passing score on
the National Board Examination administered by the International Conference of
Funeral Service Examining Boards of the United States, Inc., or another
examination determined by the commissioner to adequately and accurately assess the
knowledge and skills required to practice mortuary science;
(2) submit submits
to the commissioner the documentation described in section 149A.20, subdivision
7, clauses (1) and (5), and certification of a passing score on an
examination described in clause (1), item (ii); and
(3) pay pays
the appropriate licensing fee.;
(4) submits to the
commissioner:
(i) documentation that the person meets one of the educational
requirements in section 149A.20, subdivision 4; or
(ii) documentation that
the person has been licensed or credentialed in another jurisdiction and a
signed, dated affidavit from the person declaring that the person has engaged
in at least three years of practice in that jurisdiction performing the duties
of a licensed mortician;
(5) submits to the
commissioner a signed, dated affidavit from the person declaring that the
person is not subject to any pending investigations by the mortuary science
licensing or credentialing authority in any other jurisdiction and is not
currently practicing as a licensed mortician in any other jurisdiction under a
restricted license or credential;
(6) submits to the
commissioner a signed, dated affidavit from the person declaring that the
person has performed at least 25 services, completed at least 25 funeral
arrangements, and performed at least 25 embalming cases; and
(7) submits to the
commissioner documentation that the person has completed the continuing
education hours required in section 149A.40, subdivision 11, within the
two-year period prior to applying for licensure under this subdivision.
(b) When, in the determination of the commissioner, all of the requirements of this subdivision have been met, the commissioner shall, based on all the information available, grant or deny licensure. If the commissioner grants licensure, the applicant shall be notified and the license shall issue and remain valid for a period prescribed on the license, but not to exceed one calendar year from the date of issuance of the license. If the commissioner denies licensure, the commissioner must notify the applicant, in writing, of the denial and provide the specific reason for denial.
Subd. 3. Embalming or refrigeration required. (a) A dead human body must be embalmed by a licensed mortician or registered intern or practicum student or clinical student, refrigerated, or packed in dry ice in the following circumstances:
(1) if the body will be transported by public transportation, pursuant to section 149A.93, subdivision 7;
(2) if final disposition will not be accomplished within 72 hours after death or release of the body by a competent authority with jurisdiction over the body or the body will be lawfully stored for final disposition in the future, except as provided in section 149A.94, subdivision 1;
(3) if the body will be publicly viewed subject to paragraph (b); or
(4) if so ordered by the commissioner of health for the control of infectious disease and the protection of the public health.
(b) For purposes of this subdivision, "publicly viewed" means reviewal of a dead human body by anyone other than those mentioned in section 149A.80, subdivision 2, and their minor children. Dry ice may only be used when the dead human body is publicly viewed within private property.
(c) Except as provided in section 149A.955, subdivision 14, a body may not be kept in refrigeration for a period that exceeds six calendar days, or packed in dry ice for a period that exceeds four calendar days, from the time and release of the body from the place of death or from the time of release from the coroner or medical examiner.
Sec. 24. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.94, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Generally. Every dead human body lying within the
state, except unclaimed bodies delivered for dissection by the medical
examiner, those delivered for anatomical study pursuant to section 149A.81,
subdivision 2, or lawfully carried through the state for the purpose of
disposition elsewhere; and the remains of any dead human body after dissection
or anatomical study, shall be decently buried or entombed in a public or
private cemetery, alkaline hydrolyzed, cremated, or, effective July 1, 2025,
naturally reduced within a reasonable time after death. Where final disposition of a body will not be
accomplished, or, effective July 1, 2025, when natural organic
reduction will not be initiated, within 72 hours following death or
release of the body by a competent authority with jurisdiction over the body,
the body must be properly embalmed, refrigerated, or packed with dry ice. Except as provided in section 149A.955,
subdivision 14, a body may not be kept in refrigeration for a period
exceeding six calendar days, or packed in dry ice for a period that exceeds
four calendar days, from the time of death or release of the body from the
coroner or medical examiner.
Sec. 25. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.955, subdivision 14, is amended to read:
Subd. 14. Bodies
awaiting natural organic reduction. A
dead human body must be placed in the natural organic reduction vessel to
initiate the natural reduction process within 24 hours 30 days
after the natural organic reduction facility accepts legal and physical custody
of the body. A natural organic
reduction facility must keep a body awaiting natural organic reduction in
refrigeration if the facility holds the body for a period that exceeds four
calendar days. A natural organic
reduction facility must embalm a body awaiting natural organic reduction or
have the body embalmed if the natural reduction process is not initiated within
30 days after the facility accepted legal and physical custody of the body, but
the facility is not required to embalm or have embalmed the body if the natural
reduction process is initiated within 30 days after the facility accepted legal
and physical custody of the body.
FEDERAL CONFORMITY AND RELATED PROVISIONS
Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 116J.035, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 9. Disclosure
to the commissioner of human services.
The commissioner may disclose workforce program participation
data gathered under chapter 116L to the commissioner of human services for the
purpose of administering section 256B.0562 without the consent of the subject
of the data.
Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256.9657, subdivision 2b, is amended to read:
Subd. 2b. Hospital assessment. (a) For purposes of this subdivision, the following terms have the meanings given:
(1) "eligible hospital" means:
(i) PrairieCare psychiatric hospital; or
(ii) a hospital licensed under section 144.50, located in Minnesota, and with a Medicare cost report filed and showing in the Healthcare Cost Report Information System (HCRIS), except for the following:
(A) federal Indian Health Service facilities;
(B) state-owned or state-operated regional treatment centers and all state-operated services;
(C) federal Veterans
Administration Medical Centers; and
(D) long-term acute care hospitals; and
(E) hospitals that do
not receive payments under section 256B.1974;
(2) "net outpatient revenue" means total outpatient revenue less Medicare revenue as calculated from:
(i) values on Worksheet G of the hospital's Medicare cost report; or
(ii) for PrairieCare psychiatric hospital, data available to the commissioner; and
(3) "total patient days" means total hospital inpatient days as reported on:
(i) Worksheet S-3 of the hospital's Medicare cost report; or
(ii) for PrairieCare psychiatric hospital, data available to the commissioner.
(b) Subject to paragraphs (m) to (o), each eligible hospital must pay assessments to the hospital directed payment program account in the special revenue fund, with an aggregate annual assessment amount equal to the sum of the following:
(1) $120.22 multiplied by total patient days; and
(2) 5.96 percent of the hospital's net outpatient revenue.
(1) an eligible hospital with a fiscal year ending on March 31 or June 30 must use data from a cost report from the hospital's fiscal year 2022; and
(2) an eligible hospital with a fiscal year ending on September 30 or December 31 must use data from a cost report from the hospital's fiscal year 2021.
(d) The annual assessment amount for calendar years after 2027 must be set for a two-year period and must be based on the total patient days and net outpatient revenue reflected on an eligible hospital's most recent Medicare cost report filed and showing in HCRIS as of August 1 of the year prior to the subsequent two-year period.
(e) The commissioner may, after consultation with the Minnesota Hospital Association, modify the rates of assessment in paragraph (b) as necessary to comply with federal law, obtain or maintain a waiver under Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 433.72, or otherwise maximize under this section federal financial participation for medical assistance. Notwithstanding the foregoing authorization to maximize federal financial participation for medical assistance, the commissioner must reduce the rates of assessment in paragraph (b) as necessary to ensure:
(1) the state's aggregated health care-related taxes on inpatient hospital services do not exceed 5.75 percent of the net patient revenue attributable to those services; and
(2) the state's aggregated health care-related taxes on outpatient hospital services do not exceed 5.75 percent of the net patient revenue attributable to those services.
(f) Eligible hospitals must pay the annual assessment amount under paragraph (b) to the commissioner by paying four equal, quarterly assessments. Eligible hospitals must pay the quarterly assessments by January 1, April 1, July 1, and October 1 each year. Assessments must be paid in the form and manner specified by the commissioner. An eligible hospital is prohibited from paying a quarterly assessment until the eligible hospital has received the applicable invoice under paragraph (g).
(g) The commissioner must provide eligible hospitals with an invoice by December 1 for the assessment due January 1, March 1 for the assessment due April 1, June 1 for the assessment due July 1, and September 1 for the assessment due October 1 each year.
(h) The commissioner must notify each eligible hospital of the hospital's estimated annual assessment amount for the subsequent calendar year by October 15 each year.
(i) If any of the dates for assessments or invoices in paragraphs (f) to (h) fall on a holiday, the applicable date is the next business day.
(j) A hospital that has merged with another hospital must have the surviving hospital's assessment revised at the start of the hospital's first full fiscal year after the merger is complete. A closed hospital is retroactively responsible for assessments owed for services provided through the final date of operations.
(k) If the commissioner determines that a hospital has underpaid or overpaid an assessment, the commissioner must notify the hospital of the unpaid assessment or of any refund due. The commissioner must refund a hospital's overpayment from the hospital directed payment program account created in section 256B.1975, subdivision 1.
(l) Revenue from an assessment under this subdivision must only be used by the commissioner to pay the nonfederal share of the directed payment program under section 256B.1974.
(1) federal financial participation is unavailable or disallowed, or if the approved aggregate federal financial participation for the directed payment under section 256B.1974 is less than 51 percent; or
(2) a directed payment under section 256B.1974 is not approved by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.
(n) The commissioner must make the following discounts from the inpatient portion of the assessment under paragraph (b), clause (1), in the stated amount or as necessary to achieve federal approval of the assessment in this section:
(1) Hennepin Healthcare, with a discount of 25 percent;
(2) Mayo Rochester, with a discount of ten percent;
(3) Gillette Children's Hospital, with a discount of 90 percent;
(4) each hospital not included in another discount category, and with greater than $200,000,000 in total medical assistance inpatient and outpatient revenue in fee-for-service and managed care, as reported in state fiscal year 2022 medical assistance fee-for-service and managed care claims data, with a discount of five percent; and
(5) any hospital responsible for greater than 12 percent of the total assessment annually collected statewide, with a discount in the amount necessary such that the hospital is responsible for 12 percent of the total assessment annually collected statewide.
(o) The commissioner must make the following discounts from the outpatient portion of the assessment under paragraph (b), clause (2), in the stated amount or as necessary to achieve federal approval of the assessment in this section:
(1) each critical access hospital or independent hospital located outside a city of the first class and paid under the Medicare prospective payment system, with a discount of 40 percent;
(2) Gillette Children's Hospital, with a discount of 90 percent;
(3) Hennepin Healthcare, with a discount of 60 percent;
(4) Mayo Rochester, with a discount of 20 percent; and
(5) each hospital not included in another discount category, and with greater than $200,000,000 in total medical assistance inpatient and outpatient revenue in fee-for-service and managed care, as reported in state fiscal year 2022 medical assistance fee-for-service and managed care claims data, with a discount of ten percent.
(p) If the federal share of the hospital directed payment program under section 256B.1974 is increased as the result of an increase to the federal medical assistance percentage, the commissioner must reduce the assessment on a uniform percentage basis across eligible hospitals on which the assessment is imposed, such that the aggregate amount collected from hospitals under this subdivision does not exceed the total amount needed to maintain the same aggregate state and federal funding level for the directed payments authorized by section 256B.1974.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective upon the date that Laws 2025, First Special Session
chapter 3, article 8, section 4, becomes effective.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256.969, subdivision 2f, is amended to read:
Subd. 2f. Alternate
inpatient payment rate. (a)
Effective January 1, 2022, for a hospital eligible to receive disproportionate
share hospital payments under subdivision 9, paragraph (d), clause (6), the
commissioner shall reduce the amount calculated under subdivision 9, paragraph
(d), clause (6), by 99 one percent and compute an alternate
inpatient payment rate. The alternate
payment rate shall be structured to target a total aggregate reimbursement
amount equal to what the hospital would have received for providing
fee-for-service inpatient services under this section to patients enrolled in
medical assistance had the hospital received the entire amount calculated under
subdivision 9, paragraph (d), clause (6).
This paragraph expires when paragraph (b) becomes effective.
(b) For hospitals eligible
to receive payment under section 256B.1973 or 256B.1974 and meeting the
criteria in subdivision 9, paragraph (d), the commissioner must may
reduce the amount calculated under subdivision 9, paragraph (d), by one percent
and compute an alternate inpatient payment rate. The alternate payment rate must be structured
to target a total aggregate reimbursement amount equal to the amount that the
hospital would have received for providing fee-for-service inpatient services
under this section to patients enrolled in medical assistance had the hospital
received 99 percent of the entire amount calculated under subdivision 9,
paragraph (d). Hospitals that do not
meet federal requirements for Medicaid disproportionate share hospitals are not
eligible for the alternate payment rate.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective upon the date that Laws 2025, First Special Session
chapter 3, article 8, section 5, becomes effective.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.04, subdivision 27, is amended to read:
Subd. 27. Disenrollment
under medical assistance and MinnesotaCare.
(a) The commissioner shall regularly obtain and use information
from reliable data sources, including but not limited to managed care and
county-based purchasing plans, state health and human services programs, mail
returned by the United States Postal Service with a forwarding address, and the
National Change of Address database maintained by the United States Postal
Service, to update mailing addresses and other contact information for medical
assistance and MinnesotaCare enrollees in cases of returned mail and
nonresponse using information available through managed care and county‑based
purchasing plans, state health and human services programs, and other sources.
(b) The commissioner shall not disenroll an individual from medical assistance or MinnesotaCare in cases of returned mail until the commissioner makes at least two attempts by phone, email, or other methods to contact the individual. The commissioner may disenroll the individual after providing no less than 30 days for the individual to respond to the most recent contact attempt.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 2a, is amended to read:
Subd. 2a. Home equity limit for medical assistance payment of long-term care services. (a) Effective for requests of medical assistance payment of long-term care services filed on or after July 1, 2006, and for renewals on or after July 1, 2006, for persons who received payment of long-term care services under a request filed on or after
(b) Effective January 1,
2028, the amount specified in paragraph (a) must not exceed $1,000,000.
(b) (c) For
purposes of this subdivision, a "home" means any real or personal
property interest, including an interest in an agricultural homestead as
defined under section 273.124, subdivision 1, that, at the time of the request
for medical assistance payment of long-term care services, is the primary
dwelling of the person or was the primary dwelling of the person before receipt
of long-term care services began outside of the home.
(c) (d) A
person denied or terminated from medical assistance payment of long-term care
services because the person's home equity exceeds the home equity limit may
seek a waiver based upon a hardship by filing a written request with the county
agency. Hardship is an imminent threat
to the person's health and well-being that is demonstrated by documentation of
no alternatives for payment of long-term care services. The county agency shall make a decision
regarding the written request to waive the home equity limit within 30 days if
all necessary information has been provided.
The county agency shall send the person and the person's representative
a written notice of decision on the request for a demonstrated hardship waiver
that also advises the person of appeal rights under the fair hearing process of
section 256.045.
Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 3d, is amended to read:
Subd. 3d. Reduction of excess assets. Assets in excess of the limits in subdivisions 3 to 3c may be reduced to allowable limits as follows:
(a) Assets may be reduced
in any of the three either one or two calendar months before the
month of application in which the applicant seeks coverage, according to the
applicant's retroactive eligibility under section 256B.061 by paying bills
for health services that are incurred in the retroactive period for which the
applicant seeks eligibility, starting with the oldest bill. After assets are reduced to allowable limits,
eligibility begins with the next dollar of MA-covered health services incurred
in the retroactive period. Applicants
reducing assets under this subdivision who also have excess income shall first
spend excess assets to pay health service bills and may meet the income
spenddown on remaining bills.
(b) Assets may be reduced beginning the month of application by paying bills for health services that are incurred during the period specified in Minnesota Rules, part 9505.0090, subpart 2, that would otherwise be paid by medical assistance. After assets are reduced to allowable limits, eligibility begins with the next dollar of medical assistance covered health services incurred in the period. Applicants reducing assets under this subdivision who also have excess income shall first spend excess assets to pay health service bills and may meet the income spenddown on remaining bills.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. Period
of eligibility. (a) Eligibility is
available for the month of application and for three:
(1) one month prior to
application for an individual eligible under section 256B.055, subdivision 15,
if the individual was eligible in the prior month; or
(2)
two months prior to application for all other eligible individuals
if the person individual was eligible in those prior months. A redetermination of eligibility must
occur every 12 months.
(b) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary:
(1) a child under 19 years of age who is determined eligible for medical assistance must remain eligible for a period of 12 months;
(2) a child 19 years of age and older but under 21 years of age who is determined eligible for medical assistance must remain eligible for a period of 12 months; and
(3) a child under six years of age who is determined eligible for medical assistance must remain eligible through the month in which the child reaches six years of age.
(c) A child's eligibility under paragraph (b) may be terminated earlier if:
(1) the child or the child's representative requests voluntary termination of eligibility;
(2) the child ceases to be a resident of this state;
(3) the child dies;
(4) the child attains the maximum age; or
(5) the agency determines eligibility was erroneously granted at the most recent eligibility determination due to agency error or fraud, abuse, or perjury attributed to the child or the child's representative.
(d) For a person an
individual eligible for an insurance affordability program as defined in
section 256B.02, subdivision 19, who reports a change that makes the person
individual eligible for medical assistance, eligibility is available for
the month the change was reported and for three one month prior to
the month the change was reported for an individual eligible under section
256B.055, subdivision 15, or two months prior to the month the change was
reported, for all other eligible individuals if the person
individual was eligible in those the prior month or
months.
(e) The period of
eligibility for an individual eligible for medical assistance under section
256B.055, subdivision 15, and who is not an American Indian or Alaska Native,
is six months. The period of eligibility
for all other medical assistance enrollees is 12 months.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 7a, is amended to read:
Subd. 7a. Periodic renewal of eligibility. (a) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e), the commissioner shall make an annual redetermination of eligibility based on information contained in the enrollee's case file and other information available to the agency, including but not limited to information accessed through an electronic database, without requiring the enrollee to submit any information when sufficient data is available for the agency to renew eligibility.
(b) If the commissioner cannot renew eligibility in accordance with paragraph (a), the commissioner must provide the enrollee with a prepopulated renewal form containing eligibility information available to the agency and permit the enrollee to submit the form with any corrections or additional information to the agency and sign the renewal form via any of the modes of submission specified in section 256B.04, subdivision 18.
(d) Notwithstanding
paragraph (a), a person who is eligible under subdivision 5 shall be is
subject to a review of the person's income every six months.
(e) Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a person who is eligible under section 256B.055, subdivision 15, and who is not an American Indian or Alaska Native is subject to redetermination of eligibility every six months.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0561, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Periodic
data matching. (a) The commissioner
shall conduct periodic data matching to identify recipients who, based on
available electronic data, may not meet eligibility criteria for the public
health care program in which the recipient is enrolled. The commissioner shall conduct data matching
for medical assistance or MinnesotaCare recipients at least once during a
recipient's 12-month period of eligibility, except as provided in
paragraph (f).
(b) If data matching indicates a recipient may no longer qualify for medical assistance or MinnesotaCare, the commissioner must notify the recipient and allow the recipient no more than 30 days to confirm the information obtained through the periodic data matching or provide a reasonable explanation for the discrepancy to the state or county agency directly responsible for the recipient's case. If a recipient does not respond within the advance notice period or does not respond with information that demonstrates eligibility or provides a reasonable explanation for the discrepancy within the 30-day time period, the commissioner shall terminate the recipient's eligibility in the manner provided for by the laws and regulations governing the health care program for which the recipient has been identified as being ineligible.
(c) The commissioner shall not terminate eligibility for a recipient who is cooperating with the requirements of paragraph (b) and needs additional time to provide information in response to the notification.
(d) A recipient whose eligibility was terminated according to paragraph (b) may be eligible for medical assistance no earlier than the first day of the month in which the recipient provides information that demonstrates the recipient's eligibility.
(e) Any termination of eligibility for benefits under this section may be appealed as provided for in sections 256.045 to 256.0451, and the laws governing the health care programs for which eligibility is terminated.
(f) Effective January 1,
2027, an individual who is subject to a redetermination of eligibility every
six months under section 256B.056, subdivision 7a, paragraph (e), is exempt
from periodic data matching under this subdivision.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective the day following final enactment.
Sec. 10. [256B.0562]
WORK OR COMMUNITY ENGAGEMENT REQUIREMENTS.
Subdivision 1. Demonstrating
work or community engagement. (a)
To be eligible for medical assistance, an applicable individual must either
demonstrate compliance with the work or community engagement requirements or
qualify for an exemption from the requirements under this section. For purposes of this section,
"applicable individual" means an individual eligible for medical
assistance under section 256B.055, subdivision 15.
(b) An
applicant must meet the requirements of this section for the 45 days
immediately preceding the month during which the applicant submits an
application for medical assistance.
(c) To renew eligibility
under section 256B.056, subdivision 7a, an enrollee must meet the requirements
of this section for at least 45 days during the enrollee's six-month period of
eligibility.
(d) To comply with the
work or community engagement requirements in a given month, an applicable
individual must do one or more of the following:
(1) work at least 80
hours;
(2) complete at least 80
hours of community service;
(3) participate in a
work program, as defined in United States Code, title 7, section 2015(o)(1),
for at least 80 hours;
(4) be enrolled at least
half-time in an educational program, including but not limited to an
institution of higher education and a program of career and technical
education;
(5) engage in any
combination of the activities described in clauses (1) to (4) for a total of at
least 80 hours;
(6) have a monthly
income that is equal to or greater than the federal minimum wage multiplied by
80 hours; or
(7) have had an average
monthly income over the preceding six months that is equal to or greater than
the federal minimum wage multiplied by 80 hours, and be a seasonal worker, as
defined under United States Code, title 26, section 45R(d)(5)(B).
Subd. 2. Exemptions. (a) An applicable individual is not
subject to the work or community engagement requirements for part or all of a
month in which the applicable individual is:
(1) an American Indian
or Alaska Native;
(2) a parent, guardian,
caretaker relative, or family caregiver, as defined in section 2 of the RAISE
Family Caregivers Act, Public Law 115-119, as amended, of an individual with a
disability;
(3) a veteran with a
disability rated as total under United States Code, title 38, section 1155;
(4) receiving benefits
under the Minnesota family investment program under chapter 142G and meeting
the work activity and participation requirements under chapter 142G;
(5) a member of a
household that receives Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP)
benefits under the federal Food and Nutrition Act of 2008, Public Law 88-525,
as amended, and is not exempt from a work requirement under the act;
(6) a participant in a
drug addiction or alcohol treatment and rehabilitation program, as defined
under United States Code, title 7, section 2012;
(7) incarcerated;
(8) pregnant or entitled to postpartum
medical assistance; or
(9) is
medically frail or otherwise has special medical needs, in accordance with
guidance issued by the United States Department of Health and Human Services. This includes but is not limited to an
individual who: is blind or has a
disability; has a substance use disorder; has a disabling mental disorder; has
a physical, intellectual, or developmental disability that significantly
impairs the individual's ability to perform one or more activities of daily
living; or has a serious or complex medical condition.
(b) The commissioner
must develop standard processes for an individual to request and verify that
they meet an exemption from the work or community engagement requirements on
the basis of being medically frail or otherwise having special medical needs.
(c) Enrollees who are
exempt from the work or community engagement requirements under this
subdivision must report any changes related to the enrollee's exemption status
within ten days of the change to the county agency. The agency must redetermine eligibility for
the exemption when a change in exemption status is reported and at the time of
the enrollee's renewal.
Subd. 3. Short-term
hardship exemption. (a) The
commissioner must deem an applicable individual as meeting the work or
community engagement requirements for a given month if for part or all of the
month the applicable individual:
(1) requests an
exemption on the basis of receiving inpatient hospital services, nursing
facility services, services in an intermediate care facility for persons with
developmental disabilities, inpatient psychiatric hospital services, or such
other services of similar acuity, including but not limited to outpatient care
relating to the above-listed services, in accordance with guidance issued by
the United States Department of Health and Human Services;
(2) requests an
exemption on the basis of having to travel outside of the individual's
community for an extended period of time to receive medical services necessary
to treat a serious or complex medical condition, either for the individual or
the individual's dependent, when the services are not available in the
individual's community of residence;
(3) resides in a county
or equivalent unit of local government in which an emergency or disaster has
been declared under the National Emergencies Act, Public Law 94-412, as
amended, or the Robert T. Stafford
Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, Public Law 93-288, as amended; or
(4) resides in a county
or equivalent unit of local government that has an unemployment rate that is at
or above the lesser of eight percent or 1.5 times the national unemployment
rate, and for which the United States Department of Health and Human Services
has granted an exception based on a request from the commissioner.
(b) The commissioner
must grant short-term hardship exemptions required under this subdivision in
accordance with standards specified by the United States Department of Health
and Human Services.
Subd. 4. Determining
and verifying compliance. (a)
The commissioner must determine whether an individual is subject to, compliant
with, or exempt from the work or community engagement requirements using
processes established by the commissioner that rely on information available to
the commissioner through electronic data sources. The commissioner must not request additional
information or documentation from an applicable individual unless the
commissioner is unable to make a determination using the information available
to the commissioner.
(b) The commissioner is
prohibited from relying on managed care plans, county-based purchasing plans,
or contractors with direct or indirect financial relationships with managed
care or county-based purchasing plans to make determinations about whether an
individual is subject to, compliant with, or exempt from the work or community
engagement requirements.
Subd. 5. Failure
to satisfy work or community engagement requirements. (a) If the commissioner cannot
establish an applicable individual's compliance with or exemption from the work
or community engagement requirements, the commissioner must provide notice of
noncompliance and allow the applicant or beneficiary 30 calendar days from the
date the notice is received to demonstrate compliance with or exemption from
the requirements. The notice must
include:
(1) information about
how to demonstrate compliance with or exemption from the requirements; and
(2) information about
how to reapply for medical assistance if the individual's application is denied
or if the beneficiary is disenrolled.
(b) An enrolled
beneficiary continues to be eligible for medical assistance during the 30-day
period under paragraph (a).
(c) If the commissioner
determines that an individual is subject to but not compliant with the work or
community engagement requirements after the 30-day period, the commissioner
must:
(1) determine whether
the individual has any other basis for eligibility for medical assistance or
another insurance affordability program;
(2) provide written
notice and fair hearing rights in accordance with Code of Federal Regulations,
title 42, part 431, subpart E; and
(3) if there is no other
basis for medical assistance eligibility, deny the application or terminate
eligibility by the end of the month that follows the 30-day period.
Subd. 6. Outreach
to applicable individuals. (a)
By August 1, 2026, the commissioner must notify medical assistance enrollees
who may be applicable individuals about the work or community engagement
requirements.
(b) Beginning January 1,
2027, the commissioner must semiannually notify medical assistance enrollees
who may be applicable individuals about the work or community engagement
requirements.
(c) The notifications
required under this subdivision must include, at a minimum:
(1) information about
how to comply with the requirements;
(2) an explanation of
who is considered an applicable individual;
(3) the list of
exemptions from the requirements and how to obtain an exemption from the
requirements;
(4) information about
how to report a change in status that could result in the individual qualifying
for an exemption, meeting an exemption, or being subject to the requirements
after an exemption ends; and
(5) information about
the consequences of not complying with the requirements.
(d) The commissioner
must provide the notices required under this subdivision by mail or an
electronic format, if elected by the individual, and one or more additional
formats deemed appropriate by the United States Department of Health and Human
Services.
Subd. 7. Additional
requirements for the commissioner. The
commissioner, in collaboration with county agencies, must implement strategies
to assist applicable individuals in meeting the work or community engagement
requirements and link applicable individuals to additional resources for job
training or other employment services, child care assistance, transportation,
or other supports to help applicable individuals prepare for work, maintain
employment, or increase earnings.
Sec. 11. [256B.0563]
REVIEW OF DEATH MASTER FILE.
Subdivision 1. Definition. For purposes of this section,
"death master file" means information about deceased individuals
maintained by the Social Security Administration under United States Code,
title 42, section 1306c(d), or any successor system.
Subd. 2. Review
of the death master file. (a)
Beginning January 1, 2027, the commissioner must review the death master file
at least quarterly to identify any medical assistance recipients who are
deceased.
(b) If review of the death master file or any other source indicates
that a recipient is deceased, the commissioner must:
(1) terminate the
recipient's eligibility for medical assistance in the manner provided for by
the laws and regulations governing medical assistance;
(2) notify the recipient
and the recipient's representative no later than the date of the termination;
and
(3) discontinue any
payments to providers under this chapter made on behalf of the recipient as of
the date of the termination.
(c) If the commissioner
determines that a recipient was misidentified as deceased and erroneously
disenrolled from medical assistance based on information obtained from the
death master file or any other source, the commissioner must immediately
re-enroll the individual in medical assistance retroactive to the date of
termination under paragraph (b).
Subd. 3. Review
of other sources. Nothing in
this section prevents the commissioner from reviewing other sources to identify
recipients of medical assistance who are deceased, provided the commissioner is
in compliance with this section and all other requirements under this chapter
related to medical assistance eligibility determination and redetermination.
Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.06, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Citizenship requirements. (a) Eligibility for medical assistance is limited to citizens of the United States, qualified noncitizens as defined in this subdivision, and other persons residing lawfully in the United States as described in this subdivision. Citizens or nationals of the United States must cooperate in obtaining satisfactory documentary evidence of citizenship or nationality according to the requirements of the federal Deficit Reduction Act of 2005, Public Law 109-171.
(b) "Qualified noncitizen" means a person who meets one of the following immigration criteria:
(1) admitted for lawful permanent residence according to United States Code, title 8;
(2) admitted to the
United States as a refugee according to United States Code, title 8, section
1157;
(3) granted asylum according to United
States Code, title 8, section 1158;
(4)
granted withholding of deportation according to United States Code, title 8,
section 1253(h);
(5) paroled for a period
of at least one year according to United States Code, title 8, section
1182(d)(5);
(6) granted conditional
entrant status according to United States Code, title 8, section 1153(a)(7);
(7) determined to be a
battered noncitizen by the United States Attorney General according to the
Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant Responsibility Act of 1996, title V of
the Omnibus Consolidated Appropriations Bill, Public Law 104-200;
(8) is a child of a
noncitizen determined to be a battered noncitizen by the United States Attorney
General according to the Illegal Immigration Reform and Immigrant
Responsibility Act of 1996, title V, of the Omnibus Consolidated Appropriations
Bill, Public Law 104-200; or
(9) (2) determined
to be a Cuban or Haitian entrant as defined in section 501(e) of Public Law
96-422, the Refugee Education Assistance Act of 1980.; or
(3) lawfully resides in
the United States in accordance with a Compact of Free Association under United
States Code, title 8, section 1612(b)(2)(G).
(c) All qualified noncitizens who were residing in the United States before August 22, 1996, who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance with federal financial participation.
(d) Beginning December
1, 1996, qualified noncitizens who entered the United States on or after August
22, 1996, and who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter
are eligible for medical assistance with federal participation for five years
if they meet one of the following criteria:
(1) refugees admitted to
the United States according to United States Code, title 8, section 1157;
(2) persons granted
asylum according to United States Code, title 8, section 1158;
(3) persons granted
withholding of deportation according to United States Code, title 8, section
1253(h);
(4) veterans of the
United States armed forces with an honorable discharge for a reason other than
noncitizen status, their spouses and unmarried minor dependent children; or
(5) persons on active
duty in the United States armed forces, other than for training, their spouses
and unmarried minor dependent children.
(d) Beginning July 1, 2010, children and pregnant women who are noncitizens described in paragraph (b) or who are lawfully present in the United States as defined in Code of Federal Regulations, title 8, section 103.12, and who otherwise meet eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance with federal financial participation as provided by the federal Children's Health Insurance Program Reauthorization Act of 2009, Public Law 111-3.
(e) Nonimmigrants who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter are eligible for the benefits as provided in paragraphs (f) to (h). For purposes of this subdivision, a "nonimmigrant" is a person in one of the classes listed in United States Code, title 8, section 1101(a)(15).
(g) For purposes of this subdivision, the term "emergency medical condition" means a medical condition that meets the requirements of United States Code, title 42, section 1396b(v).
(h)(1) Notwithstanding paragraph (g), services that are necessary for the treatment of an emergency medical condition are limited to the following:
(i) services delivered in an emergency room or by an ambulance service licensed under chapter 144E that are directly related to the treatment of an emergency medical condition;
(ii) services delivered in an inpatient hospital setting following admission from an emergency room or clinic for an acute emergency condition; and
(iii) follow-up services that are directly related to the original service provided to treat the emergency medical condition and are covered by the global payment made to the provider.
(2) Services for the treatment of emergency medical conditions do not include:
(i) services delivered in an emergency room or inpatient setting to treat a nonemergency condition;
(ii) organ transplants, stem cell transplants, and related care;
(iii) services for routine prenatal care;
(iv) continuing care, including long-term care, nursing facility services, home health care, adult day care, day training, or supportive living services;
(v) elective surgery;
(vi) outpatient prescription drugs, unless the drugs are administered or dispensed as part of an emergency room visit;
(vii) preventative health care and family planning services;
(viii) rehabilitation services;
(ix) physical, occupational, or speech therapy;
(x) transportation services;
(xi) case management;
(xii) prosthetics, orthotics, durable medical equipment, or medical supplies;
(xiii) dental services;
(xiv) hospice care;
(xv) audiology services and hearing aids;
(xvii) chiropractic services;
(xviii) immunizations;
(xix) vision services and eyeglasses;
(xx) waiver services;
(xxi) individualized education programs; or
(xxii) substance use disorder treatment.
(i) Pregnant noncitizens who are ineligible for federally funded medical assistance because of immigration status, are not covered by a group health plan or health insurance coverage according to Code of Federal Regulations, title 42, section 457.310, and who otherwise meet the eligibility requirements of this chapter, are eligible for medical assistance through the period of pregnancy, including labor and delivery, and 12 months postpartum.
(j) Beginning October 1, 2003, persons who are receiving care and rehabilitation services from a nonprofit center established to serve victims of torture and are otherwise ineligible for medical assistance under this chapter are eligible for medical assistance without federal financial participation. These individuals are eligible only for the period during which they are receiving services from the center. Individuals eligible under this paragraph shall not be required to participate in prepaid medical assistance. The nonprofit center referenced under this paragraph may establish itself as a provider of mental health targeted case management services through a county contract under section 256.0112, subdivision 6. If the nonprofit center is unable to secure a contract with a lead county in its service area, then, notwithstanding the requirements of section 256B.0625, subdivision 20, the commissioner may negotiate a contract with the nonprofit center for provision of mental health targeted case management services. When serving clients who are not the financial responsibility of their contracted lead county, the nonprofit center must gain the concurrence of the county of financial responsibility prior to providing mental health targeted case management services for those clients.
(k) Notwithstanding paragraph (h), clause (2), the following services are covered as emergency medical conditions under paragraph (f) except where coverage is prohibited under federal law for services under clauses (1) and (2):
(1) dialysis services provided in a hospital or freestanding dialysis facility;
(2) surgery and the administration of chemotherapy, radiation, and related services necessary to treat cancer if the recipient has a cancer diagnosis that is not in remission and requires surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation treatment; and
(3) kidney transplant if the person has been diagnosed with end stage renal disease, is currently receiving dialysis services, and is a potential candidate for a kidney transplant.
(l) Effective July 1, 2013, recipients of emergency medical assistance under this subdivision are eligible for coverage of the elderly waiver services provided under chapter 256S, and coverage of rehabilitative services provided in a nursing facility. The age limit for elderly waiver services does not apply. In order to qualify for coverage, a recipient of emergency medical assistance is subject to the assessment and reassessment requirements of section 256B.0911. Initial and continued enrollment under this paragraph is subject to the limits of available funding.
EFFECTIVE
DATE. This section is
effective October 1, 2026.
256B.061 ELIGIBILITY; RETROACTIVE EFFECT; RESTRICTIONS.
(a) If any
individual has been determined to be eligible for medical assistance under
section 256B.055, subdivision 15, it will be made available for care and
services included under the plan and furnished in or after the third first
month before the month in which the individual made application for such
assistance, if such individual was, or upon application would have been,
eligible for medical assistance at the time the care and services were
furnished. If any individual has been
determined to be eligible for medical assistance under any other section, it
will be made available for care and services included under the plan and
furnished in or after the second month before the month in which the individual
made application for such assistance if such individual was, or upon
application would have been, eligible for medical assistance at the time the
care and services were furnished.
(b) The commissioner may limit, restrict, or suspend the eligibility of an individual for up to one year upon that individual's conviction of a criminal offense related to application for or receipt of medical assistance benefits.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0631, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:
Subd. 1a. Prohibition
on cost-sharing and deductibles. Effective
January 1, 2024 Except for recipients eligible under section 256B.055,
subdivision 15, the medical assistance benefit plan must not include
cost-sharing or deductibles for any medical assistance recipient or benefit.
Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0631, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 5. Cost sharing. (a) Effective for services provided on or after October 1, 2028, except as provided in subdivision 6, the medical assistance benefit plan includes the following cost sharing for recipients eligible under section 256B.055, subdivision 15, with income above 100 percent of the federal poverty level:
(1) $3 per nonpreventive visit, except as provided in paragraph (c). For purposes of this subdivision, a visit means an episode of service that is required because of a recipient's symptoms, diagnosis, or established illness, and that is delivered in an ambulatory setting by a physician or physician assistant, chiropractor, podiatrist, nurse midwife, advanced practice nurse, audiologist, optician, or optometrist;
(2) $3.50 for
nonemergency visits to a hospital-based emergency room; and
(3) $3 per brand-name
drug prescription, $1 per generic drug prescription, and $1 per prescription
for a brand‑name multisource drug listed in preferred status on the preferred
drug list, subject to a $12 maximum per month for prescription drug co-payments. No co-payments shall apply to antipsychotic
drugs when used for the treatment of mental illness.
(b) Cost sharing for
prescription drugs and related medical supplies to treat chronic disease must
comply with the requirements of section 62Q.481.
(c) A person eligible
for medical assistance under section 256B.055, subdivision 15, is responsible
for all co‑payments and deductibles in this subdivision.
EFFECTIVE
DATE. This section is
effective January 1, 2027.
Subd. 6. Exceptions. Co-payments and deductibles are subject to the exceptions and limits required by section 71120 of the One Big Beautiful Bill Act, Public Law 119-21.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.0631, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 7. Collection. (a) The medical assistance reimbursement to the provider must be reduced by the amount of the co-payment or deductible, except that reimbursements must not be reduced:
(1) once a recipient has reached the $12 maximum per month for prescription drug co-payments; or
(2) for a recipient who has met the recipient's monthly five percent cost-sharing limit.
(b) The provider
collects the co-payment or deductible from the recipient. Providers must not deny services to
recipients who are unable to pay the co-payment or deductible.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.1973, subdivision 9, is amended to read:
Subd. 9. Interaction with other directed payments. (a) An eligible provider under subdivision 3 may participate in the hospital directed payment program under section 256B.1974 for inpatient hospital services, outpatient hospital services, or both. A provider participating in the hospital directed payment program must not receive a directed payment under this section for any provider classes paid via the hospital directed payment program. A hospital subject to this section must notify the commissioner in writing no later than 30 days after enactment of this subdivision of the hospital's intention to participate in the hospital directed payment program under section 256B.1974 for inpatient hospital services, outpatient hospital services, or both.
(b) The election under this subdivision is a onetime election, except that if an eligible provider elects to participate in the hospital directed payment program, and the hospital directed payment program expires or is not federally approved, the eligible provider may subsequently elect to participate in the directed payment under this section.
(c) If an eligible provider elects not to participate in the hospital directed payment program under section 256B.1974 and the federal statutes or regulations related to hospital directed payment programs are subsequently substantially changed, the eligible provider may elect to participate in the hospital directed payment program under section 256B.1974.
(d) The effective date
of the election to participate in the hospital directed payment program under
this section must align with the beginning of the calendar year in which
payment rates under this section are updated.
The eligible provider must notify the commissioner of the eligible
provider's intention to make the election ten months before the effective date
of the election.
Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256L.04, subdivision 14, is amended to read:
Subd. 14. Coordination with medical assistance. (a) Individuals eligible for medical assistance under chapter 256B are not eligible for MinnesotaCare under this section.
(b)
Individuals denied or disenrolled from medical assistance for failure to comply
with the eligibility requirements of section 256B.0562 are not eligible for
MinnesotaCare under this section.
(b) (c) The
commissioner shall coordinate eligibility and coverage to ensure that
individuals transitioning between medical assistance and MinnesotaCare have
seamless eligibility and access to health care services.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 268.19, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Use of data. (a) Except as provided by this section, data gathered from any person under the administration of the Minnesota Unemployment Insurance Law are private data on individuals or nonpublic data not on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivisions 9 and 12, and may not be disclosed except according to a district court order or section 13.05. A subpoena is not considered a district court order. These data may be disseminated to and used by the following agencies without the consent of the subject of the data:
(1) state and federal agencies specifically authorized access to the data by state or federal law;
(2) any agency of any other state or any federal agency charged with the administration of an unemployment insurance program;
(3) any agency responsible for the maintenance of a system of public employment offices for the purpose of assisting individuals in obtaining employment;
(4) the public authority responsible for child support in Minnesota or any other state in accordance with section 518A.83;
(5) human rights agencies within Minnesota that have enforcement powers;
(6) the Department of Revenue to the extent necessary for its duties under Minnesota laws;
(7) public and private agencies responsible for administering publicly financed assistance programs for the purpose of monitoring the eligibility of the program's recipients;
(8) the Department of Labor and Industry, the Department of Commerce, and the Bureau of Criminal Apprehension for uses consistent with the administration of their duties under Minnesota law;
(9) the Department of Human Services and the Office of Inspector General and its agents within the Department of Human Services, including county fraud investigators, for investigations related to recipient or provider fraud and employees of providers when the provider is suspected of committing public assistance fraud;
(10) the Department of Human
Services for the purpose of evaluating medical assistance services and,
supporting program improvement, and administering section 256B.0562;
(11) local and state welfare agencies for monitoring the eligibility of the data subject for assistance programs, or for any employment or training program administered by those agencies, whether alone, in combination with another welfare agency, or in conjunction with the department or to monitor and evaluate the statewide Minnesota family investment program and other cash assistance programs, the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program, and the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Employment and Training program by providing data on recipients and former recipients of Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program (SNAP) benefits, cash assistance under chapter 256, 256D, 256J, or 256K, child care assistance under chapter 142E, or medical programs under chapter 256B or 256L or formerly codified under chapter 256D;
(13) local, state, and federal law enforcement agencies for the purpose of ascertaining the last known address and employment location of an individual who is the subject of a criminal investigation;
(14) the United States Immigration and Customs Enforcement has access to data on specific individuals and specific employers provided the specific individual or specific employer is the subject of an investigation by that agency;
(15) the Department of Health for the purposes of epidemiologic investigations;
(16) the Department of Corrections for the purposes of case planning and internal research for preprobation, probation, and postprobation employment tracking of offenders sentenced to probation and preconfinement and postconfinement employment tracking of committed offenders;
(17) the state auditor to the extent necessary to conduct audits of job opportunity building zones as required under section 469.3201;
(18) the Office of Higher Education for purposes of supporting program improvement, system evaluation, and research initiatives including the Statewide Longitudinal Education Data System;
(19) the Family and Medical Benefits Division of the Department of Employment and Economic Development to be used as necessary to administer chapter 268B; and
(20) the executive director or interim executive director of the Minnesota Secure Choice Retirement Program established under chapter 187 for the purposes of assisting with communication with employers and to verify employer compliance with chapter 187.
(b) Data on individuals and employers that are collected, maintained, or used by the department in an investigation under section 268.182 are confidential as to data on individuals and protected nonpublic data not on individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivisions 3 and 13, and must not be disclosed except under statute or district court order or to a party named in a criminal proceeding, administrative or judicial, for preparation of a defense.
(c) Data gathered by the department in the administration of the Minnesota unemployment insurance program must not be made the subject or the basis for any suit in any civil proceedings, administrative or judicial, unless the action is initiated by the department.
Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 268.19, subdivision 1a, is amended to read:
Subd. 1a. Wage detail data. (a) Wage and employment data gathered under section 268.044 may be disseminated to and used, without the consent of the subject of the data, by an agency of another state that is designated as the performance accountability and consumer information agency for that state under Code of Federal Regulations, volume 20, part 663.510(c), in order to carry out the requirements of the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, United States Code, title 29, sections 2842 and 2871.
(b) The commissioner may enter into a data exchange agreement with an employment and training service provider under section 116L.17, or the Workforce Investment Act of 1998, United States Code, title 29, section 2864, under which the commissioner, with the consent of the subject of the data, may furnish data on the quarterly wages paid and number of hours worked on those individuals who have received employment and training services
(c) Wage and employment
data gathered under section 268.044 may be disseminated to and used by the
commissioner of human services for the purpose of administering section
256B.0562 without the consent of the subject of the data.
Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 270B.14, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Disclosure to commissioner of human services. (a) The commissioner shall provide the records and information necessary to administer the supplemental housing allowance to the commissioner of human services.
(b) At the request of the commissioner of human services, the commissioner of revenue shall electronically match the Social Security or individual taxpayer identification numbers and names of participants in the telephone assistance plan operated under sections 237.69 to 237.71, with those of property tax refund filers under chapter 290A or renter's credit filers under section 290.0693, and determine whether each participant's household income is within the eligibility standards for the telephone assistance plan.
(c) The commissioner may provide records and information collected under sections 295.50 to 295.59 to the commissioner of human services for purposes of the Medicaid Voluntary Contribution and Provider-Specific Tax Amendments of 1991, Public Law 102-234. Upon the written agreement by the United States Department of Health and Human Services to maintain the confidentiality of the data, the commissioner may provide records and information collected under sections 295.50 to 295.59 to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services section of the United States Department of Health and Human Services for purposes of meeting federal reporting requirements.
(d) The commissioner may provide records and information to the commissioner of human services as necessary to administer the early refund of refundable tax credits.
(e) The commissioner may disclose information to the commissioner of human services as necessary for income verification for eligibility and premium payment under the MinnesotaCare program, under section 256L.05, subdivision 2, as well as the medical assistance program under chapter 256B.
(f) The commissioner may disclose information to the commissioner of human services necessary to verify whether applicants or recipients for general assistance and the Minnesota supplemental aid program have claimed refundable tax credits under chapter 290 and the property tax refund under chapter 290A, and the amounts of the credits.
(g) At the request of the commissioner of human services and when authorized in writing by the taxpayer, the commissioner of revenue may match the business legal name or individual legal name, and the Minnesota tax identification number, federal Employer Identification Number, or Social Security number of the applicant under section 142C.03; 245A.04, subdivision 1; or 245I.20; or license or certification holder. The commissioner of revenue may share the matching with the commissioner of human services. The matching may only be used by the commissioner of human services to determine eligibility for provider grant programs and to facilitate the regulatory oversight of license and certification holders as it relates to ownership and public funds program integrity. This paragraph applies only if the commissioner of human services and the commissioner of revenue enter into an interagency agreement for the purposes of this paragraph.
(h) The commissioner may
disclose return information to the commissioner of human services for the
purpose of administering section 256B.0562.
Subd. 8. Contingent reduction in tax rate. (a) By December 1 of each year, beginning in 2011, the commissioner of management and budget shall determine the projected balance in the health care access fund for the biennium.
(b) If the commissioner of
management and budget determines that the projected balance in the health care
access fund for the biennium reflects a ratio of revenues to expenditures and
transfers greater than 125 percent, and if the actual cash balance in the fund
is adequate, as determined by the commissioner of management and budget, the
commissioner, in consultation with the commissioner commissioners
of revenue and human services, shall reduce the tax rates levied under
subdivisions 1, 1a, 2, 3, and 4, for the subsequent calendar year sufficient to
reduce the structural balance in the fund.
The rate may be reduced to the extent that the projected revenues for
the biennium do not exceed 125 percent of expenditures and transfers. The new rate shall be rounded to the nearest
one‑tenth of one percent. The rate
reduction under this paragraph expires at the end of each calendar year and is
subject to an annual redetermination by the commissioner of management and
budget.
(c) For purposes of the analysis defined in paragraph (b), the commissioner of management and budget shall include projected revenues.
Sec. 24. DIRECTION
TO COMMISSIONER OF HUMAN SERVICES; NOTIFICATION TO MEDICAL ASSISTANCE
RECIPIENTS.
By October 1, 2026, the
commissioner of human services must notify medical assistance recipients who
are enrolled under Minnesota Statutes, section 256B.055, subdivision 15, that
they may be eligible for medical assistance under a disability determination. The notification must include information
about how the recipient can request a determination of disability and an
explanation about the changes to medical assistance eligibility that go into
effect January 1, 2027.
ARTICLE 4
HUMAN SERVICES FORECAST ADJUSTMENTS
|
Section 1. HUMAN
SERVICES FORECAST ADJUSTMENTS. |
The sums shown in the
columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if shown in
parentheses, subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 20, and Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 9,
article 12, to the commissioner of human services from the general fund or
other named fund for the purposes specified in section 2 and are available for
the fiscal years indicated for each purpose.
The figures "2026" and "2027" used in this article
mean that the addition to or subtraction from the appropriation listed under
them is available for the fiscal year ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027,
respectively.
|
|
|
|
APPROPRIATIONS |
|
|
|
|
|
Available for the
Year |
|
|
|
|
|
Ending June 30 |
|
|
|
|
|
2026 |
2027 |
|
Sec. 2. COMMISSIONER
OF HUMAN SERVICES. |
|
|
|
|
|
Subdivision 1. Total
Appropriation |
|
$739,634,000 |
|
$775,035,000 |
|
(a) General Assistance |
|
7,909,000 |
|
9,653,000 |
|
(b) Minnesota Supplemental Aid |
|
2,976,000 |
|
3,233,000 |
|
(c) Housing Support |
|
29,593,000 |
|
44,727,000 |
|
(d) MinnesotaCare |
|
86,681,000 |
|
159,628,000 |
These appropriations are
from the health care access fund.
|
(e) Medical Assistance |
|
589,777,000 |
|
525,140,000 |
|
(f) Behavioral Health Fund |
|
22,698,000 |
|
32,654,000 |
Sec. 3. EFFECTIVE
DATE.
This article is effective the day following
final enactment.
ARTICLE 5
CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES FORECAST ADJUSTMENTS
|
Section 1. CHILDREN,
YOUTH, AND FAMILIES FORECAST ADJUSTMENTS.
|
The sums shown in the
columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if shown in
parentheses, subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 22, to the commissioner of children, youth, and
families from the general fund or other named fund for the purposes specified
in section 2 and are available for the fiscal years indicated for each purpose. The figures "2026" and
"2027" used in this article mean that the addition to or subtraction
from the appropriation listed under them is available for the fiscal year
ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively.
|
|
|
|
APPROPRIATIONS |
|
|
|
|
|
Available for the
Year |
|
|
|
|
|
Ending June 30 |
|
|
|
|
|
2026 |
2027 |
|
Sec. 2. COMMISSIONER OF CHILDREN, YOUTH, AND FAMILIES. |
|
|
|
|
Subdivision 1. Total
Appropriation |
|
$(45,161,000) |
|
$(36,451,000) |
|
Appropriations by Fund |
||
|
General Fund |
(22,395,000) |
(10,320,000) |
|
Federal TANF |
(22,766,000) |
(26,131,000) |
|
Subd. 2. Forecasted
Programs |
|
|
|
|
|
(a) MFIP/DWP |
|
|
|
|
|
(c) Northstar Care for Children |
|
11,070,000 |
|
11,627,000 |
Sec. 3. EFFECTIVE
DATE.
This article is effective the day following
final enactment.
ARTICLE 6
DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES APPROPRIATIONS
|
Section 1. HUMAN
SERVICES APPROPRIATIONS. |
The dollar amounts shown
in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if shown in
parentheses, are subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 20, from the general fund or any fund named for the
purposes specified in this article, to be available for the fiscal year
indicated for each purpose. The figures
"2026" and "2027" used in this article mean that the
appropriations listed under them are available for the fiscal years ending June
30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively.
"The first year" is fiscal year 2026. "The second year" is fiscal year
2027. "The biennium" is fiscal
years 2026 and 2027.
|
|
|
|
APPROPRIATIONS |
|
|
|
|
|
Available for the
Year |
|
|
|
|
|
Ending June 30 |
|
|
|
|
|
2026 |
2027 |
|
Sec. 2. COMMISSIONER
OF HUMAN SERVICES |
|
$-0- |
|
$3,026,000 |
The amounts that may be
spent for each purpose are specified in this article.
|
Sec. 3. CENTRAL
OFFICE; OPERATIONS |
|
$-0- |
|
$1,046,000 |
Base Level Adjustment. The
general fund base is increased by $6,257,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $7,093,000 in fiscal year 2029.
|
Sec. 4. CENTRAL
OFFICE; HEALTH CARE |
|
$-0- |
|
$16,403,000 |
Base Level Adjustment. The
general fund base is increased by $16,838,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $17,350,000 in fiscal year 2029.
|
Sec. 5. FORECASTED
PROGRAMS; MEDICAL ASSISTANCE |
$-0- |
|
$(15,923,000) |
Base Level Adjustment. The
general fund base is decreased by $65,257,000 in fiscal year 2028 and decreased
by $70,977,000 in fiscal year 2029.
|
|
$-0- |
|
$1,500,000 |
Base Level Adjustment. The
general fund base is increased by $1,750,000 in fiscal year 2028 and increased
by $1,125,000 in fiscal year 2029.
Sec. 7. EXPIRATION
OF UNCODIFIED LANGUAGE.
All uncodified language
in this article expires June 30, 2027, unless a different expiration date is
specified.
Sec. 8. EFFECTIVE
DATE.
This article is effective
July 1, 2026, unless a different effective date is specified.
ARTICLE 7
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH APPROPRIATIONS
|
Section 1. HEALTH
APPROPRIATIONS. |
The dollar amounts shown
in the columns marked "Appropriations" are added to or, if shown in
parentheses, subtracted from the appropriations in Laws 2025, First Special
Session chapter 3, article 21, from the general fund or any named fund and are
available for the fiscal years indicated for each purpose. The figures "2026" and
"2027" used in this article mean that the addition to or subtraction
from the appropriations listed under them are available for the fiscal years
ending June 30, 2026, or June 30, 2027, respectively. "The first year" is fiscal year
2026. "The second year" is
fiscal year 2027.
|
|
|
|
APPROPRIATIONS |
|
|
|
|
|
Available for the
Year |
|
|
|
|
|
Ending June 30 |
|
|
|
|
|
2026 |
2027 |
|
Sec. 2. COMMISSIONER
OF HEALTH |
|
$440,000 |
|
$682,000 |
|
Appropriations by Fund |
||
|
|
2026 |
2027 |
|
General |
-0- |
55,000 |
|
State Government Special Revenue |
440,000 |
627,000 |
The amounts that may be
spent for each purpose are specified in this article.
|
Sec. 3. HEALTH
IMPROVEMENT |
|
|
|
|
|
Subdivision 1. Total
Appropriation |
|
$440,000 |
|
$682,000 |
$440,000 in fiscal year 2026
and $440,000 in fiscal year 2027 are from the state government special revenue
fund for licensing and regulation of health maintenance organizations under
Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62D. These
appropriations are contingent on the commissioner of health retaining authority
in fiscal year 2027 to license and regulate health maintenance organizations.
|
Subd. 3. All-Payer
Claims Database; Administration |
|
|
|
|
$187,000 in fiscal year 2027
is from the state government special revenue fund for administering the
all-payer claims database under Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.04. The state government special revenue fund
base for this subdivision is increased by $234,000 in fiscal year 2028 and
increased by $292,000 in fiscal year 2029.
|
Subd. 4. All-Payer Claims Database; Data on Fully Denied Claims |
|
|
|
$55,000 in fiscal year 2027
is from the general fund for the collection of data on fully denied claims
according to Minnesota Statutes, section 62U.04, subdivision 4. This is a onetime appropriation.
Sec. 4. Laws 2025, First Special Session chapter 3, article 21, section 3, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
|
Subd. 2. Substance Use Treatment, Recovery, and Prevention Grants |
|
|
|
$3,000,000 in fiscal year 2026
and $3,000,000 in fiscal year 2027 are from the general fund for substance use
treatment, recovery, and prevention grants under Minnesota Statutes, section
342.72. The commissioner may use up
to $300,000 of this appropriation for administration.
Sec. 5. EXPIRATION
OF UNCODIFIED LANGUAGE.
All uncodified language
contained in this article expires June 30, 2027, unless a different expiration
date is specified.
Sec. 6. EFFECTIVE
DATE.
This article is effective June 30, 2026, unless a different effective date is specified."
Delete the title and insert:
"A bill for an act relating to state government; modifying provisions relating to health-related licensing boards, the Department of Health, directed payments, and medical assistance federal conformity; expanding allowable disclosures to commissioner of human services; establishing work or community engagement requirements; establishing fees; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 13.381, subdivision 20;
The
motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Bierman moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 18, line 22, after "the" insert "state government" and delete "and is" and insert a period
Page 18, delete lines 23 and 24
Page 19, line 16, delete "4, 5, and" and insert "3 to"
Scott moved to amend the Bierman amendment to S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 1, delete lines 3 to 5 and insert:
"Pages 16 and 17, delete sections 2 and 3"
Page 1, after line 6, insert:
"Page 66, line 24, delete "682,000" and insert "495,000"
Page 66, line 29, delete "627,000" and insert "440,000"
Page 67, line 1, delete "682,000" and insert "495,000"
Page 67, line 6, delete "627,000" and insert "440,000"
Page 67, delete subdivision 3
Renumber the subdivisions in sequence
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title accordingly"
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Scott
amendment to the Bierman amendment and the roll was called. There were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
The motion did
not prevail and the amendment to the amendment was not adopted.
The question recurred on the Bierman
amendment to S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as
amended. The motion prevailed and the
amendment was adopted.
Huot moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 35, delete section 25 and insert:
"Sec. 25. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 149A.955, subdivision 14, is amended to read:
Subd. 14. Bodies
awaiting natural organic reduction. (a)
Except as provided in paragraphs (b) and (c), a dead human body must be
placed in the natural organic reduction vessel to initiate the natural
reduction process within 24 hours 30 calendar days after the
natural organic reduction facility accepts legal and physical custody of the
body. A natural organic reduction
facility must keep a body awaiting natural organic reduction in refrigeration
if the facility holds the body for longer than four calendar days.
(b) If
a natural organic reduction facility does not initiate natural reduction within
30 calendar days after accepting legal and physical custody of the body, the
natural organic reduction facility may hold the body for up to an additional 30
calendar days before initiating natural reduction, provided the person or
persons with the right to control and duty of disposition of the body under
section 149A.80, subdivision 2, consent to the extension of time. If the facility does not initiate natural
reduction within the additional 30-day period, the facility must arrange for
final disposition of the body by burial or cremation, as determined by the
person or persons with the right to control and duty of disposition of the body. The body must be buried or cremated within
five calendar days after the additional 30-day period ends.
(c) If a natural organic reduction facility does not initiate natural reduction within 30 calendar days after accepting legal and physical custody of the body and the person or persons with the right to control and duty of disposition of the body do not consent to an extension of the time the facility may hold the body, the facility must arrange final disposition of the body by burial or cremation. The person or persons with the right to control and duty of disposition of the body must determine whether the body is buried or cremated, and the body must be buried or cremated within five calendar days after the end of the initial 30-day period."
The
motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Backer moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 57, after line 24, insert:
"Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 256B.695, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. CARMA
enrollment. (a) Subject to paragraphs
paragraph (d) and (e), eligible individuals must be automatically
enrolled in CARMA, but may decline enrollment.
Eligible individuals may enroll in fee-for-service medical assistance. Eligible individuals may change their CARMA
elections on an annual basis.
(b) Eligible individuals must be able to enroll in CARMA through the selection process in accordance with the election period established in section 256B.69, subdivision 4, paragraph (e).
(c) Enrollees who were not previously enrolled in the medical assistance program or MinnesotaCare can change their selection once within the first year after enrollment in CARMA. Enrollees who were not previously enrolled in CARMA have 90 days to make a change and changes are allowed for additional special circumstances.
(d) The commissioner may not
offer a second health plan to eligible individuals other than, and
or in addition to, CARMA except that the commissioner may offer a
second health plan to eligible individuals when another health plan is
enrolling in MinnesotaCare, if required by federal law or rule. Eligible individuals who do not select a
health plan at the time of enrollment must automatically be enrolled in CARMA.
(e) The commissioner may offer a replacement plan to eligible individuals, as determined by the commissioner, when counties administering CARMA have their contract terminated for cause.
(e) (f) The
commissioner may, on a county-by-county basis, offer a health plan other than,
and in addition to, CARMA to individuals who are eligible for both Medicare
and medical assistance due to age, income, or disability if the
commissioner deems it necessary for enrollees to have another choice of health
plan. Factors the commissioner must
consider when determining if the other health plan is necessary include the
number of available Medicare Advantage Plan options that are not special needs
plans in the county, the size of the enrolling population, the additional
administrative burden placed on providers and counties by multiple health plan
options in a county, the need to ensure the viability and success of the CARMA
program, and the impact to the medical assistance program there is not
already a health plan available under CARMA.
(f) In
counties where the commissioner is required by federal law or elects to offer a
second health plan other than CARMA pursuant to paragraphs (d) and (e),
eligible enrollees who do not select a health plan at the time of enrollment
must automatically be enrolled in CARMA.
(g) This subdivision supersedes section 256B.694.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective January 1, 2027."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title accordingly
The
motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Smith moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 62, after line 33, insert:
"ARTICLE 4
PSILOCYBIN THERAPEUTIC USE PROGRAM
Section 1. PURPOSE.
The purpose of this
article is to establish a legal, regulated framework for the therapeutic use of
psilocybin by individuals who are 21 years of age or older with a registered
facilitator, have been diagnosed with a qualifying medical condition, and meet
the other requirements for enrollment in the program.
Sec. 2. [342.85]
DEFINITIONS.
Subdivision 1. Application. For the purposes of sections 342.85 to
342.98, the following terms have the meanings given.
Subd. 2. Administration
session. "Administration
session" means a session supervised by a registered facilitator during
which a registered patient consumes and experiences the effects of psilocybin. May also be referred to as treatment sessions
or medicine sessions.
Subd. 3. Integration
session. "Integration
session" means a meeting between a registered patient and a registered
facilitator that occurs after the completion of an administration session.
Subd. 4. Office. "Office" means the Office of
Cannabis Management (OCM).
Subd. 5. Physician. "Physician" means a
Minnesota-licensed physician.
Subd. 6. Preparation
session. "Preparation
session" means a meeting between a registered patient and a registered
facilitator that occurs before an administration session. Preparation session does not mean an initial
consultation between a registered patient and registered facilitator regarding
psilocybin use, an inquiry from a registered patient to a registered
facilitator regarding psilocybin use, or a registered facilitator's response to
a registered patient's inquiry regarding psilocybin use.
Subd. 7. Program. "Program" means the
psilocybin therapeutic use program established under sections 342.85 to 342.98.
Subd. 8. Program
research institution. "Program
research institution" means a Minnesota nonprofit or academic institution
that advises and assists with program data collection for public health
monitoring, training, continuing education, and ethical oversight requirements.
Subd. 9. Psilocybin. "Psilocybin" means any
mushroom, in raw, dried, or prepared form, that contains the psychoactive
compound psilocybin or its metabolite psilocin.
Subd. 10. Psychedelic
Medicine Advisory Committee or advisory committee. "Psychedelic Medicine Advisory
Committee" or "advisory committee" means the advisory committee
established under section 342.98.
Subd. 11. Qualifying
medical condition. "Qualifying
medical condition" means a medical condition designated by the office for
which psilocybin shows evidence for an appropriate therapeutic use, including
but not limited to posttraumatic stress disorder, depression, substance use
disorders, anxiety, and chronic pain.
Subd. 12. Registered
facilitator. "Registered
facilitator" means an individual registered with the office to provide
services in preparation sessions and integration sessions and to supervise
administration sessions.
Subd. 13. Registered
patient. "Registered
patient" means a Minnesota resident certified by a physician as having a
qualifying medical condition and enrolled in the psilocybin therapeutic use
program.
Subd. 14. Registered
supplier. "Registered
supplier" means an individual or entity licensed by the state to cultivate
and manufacture psilocybin products with appropriate treatment dosing for
facilitated use in administration sessions.
Subd. 15. Testing
facility. "Testing
facility" means the testing and inspection services at OCM to test for
quality, potency, and microbial contaminants from supply centers through
product sampling and facility inspections to monitor the supply chain of
psilocybin to be used for treatment sessions and ensure supply centers are
adhering to good manufacturing practices.
Subd. 16. Treatment
facility. "Treatment
facility" means a Minnesota health clinic or center that has been licensed
by the state with staff trained to respond to medical emergencies and safety
equipment to monitor vitals for supervised administration sessions. To accommodate homebound patients, a
treatment facility may be the homebound patient's residence with a registered
facilitator and safety equipment to monitor vitals provided by the registered
facilitator.
Sec. 3. [342.86]
PSILOCYBIN THERAPEUTIC USE PROGRAM.
Subdivision 1. Establishment. The Office of Cannabis Management must
establish and administer a psilocybin therapeutic use program according to
sections 342.85 to 342.98 in which individuals age 21 and older who have a
qualifying medical condition and meet the other eligibility requirements may
enroll in the program and are able to access and use psilocybin under the
supervision of a registered facilitator at a treatment facility.
Subd. 2. Rulemaking. (a) The office must adopt rules to
govern the operation of the program. The
rules must at least:
(1) specify the
qualifying medical conditions that an individual must be diagnosed with in
order to enroll in the program, based upon emerging evidence from scientific
research and clinical trials evaluated in the psychedelic medicine task force
legislative report, including but not limited to posttraumatic stress disorder,
depression, substance use disorders, anxiety, chronic pain, and other
conditions where scientific evidence shows there may be therapeutic benefit;
(2)
specify testing standards in collaboration with the program research
institution and with guidance from existing rules developed in Oregon and
Colorado for psilocybin mushroom testing, dosing, and manufacturing standards
for psilocybin mushrooms to ensure safety, appropriate dosing for treatment
sessions, and preventing diversion of all points along the psilocybin supply
chain where whoever has custody of psilocybin is responsible for the security
of the supply chain at the registered supply center or in transit between
licensed premises, including providing adequate safeguards to protect against
theft or diversion of psilocybin;
(3) establish a
standardized questionnaire in collaboration with the program research
institution for use by physicians to conduct health screenings of individuals
seeking to enroll in the program;
(4) establish a
standardized formal risk assessment tool in collaboration with the program
research institution for use by physicians to evaluate identified
contraindications in individuals seeking to enroll in the program;
(5) establish
qualifications in collaboration with the program research institution to
register with the office as a facilitator, following the completion of a
certification program for psilocybin facilitators that are approved training
programs used by Oregon and Colorado psilocybin programs that provide
competency testing and supervision for facilitators; and
(6) establish
qualifications to register with the office as a supplier in collaboration with
the program research institution, including any additional subjects on which
individuals must demonstrate competency in the required subjects and standards
for cultivation. Registered suppliers
must work with testing facilities to ensure appropriate quality and dosing of
psilocybin prior to releasing to registered patients for treatment.
(b) The office must
consult with the advisory committee and the program research institution in
adopting rules under this subdivision.
(c) Rules for which
notice is published in the State Register before January 1, 2028, may be
adopted using the expedited rulemaking process in section 14.389. The notice of the proposed rule for the items
in paragraph (a) must be published in the State Register no later than July 1,
2027.
Subd. 3. Evaluation
and research. (a) The office
must collect from registered patients de-identified data including, but not
limited to, the frequency with which registered patients use psilocybin in
administration sessions, the qualifying medical conditions for which psilocybin
is used, outcomes from psilocybin use experienced by registered patients, and
adverse effects of psilocybin use experienced by registered patients, as well
as any changes to utilization of other health care, social services, or government
funded programs. Registered patients and
registered facilitators must provide data to the office in a form and manner
specified by the office. The office must
use data collected under this paragraph to evaluate the program and, in
consultation with the advisory committee and in collaboration with the program
research institution, develop recommendations to improve the program. The program may consult and partner with
federal health and research institutions, including but not limited to efforts that
promote confidentiality protections, applications for funding, and
collaboration on national research efforts related to psilocybin therapy.
(b) The office may
support research that investigates novel therapeutic uses of psilocybin and
psilocin. In determining whether to
support research initiatives, the office must use the content from the report
and recommendations of the task force authorized under Laws 2023, chapter 70,
article 4, section 99, so as not to duplicate efforts already covered by the
task force, as the state has already invested in ways to implement these
recommendations and can be used as a guide for expanding research and improving
the proposed psilocybin pilot program.
Subd. 4. Funding. The office must request from the
federal government, funding to establish and administer the program as part of
a state-federal partnership based on the executive order signed April 18, 2026,
accelerating medical treatments for serious mental illness.
Sec. 4. [342.87]
ELIGIBILITY AND ENROLLMENT IN PROGRAM.
Subdivision 1. Registration
system. The office must
administer a secure registration system to track patients enrolled in the
program while protecting their privacy.
Subd. 2. Eligibility
for enrollment. (a) To enroll
in the program, an individual must:
(1) be 21 years of age
or older;
(2) submit to the office
a written certification from a physician dated within 90 days of submission and
verifying the individual's diagnosis with a qualifying medical condition;
(3) submit to the office
a written certification or certifications from one or more physicians dated
within 90 days of submission and verifying either:
(i) that the detailed
health screening conducted according to subdivision 3 did not identify
contraindications to the individual's use of psilocybin; or
(ii) that the detailed
health screening identified contraindications to the individual's use of
psilocybin but a physician conducted a further evaluation using a formal risk
assessment tool and determined the individual's identified contraindications
should not preclude the individual from using psilocybin; and
(4) submit an
application to the office in a form and manner specified by the office.
(b) Individuals may
apply for enrollment in the program beginning July 1, 2028.
Subd. 3. Health
screening; evaluation. An
individual who wishes to enroll in the program must have a detailed health
screening performed by a physician to identify whether the individual has a
qualifying medical condition and if any significant physical or mental health
conditions or medications that are contraindications to the use of psilocybin. Contraindicated conditions may include but
are not limited to cardiovascular disease, psychosis, and bipolar disorders. Contraindicated medications include but are
not limited to lithium, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tramadol, and
amphetamine stimulants. If the physician
determines in the screening that the individual has one or more
contraindications to the use of psilocybin, the individual must have the
contraindication further evaluated by a physician using a formal risk
assessment tool. An individual who has
an additional evaluation performed may proceed with an application under
subdivision 2 only if the physician performing the additional evaluation
determines the individual's identified contraindications should not preclude
the individual from using psilocybin.
Subd. 4. Informed
consent for program. Upon
receiving the individual's complete application and certifications required
under subdivision 2, the office must provide the individual with information
including, but not limited to, the nature of psilocybin use for therapeutic
purposes, potential adverse effects of psilocybin use, possible interactions
between psilocybin and other commonly used drugs, and legal risks associated
with the program, along with a document, to be signed and returned by the
individual, that the individual has read and understood the information
provided and wishes to enroll in the program.
An individual who wishes to proceed with the individual's application
must sign and date the informed consent form and return it to the office. This is separate from the informed consent
signed between a registered facilitator and the patient for consent to
treatment.
Subd. 5. Enrollment. The office must approve or deny the
individual's application within 60 days after receiving the individual's
informed consent form under subdivision 4.
Upon approval of an individual's application and receipt of the
enrollment fee required under section 342.97, the office must register the
individual in the program and issue the individual a card that permits the
registered patient to access psilocybin with a registered facilitator at a
treatment facility.
Subd. 6. Renewal. (a) A registered patient's
registration is valid for 12 months from the date of issuance. A registered patient who wishes to renew the
registration must, at least 60 days before the registration expires, submit an
application for registration renewal; written certifications that meet the
requirements in subdivision 2, paragraph (a), clauses (2) and (3); and the fee
required under section 342.97. The
office must approve or deny a registered patient's renewal application within
60 days after receiving the complete application and written certifications.
(b) A registered patient
whose registration expired less than 31 days from the date of expiration may
renew the registration under paragraph (a).
A registered patient whose registration expired 31 or more days past the
date of expiration must apply for enrollment according to subdivision 2.
(c) A registered patient
who has not received treatment during the first 12 months after being
registered in the program shall be removed from the program due to
nonparticipation in order to allow for other patients to register for the
program, given the cap of patients to be treated during the pilot to be limited
to 1,000.
Subd. 7. Permitted
acts. (a) Subject to section
342.91, a registered patient is permitted to:
(1) designate a
registered facilitator; and
(2) obtain psilocybin
from a registered supplier, transport psilocybin to a treatment facility, and
consume the recommended amount at a treatment facility with a registered
facilitator according to the recommended dosing limit.
(b) Subject to section
342.91, a registered supplier and testing facility registered with the office
is permitted to cultivate and possess psilocybin, provided the cultivation and
testing is performed according to section 342.88 and the total amount possessed
does not exceed the limit designed by the program.
(c) Subject to section
342.91, a registered facilitator is permitted, according to section 342.89, to
provide services to registered patients in preparation sessions and integration
sessions and supervise administration sessions with psilocybin for registered
patients who have obtained their treatment dose from a registered supplier.
(d) No civil or criminal
state penalty shall be imposed on:
(1) a registered patient
solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (a);
(2) a registered
supplier and testing facility solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph
(b); or
(3) a registered
facilitator solely for engaging in an act listed in paragraph (c).
This does not preclude any individual from
clause (1), (2), or (3) from being held civilly or criminally liable for other
actions during the course of their participation in the program from penalties
under either state or federal law.
Subd. 8. Program
initiation. The office must
approve an initial program structured to include:
(1) between 20 to 50
registered facilitators who are currently licensed according to section 342.94,
subdivision 2, paragraph (b), from a state health licensing board, who will
receive additional training as psilocybin facilitators from a certificate training
program that have been approved by programs for Oregon and Colorado;
(2) at
least three testing facilities;
(3) no more than 1,000
patients with qualifying medical conditions registered and that receive
treatment during their first year being registered in the program; and
(4) that the program
shall run for three years once initiated after supply centers are established
and contain supply that is ready for the program, at least five registered
facilitators have obtained their facilitator license from an approved program,
and at least one patient has registered for the program and identified a
facilitator to receive treatment from.
Subd. 9. Program
evaluation. The office, in
consultation with the advisory committee and the program research institution,
must evaluate the program at the end of the three-year period, and provide a
report to the legislature with recommendations for program next steps no later
than December 1, 2031.
Sec. 5. [342.88]
CULTIVATION.
Subdivision 1. Cultivation
authorized. (a) A registered
patient may compensate a registered supplier who cultivates psilocybin for the
program at a registered facility. Compensating
a registered supplier for cultivation under this paragraph does not constitute
the sale or commercial distribution of psilocybin.
(b) Before cultivating
psilocybin for the program, a registered supplier must register with the
office.
(c) A registered
supplier must:
(1) cultivate psilocybin
only for registered patients in an amount that does not exceed the cultivation
limit as established by the office; and
(2) not cultivate
psilocybin in an amount that exceeds the cultivation limit provided under their
license as designated by the office.
Subd. 2. Secure
location. Cultivation by a
registered supplier must take place at an approved location in an enclosed
locked space that is not accessible to the public or by individuals under age
21 and contains on-site testing facilities for quality and potency testing.
Sec. 6. [342.89]
LOCATION AND FACILITATOR; ADMINISTRATION SESSIONS.
Subdivision 1. Location. A registered patient may use
psilocybin in an administration session only:
(1) at an approved
private residence, including the curtilage or yard of the residence, unless the
property owner prohibits the use of psilocybin on the property; or
(2) at a licensed
treatment facility, unless the property owner, if the clinic is being rented,
prohibits the use of psilocybin on the property.
Subd. 2. Registered
facilitator. A registered
facilitator must be physically present with a registered patient during an
administration session to supervise the registered patient's use of psilocybin
and to contact emergency services if necessary during the administration
session. As a condition of supervising
an administration session for a registered patient, a registered facilitator
may require the registered patient to also participate in a preparation session
and an integration session with the registered facilitator. A registered facilitator may charge a
reasonable fee for the registered facilitator's services.
Subd. 3. Informed
consent for treatment. (a)
Before a registered facilitator supervises a registered patient's
administration session, the registered facilitator must provide the registered
patient with information including, but not limited to, the nature of
psilocybin use for therapeutic purposes, what to expect in an administration
session, potential adverse effects of psilocybin use, and possible interactions
between psilocybin and other commonly used drugs. Registered patients must also be allowed to
opt in for consent to data collection for program monitoring. This is separate from the informed consent
for the program.
(b) A registered patient
who wishes to proceed with an administration session must sign and date a
document stating that the patient has been informed of and understands the
information provided according to paragraph (a). Registered facilitators must maintain the
signed informed consent documents for two years after receipt.
Subd. 4. Chain
of custody for psilocybin and psilocin.
Before a registered patient's administration session, a
registered patient must procure the recommended dose of psilocybin from a
registered supplier. The office must
establish a track and trace system to scan when the dose is picked up from the
supplier, and when it is administered to the patient to ensure the same product
is used for treatment after being picked up from the supplier with tamper‑proof
packaging. At the time of exchange
between a registered supplier and a registered patient, both the registered
supplier and registered patient must attest to the exchange in a form and
manner specified by the office, and which must include, at minimum, the
specific amount of psilocybin exchanged and a tracking number for that dose. Prior to an administration session, a
registered facilitator and registered patient must attest to the specific dose
amount that will be used in the administration session in a form and manner
specified by the office by scanning and confirming the tracking number that was
picked up prior to administration. Psilocybin
supply can only be exchanged after a patient and facilitator have scheduled an
administration session.
Sec. 7. [342.90]
REGISTERED FACILITATOR.
Subdivision 1. Registration
required; qualifications. An
individual must register with the office as a facilitator in order to supervise
administration sessions for registered patients and to provide registered
patients with services in preparation sessions and integration sessions. In order to register as a facilitator, an
individual must:
(1) be 21 years of age
or older;
(2) possess a license as
a mental health professional as defined in section 245I.02, subdivision 27; and
(3) demonstrate
competency, in a manner determined by the office and in collaboration with the
program research institution, on facilitator ethics; the safe use of
psilocybin; duties of a facilitator during preparation sessions, administration
sessions, and integration sessions; and other topics as determined by the
office and the program research institution.
Subd. 2. Application
for registration; registration renewal.
(a) An individual who wishes to register as a facilitator must
apply to the office in a form and manner specified by the office.
(b) A registration
issued under this section is valid for 12 months from the date of issuance. An individual who wishes to renew the
individual's registration must apply for registration renewal, in a form and
manner specified by the office, at least 60 days before the individual's
registration expires. In evaluating an
application for registration renewal, the office must consider any complaints
reported to the office under subdivision 3 and may decline to renew an
individual's registration if the office determines, based on complaints
received or other evidence, that the individual did not perform the duties of a
facilitator in a safe or ethical manner.
The office must approve or deny a registered facilitator's renewal
application within 60 days after receiving the facilitator's complete
application.
(c) A
registered facilitator whose registration expired less than 31 days ago may
renew the registration under paragraph (b).
A registered facilitator whose registration expired 31 or more days ago
must apply for registration according to paragraph (a), except the office must
consider any complaints reported to the office under subdivision 3 and may
decline to register the individual if the office determines, based on
complaints received or other evidence, that the individual did not perform the
duties of a facilitator in a safe or ethical manner.
(d) Individuals may
apply for registration as a facilitator beginning July 1, 2028.
Subd. 3. Complaints. The office must accept complaints from
registered patients and other interested individuals regarding a registered
facilitator's failure to supervise an administration session in a safe or
ethical manner or failure to provide services in a preparation session or an
integration session in a safe or ethical manner. The office must forward a complaint received
under this subdivision to the appropriate health-related licensing board with
jurisdiction over the registered facilitator who is the subject of the
complaint, as provided in section 214.10, subdivision 1. The data shall have the same classification
under chapter 13 and the same usage restrictions specified in sections 342.85
to 342.98 in the hands of the health-related licensing board receiving the data
as it had in the hands of the office.
Subd. 4. List
of registered facilitators. The
office must post on its website the names of and contact information for
registered facilitators.
Sec. 8. [342.91]
LIMITATIONS.
Nothing in sections
342.85 to 342.98 permits an individual to:
(1) participate in the
program if the individual is under 21 years of age;
(2) sell psilocybin to
an individual or engage in the distribution of psilocybin to anyone not
registered in the program;
(3) establish a
treatment facility on the grounds of a public school, as defined in section
120A.05, subdivisions 9, 11, and 13, or a charter school governed by chapter
124E, including all owned, rented, or leased facilities and all vehicles that a
school district owns, leases, rents, contracts for, or controls;
(4) establish a
treatment facility in a state correctional facility;
(5) if the individual is
a registered facilitator, supervise the administration session of an individual
who is not a registered patient; or
(6) if the individual is
a registered supplier, cultivate psilocybin not intended for the program for
registered patients.
Sec. 9. [342.92]
CRIMINAL AND CIVIL PROTECTIONS.
Subdivision 1. Forfeiture. Psilocybin cultivated or obtained
under sections 342.85 to 342.98 and associated property are not subject to
forfeiture under sections 609.531 to 609.5316.
Subd. 2. Protections
for public employees. Notwithstanding
any law to the contrary, the director of the office, the governor of Minnesota,
or an employee of any state agency may not be held civilly or criminally liable
for any injury, loss of property, personal injury, or death caused by any act or
omission while acting within the scope of their office or employment under
sections 342.85 to 342.98.
Subd. 3. Search
warrant. Federal, state, and
local law enforcement authorities are prohibited from accessing the patient
registry under sections 342.85 to 342.98 except when acting pursuant to a valid
search warrant.
Subd. 4. Evidence
in criminal proceeding. No
information contained in a report, document, or registry or obtained from a
patient or facilitator or physician under sections 342.85 to 342.98 may be
admitted as evidence in a criminal proceeding as evidence of criminal activity
unless independently obtained or in connection with a proceeding involving a
violation of sections 342.85 to 342.98. Any
person who violates this subdivision is guilty of a gross misdemeanor.
Subd. 5. Possession
of registry card or application. The
possession of a registry card or application for enrollment in the program by
an individual entitled to possess a registry card or apply for enrollment in
the program does not constitute probable cause or reasonable suspicion, and
shall not be used to support a search of the person or property of the
individual possessing the registry card or application, or otherwise subject
the person or property of the individual to inspection by any governmental
agency.
Subd. 6. Employment. An employer must not discriminate
against a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator in
hiring, termination, or any term or condition of employment, or otherwise
penalize a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator
based on the lawful cultivation, possession, transportation, provision of
services in preparation sessions or integration sessions, supervision of
administration sessions, or use of psilocybin under sections 342.85 to 342.98,
unless:
(1) the employer's
failure to act would violate federal law or regulations or would cause the
employer to lose a monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or
regulations; or
(2) the registered
patient's use of psilocybin directly impacts the registered patient's job
performance or safety requirements of the registered patient's job position.
Subd. 7. Housing. No landlord may refuse to lease to or
evict a registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator
solely for lawfully engaging in the psilocybin program under sections 342.85 to
342.98, unless the landlord's failure to do so would violate federal law or
regulations or would cause the landlord to lose a monetary or licensing-related
benefit under federal law or regulations.
Subd. 8. Education. No school may refuse to enroll a
registered patient or registered supplier or registered facilitator solely for
lawfully engaging with their respective treatment or duties for the psilocybin
program under sections 342.85 to 342.98, unless the school's failure to do so
would violate federal law or regulations or would cause the school to lose a
monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or regulations.
Subd. 9. Custody;
visitation; parenting time. A
registered patient, registered supplier, or registered facilitator must not be
denied custody of a minor child or visitation rights or parenting time with a
minor child based solely on the registered patient's, registered supplier's, or
registered facilitator's lawful cultivation, possession, transportation,
provision of services in preparation sessions or integration sessions,
supervision of administration sessions, or use of psilocybin under sections
342.85 to 342.98, unless the registered patient's, designated behavior creates
an unreasonable danger to the safety of the minor as demonstrated by clear and
convincing evidence.
Subd. 10. Action
for damages. In addition to
any other remedy provided by law, a registered patient, registered supplier, or
registered facilitator who is injured by a violation of subdivision 6, 7, 8, or
9 may bring an action for damages against a person who violates subdivision 6, 7,
8, or 9. A person who violates
subdivision 6, 7, 8, or 9 is liable to the registered patient, registered
supplier, or registered facilitator injured by the violation for the greater of
the registered patient's, registered supplier's, or registered facilitator's
actual damages or a civil penalty of $100, plus reasonable attorney fees.
In addition to any other
applicable penalty in law, a registered patient, registered supplier, or
registered facilitator who intentionally sells or otherwise transfers
psilocybin to a person other than a registered patient is guilty of a felony
punishable by imprisonment for not more than two years or by payment of a fine
of not more than $3,000, or both.
Sec. 11. [342.94]
PROTECTIONS FOR PHYSICIANS AND REGISTERED FACILITATORS.
Subdivision 1. Physicians. The Board of Medical Practice must not
impose civil or disciplinary penalties on, or limit or condition the practice
of, a physician solely for certifying that an individual has a diagnosis of a
qualifying medical condition according to section 342.87, subdivision 2, or
performing health screenings or additional evaluations according to section
342.87, subdivision 3.
Subd. 2. Registered
facilitators. (a) A
health-related licensing board; the Office of Emergency Medical Services; or
the commissioner of health must not impose civil or disciplinary penalties on,
or limit or condition the practice of, a registered facilitator who also holds
a license, registration, or certification from the health-related licensing
board; Office of Emergency Medical Services; or commissioner solely for
obtaining and transporting psilocybin for registered patients, providing
services to registered patients in preparation sessions and integration
sessions, and administering psilocybin and supervising administration sessions
of registered patients, provided the services are provided or supervision is
performed according to sections 342.85 to 342.98. No existing disciplinary procedures for
complaints to the health-related licensing boards will be changed.
(b) For the purposes of
paragraph (a), the health-related licensing boards include the Board of Medical
Practice, Board of Nursing, Board of Psychology, Board of Social Work, Board of
Marriage and Family Therapy, and Board of Behavioral Health and Therapy.
Sec. 12. [342.95]
PUBLIC EDUCATION AND HARM REDUCTION.
Subdivision 1. Public
education program. The
office, in collaboration with the program research institution, must develop
and implement a public education program that makes information available to
the public on the responsible use of psilocybin, potential risks of using
psilocybin, harm reduction strategies related to psilocybin use, and mental
health resources related to psilocybin use.
A website must be developed and launched with educational content
determined by the research program and advisory committee no later than January
1, 2028.
Subd. 2. Training
programs for first responders. The
office, in collaboration with the program research institution, must develop
and offer training programs for emergency medical responders, ambulance service
personnel, peace officers, and other first responders on best practices for
handling situations involving the use of psilocybin. The training programs must be developed and
offered in coordination with the Office of Emergency Medical Services, the
Peace Officer Standards and Training Board, the Minnesota State Patrol, and
local law enforcement agencies. Trainings
must be developed and available for first responders no later than January 1,
2028.
Sec. 13. [342.96]
DATA PRACTICES; ACCESS TO AND USE OF DATA.
(a) Except for the data
specified in section 342.90, subdivision 4, data submitted to the office under
section 342.87, 342.88, or 342.90:
(1) is private data on
individuals as defined in section 13.02, subdivision 12, or nonpublic data as
defined in section 13.02, subdivision 9; and
(2)
may only be used to comply with chapter 13, to comply with a request from the
legislative auditor or state auditors in the performance of official duties,
and for purposes specified in sections 342.85 to 342.98.
(b) The data specified
in paragraph (a) must not be combined or linked in any manner with any other
list, data set, or database, and must not be shared with any federal agency,
federal department, or federal entity unless specifically ordered by a state or
federal court, or as part of a federally approved research project for
monitoring of the program where a certificate of confidentiality is obtained by
a federal agency to protect the identities of the program registrants.
Sec. 14. [342.97]
FEES.
(a) The office may
collect an annual fee from each patient whose enrollment application or renewal
application is approved by the office.
(b) Notwithstanding
paragraph (a), if the patient provides evidence to the office of receiving
Social Security disability insurance, Supplemental Security Income, or veterans
disability or railroad disability payments, or of being enrolled in medical assistance
or MinnesotaCare, the office may collect an annual fee, in an amount that is
lower than the fee collected under paragraph (a), from the patient after
approving the patient's enrollment application or renewal application.
(c) Fees collected under
this section must be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the state
government special revenue fund. The
office may request appropriations of fee revenue to distribute as grants to
fund Minnesota-based research exploring the effectiveness of psilocybin for
additional conditions, or to provide funding to offset the cost of psilocybin
therapy for low-income patients registered in the program demonstrated by
evidence submitted from paragraph (b).
Sec. 15. [342.98]
PSYCHEDELIC MEDICINE ADVISORY COMMITTEE.
Subdivision 1. Establishment. The office must establish a
Psychedelic Medicine Advisory Committee to advise the office on the operation
of the psilocybin therapeutic use program under sections 342.85 to 342.98.
Subd. 2. Membership. (a) The advisory committee shall
consist of:
(1) ten members with
knowledge or expertise regarding the therapeutic use of psilocybin and other
psychedelic medicines or regarding integration resources associated with the
use of psilocybin, as well as cultivation and testing of psilocybin. The office must make recommendations to the
governor for members appointed under this clause, and the governor must appoint
members under this clause; and
(2) one member
representing Tribal Nations in the state, appointed by the Indian Affairs
Council.
(b) Initial appointments
must be made to the advisory committee by November 1, 2026.
Subd. 3. Chairperson. Members of the advisory committee must
elect a chairperson from among the advisory committee's members.
Subd. 4. Terms;
compensation; removal of members. The
advisory committee is governed by section 15.059, except the advisory committee
does not expire.
Subd. 5. Meetings. The advisory committee must meet at
least four times per year or at the call of the chairperson. The initial meeting of the advisory committee
must occur by December 1, 2026, and must be called by the office.
Subd. 6. Staff
support; office space; equipment. The
office must provide the advisory committee with staff support, office space,
and access to office equipment and services."
Renumber the articles in sequence
Amend the title accordingly
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Smith
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 114 yeas and 15 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Bahner
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gomez
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
McDonald
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Noor
Norris
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Rymer
Schultz
Scott
Sencer-Mura
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Zeleznikar
Those who voted in the negative were:
Backer
Dotseth
Fogelman
Harder
Jacob
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
Olson
Rarick
Robbins
Schomacker
Swedzinski
Wiener
Spk. Demuth
The motion
prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Davis moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 1, delete article 1
Page 15, delete article 2
Page 66, delete article 7
Renumber the articles in sequence
Amend the title accordingly
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Davis
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 66 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
The motion did
not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Mahamoud moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 42, delete section 6
Page 42, delete section 7 and insert:
"Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.056, subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. Period
of eligibility. (a) Eligibility is
available for the month of application and for three months prior to
application if the person was eligible in those prior months. A redetermination of eligibility must
occur every 12 months.
(b) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary:
(1) a child under 19 years of age who is determined eligible for medical assistance must remain eligible for a period of 12 months;
(3) a child under six years of age who is determined eligible for medical assistance must remain eligible through the month in which the child reaches six years of age.
(c) A child's eligibility under paragraph (b) may be terminated earlier if:
(1) the child or the child's representative requests voluntary termination of eligibility;
(2) the child ceases to be a resident of this state;
(3) the child dies;
(4) the child attains the maximum age; or
(5) the agency determines eligibility was erroneously granted at the most recent eligibility determination due to agency error or fraud, abuse, or perjury attributed to the child or the child's representative.
(d) For a person eligible for an insurance affordability program as defined in section 256B.02, subdivision 19, who reports a change that makes the person eligible for medical assistance, eligibility is available for the month the change was reported and for three months prior to the month the change was reported, if the person was eligible in those prior months.
(e) The period of
eligibility for an individual eligible for medical assistance under section
256B.055, subdivision 15, and who is not an American Indian or Alaska Native,
is six months. The period of eligibility
for all other medical assistance enrollees is 12 months.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective January 1, 2027."
Page 55, delete section 13
Page 65, line 14, delete "3,026,000" and insert "18,949,000"
Page 65, delete section 5
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title accordingly
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Mahamoud
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Lee, X., moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Pages 55 to 56, delete sections 14 to 17
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Lee, X.,
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Liebling moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 41, after line 9, insert:
"Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.05, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 6. Duty
to intervene. The
commissioner must require county agencies to report to the commissioner each
month on all missed applications and redetermination deadlines. If a county misses 20 percent of the
deadlines, the county must request the commissioner's assistance in processing
the outstanding applications and redeterminations.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective January 1, 2027."
Page 45, delete section 10 and insert:
"Sec. 10. [256B.0562]
COMMUNITY ENGAGEMENT REQUIREMENTS.
Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) For the purposes of this section,
the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Applicable
individual" means an individual eligible for medical assistance under
section 256B.055, subdivision 15 who is not:
(1) a specifically
excluded individual, which includes medically frail individuals;
(2) a recipient of a
state public assistance program that requires an assessment of a recipient's
ability to work; or
(3) experiencing a
short-term hardship.
(c) "Demonstrate
community engagement" means compliance with the conditions described in
United States Code, title 42, section 1396a(xx)(2).
(d) "Excluded or
exempt individual" means an otherwise applicable individual who is
excluded or exempt from demonstrating community engagement.
(e) "Medically
frail" has the meaning given in United States Code, title 42, section
1396a(xx)(9)(ii)(V), and includes an adult:
(1)
with a dependent child 21 years of age or younger with a disabling mental
disorder, including but not limited to a child with serious emotional
disturbances;
(2) who has a condition described in sections 245G.01, subdivision 23 or
256B.0623, subdivision 3, paragraph (3);
(3) who is a victim of
domestic abuse, as defined in section 518B.01, subdivision 2, or sexual
assault, as is described in sections 609.342 to 609.3451;
(4) who is
developmentally disabled, as defined in Minnesota Rules, part 9525.0016,
subpart 2, items A to E;
(5) who is chronically
homeless, as defined in section 327.30;
(6) who meets the
eligibility criteria under section 256D.05, subdivision 1; or
(7) who has any other
acute or chronic physical, behavioral, or mental health condition or permanent
or temporary illness, injury, or incapacity.
(f) "Reliable data
sources" include but are not limited to any state or federal agency,
medical assistance providers, employers, managed care plans, institutions of
higher learning, job training programs, or financial institutions.
(g) "Specifically
excluded individuals" has the meaning given in United States Code, title
42, section 1396a(xx)(3)(B)(ii).
Subd. 2. Applicable
individuals subject to community engagement requirements. Only applicable individuals are
required to demonstrate community engagement under this section.
Subd. 3. Exclusions. The commissioner must deem an
applicable individual as having demonstrated community engagement for the month
prior to application for medical assistance or any month during the period
between application and redetermination if the applicable individual is a
specifically excluded individual. The
commissioner must accept self-attestation of eligibility for an exclusion under
this subdivision.
Subd. 4. Short-term
hardship exemption. (a) The
commissioner must deem an applicable individual as meeting the community
engagement requirements for a given month if for part or all of the month the
applicable individual:
(1) requests an exemption
on the basis of receiving inpatient hospital services, nursing facility
services, services in an intermediate care facility for persons with
developmental disabilities, inpatient psychiatric hospital services, or such
other services of similar acuity, including but not limited to outpatient care
relating to the above-listed services, in accordance with guidance issued by
the United States Department of Health and Human Services;
(2) requests an exemption
on the basis of having to travel outside of the individual's community for an
extended period of time to receive medical services necessary to treat a
serious or complex medical condition, either for the individual or the individual's
dependent, when the services are not available in the individual's community of
residence;
(3) resides in a county
or equivalent unit of local government in which an emergency or disaster has
been declared under the National Emergencies
Act or the Robert T. Stafford Disaster
Relief and Emergency Assistance Act;
(4) resides in an area
reported in the Local Area Unemployment Statistics published by the Department
of Employment and Economic Development that has an unemployment rate that is at
or above the lesser of eight percent or 1.5 times the national unemployment
rate, and for which the United States Department of Health and Human Services
has granted an exception based on a request from the commissioner; or
(5) is
presumptively eligible for medical assistance under Code of Federal
Regulations, title 42, section 1101 at application or at any time during the
period between acceptance of an application and redetermination.
(b) The commissioner
must accept self-attestation of eligibility for a short-term hardship exemption
under this subdivision.
(c) The commissioner
must request an exception from the United States Department of Health and Human
Services to include the condition listed under paragraph (a), clause (4)
immediately upon this section becoming effective.
Subd. 5. Redetermination
of eligibility for medical assistance.
The commissioner must redetermine eligibility six months
following the acceptance of an application for medical assistance and every six
months thereafter for applicable, excluded, and exempt individuals. Upon redetermination, the commissioner must
deem excluded and exempted individuals as having demonstrated community
engagement in any month between acceptance for medical assistance and the
initial redetermination or during a subsequent six months following a
redetermination.
Subd. 6. Ex
parte verification. (a) The
commissioner must establish an ex parte review process to verify whether an
applicable individual has demonstrated community engagement. The commissioner must rely on information in
the individual case record, data matching, and information obtained through
other reliable data sources.
(b) Notwithstanding
paragraph (a), the commissioner is prohibited from relying on managed care
plans, county-based purchasing plans, or contractors with direct or indirect
financial relationships with managed care or county-based purchasing plans to
make determinations about whether an individual is in compliance with the
community engagement requirements. Nothing
prevents the commissioner from using these sources to determine or redetermine
whether an individual is required to demonstrate community engagement or
whether an individual is an excluded or exempt individual.
(c) If an individual
attests to being excluded or exempt from the requirement to demonstrate
community engagement, the commissioner must follow the ex parte verification
procedure under this subdivision. The
commissioner must not request additional information or documentation from an
applicable, excluded, or exempt individual, unless the commissioner is unable
to make a determination using the information available to the commissioner
from the reliable sources. If the
commissioner is unable to make a determination or redetermination, the
commissioner must provide the individual with a written explanation as to why a
determination was not possible. The
written explanation must include the eligibility information that was available
to the agency and a form on which the individual may submit corrections,
additional information, or a self-attestation of compliance with community
engagement requirements or exclusion or exemption from those requirements.
(d) The commissioner
must develop and maintain an online portal where an individual's information
can be uploaded, viewed, and stored to demonstrate community engagement.
Subd. 7. Noncompliance;
commissioner responsibilities. (a)
If an applicable, excluded, or exempt individual is not able to provide proof
of compliance, exclusion, or exemption, the commissioner must provide notice of
noncompliance and allow the individual 30 calendar days from the date the
notice is received to demonstrate compliance with the requirements or show why
compliance is not required, as applicable.
An enrolled individual continues to be eligible for medical assistance
until there is a final determination that the individual is ineligible for
medical assistance.
(b)
The notice must include information regarding:
(1) how to demonstrate
compliance with or an exclusion or exemption from community engagement
requirements; and
(2) how to reapply for
medical assistance if the individual's application is denied or the individual
is disenrolled.
(c) If the applicable
individual is unable to show compliance with the community engagement
requirements, or show that the individual is excluded or exempted from the
requirements, the commissioner must determine or redetermine whether the
individual has any other basis for eligibility for medical assistance or
another insurance affordability program, and, if eligible, notify the
individual of their eligibility and take steps to transfer the individual to
the program.
(d) If the commissioner
determinates that an individual is subject to but not compliant with the
community engagement requirements after the 30-day period, and is not eligible
for any other program, the commissioner must:
(1) provide written
notice and fair hearing rights in accordance with Code of Federal Regulations,
title 42, part 431, subpart E; and
(2) deny the application
or suspend medical assistance benefits, as applicable, by the end of the month
that follows the 30-day period.
(e) The commissioner
must reinstate medical assistance benefits on the first day of the month
following the month in which the individual demonstrates compliance with the
community engagement requirements.
Subd. 8. Implementation
and outreach. (a) Unless a
delay is requested from and granted by the United States Secretary of Health
and Human Services, the commissioner must implement this section by January 1,
2027.
(b) No later than
September 1, 2026, and subsequently no later than four months prior to an
individual's redetermination date, the commissioner must provide a notice to
applicable individuals that contains the following information:
(1) a definition of
applicable individuals;
(2) a description of
each category of excluded individuals;
(3) a description of
what constitutes a short-term hardship;
(4) how to assert an
exclusion or exemption, including the process to self-attest and what
information must be submitted to demonstrate eligibility for an exclusion or a
short-term hardship exemption;
(5) how to report
changes in status that could result in an individual qualifying to be an
excluded or exempt individual; and
(6) any other
information that the commissioner deems appropriate.
(c) If a delay under
paragraph (a) is requested and granted, the notice must be sent no later than
four months prior to implementation of the requirements under this section.
Subd. 9. Additional
resources for applicants and recipients.
The commissioner must work with counties and nonprofit community
organizations to connect applicable individuals to resources for job training,
employment services, child care assistance, transportation, and requesting
reasonable accommodations or other supports to help applicable individuals
prepare for work."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Liebling
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The motion did
not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Liebling moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 49, after line 28, insert:
"Subd. 8. Limitation
and suspension of implementation and enforcement. (a) The commissioner must implement
and enforce this section only to the extent required under federal law as a
condition of receiving federal financial participation for the medical
assistance program.
(b)
The commissioner must immediately suspend implementation and enforcement of
this section if any one of the following conditions are met:
(1) federal law no
longer requires states to impose work or community engagement requirements as a
condition of receiving federal financial participation for the medical
assistance program;
(2) federal law,
regulation, or federal administrative guidance allows the state to discontinue
enforcement of medical assistance work or community engagement requirements
without the loss, reduction, or withholding of federal financial participation
or any other federal financial penalty; or
(3) the commissioner
determines that the conditions for repeal of this section under subdivision 9
have been met.
(c) If implementation
and enforcement are suspended under paragraph (a), the commissioner must notify
the chairs and ranking members of the committees with jurisdiction over health
and human services finance and policy and the revisor of statutes.
(d) The commissioner
must not enforce the work or community engagement requirements established
under this section if implementation is suspended under this subdivision.
Subd. 9. Contingent
expiration. (a) This section
expires if federal law requiring or authorizing work or community engagement
requirements for individuals eligible for medical assistance, including but not
limited to provisions enacted in Public Law 119-21, is repealed or otherwise no
longer in effect.
(b) The commissioner must determine whether the conditions in paragraph (a) have been met. Upon making that determination, the commissioner must notify the chairs and ranking members of the committees with jurisdiction over health and human services finance and policy and the revisor of statutes."
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
Nadeau moved to amend the Liebling amendment to S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 2, after line 8, insert:
"Page 66, after line 4, insert:
"Sec. 6. TERMINATION
OF EMPLOYEES.
Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, if a provision enacted in Public Law 119-21, subtitle B, chapter 1, is repealed or otherwise no longer in effect for any reason other than reaching a federally required end date, the commissioner must immediately terminate the employment of any Department of Human Services employee whose employment is supported with appropriations in this act and is related to implementation or administration of the provision that is repealed or no longer in effect."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title accordingly"
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Nadeau
amendment to the Liebling amendment and the roll was called. There were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment to the amendment was not adopted.
The question recurred on the Liebling
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Nadeau moved to amend S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 57, after line 24, insert:
"Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.69, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 10a. Data
sharing for program integrity. If
the commissioner receives a written report from a managed care plan that has
reason to believe that a provider, vendor, managed care employee,
subcontractor, or enrollee committed fraud under this chapter or chapter 256L,
the commissioner must provide summary data, as defined in section 13.02,
subdivision 19, from the report to other managed care plans contracted under
this section within ten days of receiving the report. Nothing in this subdivision allows release of
information that is nonpublic data pursuant to section 13.02, subdivision 9.
Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.69, subdivision 37, is amended to read:
Subd. 37. Networks. (a) The commissioner shall ensure that a managed care organization's network providers are enrolled with the commissioner as medical assistance providers, and that the providers comply with the provider disclosure, screening, and enrollment requirements in Code of Federal Regulations, part 42, section 455. A provider that has a network provider contract with the managed care organization is not required to provide services to a medical assistance or MinnesotaCare recipient who is receiving services through the fee-for-service system.
(b) A managed care organization may enter into a network provider contract with a provider that is not a medical assistance provider for a period of up to 120 days pending the outcome of the medical assistance provider enrollment process. A managed care organization must terminate the contract upon notification that the provider cannot be enrolled as a medical assistance provider or upon expiration of the 120-day period if notification has not been received within that period. The managed care organization must notify each affected enrollee of the provider contract termination.
(d) A managed care
organization is not required to include a provider in its network before
approving the provider's credentials in accordance with section 62Q.097.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This
section is effective January 1, 2027.
Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 256B.6928, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Special
contract requirements related to payment.
(a) If the commissioner uses risk-sharing mechanisms, including
reinsurance, risk corridors, or stop-loss limits, the risk-sharing
mechanism must be described in the contract, and must be developed according to
the rate development standards and generally accepted actuarial principles and
practices.
(b) The commissioner
must include risk corridors in managed care organization contracts. The risk corridors must be symmetrical,
two-sided, and uniform for all managed care organizations under contract with
the commissioner and include a settle-up process that occurs within six months
of the end of the plan year.
(b) (c) The
commissioner may utilize incentive payment arrangements in managed care
organization contracts. Any incentive
arrangement utilized by the commissioner must be made available to all managed
care organizations under contract with the commissioner under the same terms of
performance. The payment must not exceed
105 percent of the approved capitation payments attributable to the enrollees
or services covered by the incentive arrangement and must be actuarially sound. For all incentive arrangements the contract
must state that the arrangement is:
(1) for a fixed period of time and performance is measured during the rating period in which the incentive arrangement is applied;
(2) not renewed automatically; and
(3) associated with specified activities, targets, performance measures, or quality-based outcomes in the quality strategy described under section 256B.6927.
The incentive payment arrangement must not condition a managed care organization's participation in the incentive arrangement upon entering into or adhering to an intergovernmental transfer agreement.
(c) (d) The
commissioner may utilize withhold arrangements in managed care organization
contracts. Any withhold arrangement
utilized by the commissioner must be applied to all managed care organizations
under contract with the commissioner under the same terms of performance. Any withhold arrangement must ensure that the
capitation payment minus any portion of the withheld funds that is not
reasonably achievable is actuarially sound.
The total amount of the withheld funds, achievable or not, must be reasonable
and must take into consideration each managed care organization's financial
operating needs, accounting for the size and characteristics of the populations
covered under the contract, as well as the managed care organization's capital
reserves, as measured by the risk based capital level, months of claims
reserve, or other appropriate measure of reserves. The data, assumptions, and methodologies used
to determine the portion of the withhold that is reasonably achievable must be
submitted as part of the documentation required by Code of Federal Regulations,
part 42, section 438.7, paragraph (b), clause (6). For all withhold arrangements, the contract
must state that the arrangement is:
(2) not renewed automatically; and
(3) associated with specified activities, targets, performance measures, or quality-based outcomes in the state's quality strategy.
The withhold payment arrangement must not condition a managed care organization's participation in the withhold arrangement upon entering into or adhering to an intergovernmental transfer agreement.
EFFECTIVE DATE. This section is effective January 1, 2027."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title accordingly
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Nadeau
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Backer offered an amendment to
S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended.
POINT OF
ORDER
Long raised a point of order pursuant to
rule 3.21 that the Backer amendment was not in order. Speaker pro tempore Olson ruled the point of
order well taken and the Backer amendment out of order.
Niska appealed the decision of Speaker pro
tempore Olson.
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The vote was taken on the question
"Shall the decision of Speaker pro tempore Olson stand as the judgment of
the House?" and the roll was called.
There were 68 yeas and 66 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Schomacker
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
So it was the judgment of the House that
the decision of Speaker pro tempore Olson should stand.
Zeleznikar offered an amendment to
S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended.
POINT OF
ORDER
Long raised a point of order pursuant to
rule 3.21 that the Zeleznikar amendment was not in order. Speaker pro tempore Olson ruled the point of
order well taken and the Zeleznikar amendment out of order.
Niska appealed the decision of Speaker
pro tempore Olson.
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The vote was taken on the question
"Shall the decision of Speaker pro tempore Olson stand as the judgment of
the House?" and the roll was called.
There were 70 yeas and 64 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Fogelman
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Schomacker
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
So it was the judgment of the House that
the decision of Speaker pro tempore Olson should stand.
Bierman offered an amendment to
S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended.
POINT OF
ORDER
Niska raised a point of order pursuant to
rule 3.21 and 4.03, relating to Ways and Means Committee; Budget Resolution;
Effect on Expenditure and Revenue Bills, that the Bierman amendment was not in
order. Speaker pro tempore Olson ruled
the point of order well taken and the Bierman amendment out of order.
Kotyza-Witthuhn offered an amendment to
S. F. No. 4612, the third engrossment, as amended.
POINT OF
ORDER
Niska raised a point of order pursuant to
rule 3.21 that the Kotyza-Witthuhn amendment was not in order. Speaker pro tempore Olson ruled the point of
order well taken and the Kotyza-Witthuhn amendment out of order.
S. F. No. 4612, A bill for
an act relating to state government; modifying provisions relating to the
Departments of Health, Human Services, and Children, Youth, and Families;
making changes for federal compliance; establishing work or community
engagement requirements; providing for pharmacy dispensing reimbursements;
modifying reimbursement rates for mental health services; modifying mental
health provider credentialing requirements; modifying the county share for
Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program costs; modernizing child care and
family child care licensing; modifying the Minnesota African American Family
Preservation and Child Welfare Disproportionality Act; establishing a
committee, legislative commission, and advisory task force; establishing a
hospital stabilization program; transferring regulatory oversight of health
maintenance organizations to the commissioner of commerce; requiring coverage
of infertility treatment; regulating gas resource development; providing for
health care worker retention and protection; requiring reports; authorizing
rulemaking; requiring transfer; appropriating money; amending Minnesota
Statutes 2024, sections 16A.103, by adding a subdivision; 60A.50, subdivision
3; 60A.951, subdivision 3; 60A.985, subdivision 8; 60A.9853, subdivision 1;
60A.9854; 60B.03, subdivision 2; 60G.01, subdivisions 2, 4; 62A.02, subdivision
8; 62A.021, subdivision 1; 62A.61; 62A.65, subdivisions 7, 8; 62D.08,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 7; 62D.12, subdivision 1; 62D.124, subdivision 5;
62D.221, subdivisions 1, 2; 62E.11, subdivisions 9, 13; 62J.60, subdivision 5;
62L.02, subdivision 8; 62L.08, subdivision 11; 62L.09, subdivision 3; 62L.10,
subdivision 4; 62L.11, subdivision 2; 62M.11; 62Q.01, subdivision 2; 62Q.096;
62Q.106; 62Q.188, subdivision 2; 62Q.37, subdivision 2; 62Q.47; 62Q.51,
subdivision 3; 62Q.556, subdivisions 3, 4; 62Q.679; 62Q.69, subdivisions 2, 3;
62Q.71; 62Q.73, subdivisions 3, 10; 62Q.81, subdivision 7; 62U.04, subdivision
13, by adding a subdivision; 103I.001; 103I.005, subdivisions 9, 21, by adding
subdivisions; 103I.601, subdivision 1, by adding subdivisions; 142D.21,
subdivision 3; 142F.05, by adding subdivisions; 144.1222, subdivision 4, by
adding a subdivision; 144.1501, subdivision 2; 144.1503, subdivision 7;
144.1505, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 144.1507, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, by adding a
subdivision; 144.1911, subdivisions 1, 5, 6; 144.555, by adding subdivisions;
145A.14, subdivision 2a; 151.741, subdivision 4; 245.462, by adding a
subdivision; 245.4711, subdivision 5; 245.4881, subdivision 5; 245A.211,
subdivision 1; 256.01, by adding a subdivision; 256.017, subdivision 2;
256B.01; 256B.04, subdivision 27; 256B.056, subdivisions 1, 2a, 7, 7a;
256B.0561, subdivision 2; 256B.06, subdivision 4; 256B.0625, by adding a
subdivision; 256B.076, subdivision 1, by adding subdivisions; 256B.094,
subdivisions 2, 3, 6; 256B.75; 260.63, subdivision 10; 260.64, subdivision 2;
260.67, subdivision 2; 260.68, subdivision 2; 260.69, subdivision 1; 260.693,
subdivision 2; 260C.451, by adding a subdivision; 295.52, subdivision 8;
Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 62D.21; 62D.211; 142A.03,
subdivision 2; 144.125, subdivision 1; 151.741, subdivision 5; 245A.07,
subdivision 3; 245C.02, subdivision 15a; 245C.05, subdivision 5; 256.043,
subdivision 3; 256.9657, subdivision 2b; 256.969, subdivision 2f; 256B.0625,
subdivisions 8, 20; 256B.0924, subdivision 6; 256B.1973, subdivision 9;
256B.69, subdivision 6d; 256B.761, by adding a subdivision; 260.691,
subdivision 1; 260.692, subdivisions 1, 2, 3; Laws 2024, chapter 117, sections
21; 22; Laws 2024, chapter 127, article 67, section 7; proposing coding for new
law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 62D; 62Q; 103I; 142D; 144; 245A; 256; 256B;
260; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapters 142H; 142I;
repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 142B.01, subdivisions 11, 12, 13,
25, 26, 27; 142B.41, subdivisions 4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 13; 142B.54,
subdivisions 1, 2, 3; 142B.62; 142B.65, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 10;
142B.66, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5; 142B.70, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9,
10, 11, 12; 142B.71; 142B.72; 142B.74; 142B.75; 142B.76; 142B.77; 151.741,
subdivisions 2, 3, 6; 256B.0625, subdivision 38; 256B.198; 260.63, subdivision
9; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 142B.41, subdivision 9;
142B.65, subdivisions 8, 9; 142B.66, subdivision 3; 142B.70, subdivisions 7, 8;
256B.69, subdivision 6i; Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0300; 9502.0315;
9502.0325; 9502.0335; 9502.0341; 9502.0345; 9502.0355; 9502.0365; 9502.0367;
9502.0375; 9502.0395;
9502.0405; 9502.0415; 9502.0425;
9502.0435, subparts 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16;
9502.0445; 9503.0005; 9503.0010; 9503.0015; 9503.0030; 9503.0031; 9503.0032;
9503.0033; 9503.0034; 9503.0040; 9503.0045; 9503.0050; 9503.0055; 9503.0060;
9503.0065; 9503.0070; 9503.0075; 9503.0080; 9503.0085; 9503.0090; 9503.0095;
9503.0100; 9503.0105; 9503.0110; 9503.0115; 9503.0120; 9503.0125; 9503.0130;
9503.0140; 9503.0145; 9503.0150; 9503.0155; 9503.0170.
The bill was read for the third time, as
amended, and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 69 yeas and 63 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bierman
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Huot
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, X.
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Reyer
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davis
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Roach
Sencer-Mura
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
The
bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
H. F. No. 3682 was reported
to the House.
Greenman moved to amend H. F. No. 3682, the second engrossment, as follows:
Page 2, after line 16, insert:
"Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16B.981, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Definitions. (a) As used in this section, the following terms have the meanings given.
(b) "Grant" means a grant of $50,000 or more as defined in section 16B.97, subdivision 1, paragraph (a); or business subsidy of $50,000 or more as defined in section 116J.994, subdivision 3, paragraph (b).
(d) "Related entity" means:
(1) a firm, partnership, corporation,
joint venture, or other legal entity substantially under the control of a
potential grantee;
(2) a subsidiary of a potential
grantee;
(3) a person, firm, partnership,
corporation, joint venture, or other legal entity that substantially controls a
potential grantee; or
(4) an entity that shares three or more
of the following characteristics with a potential grantee:
(i) has one or more of the same owners,
principals, officers, or managers;
(ii) has one or more of the same
telephone or fax numbers;
(iii) has one or more of the same email
addresses, business addresses, or websites;
(iv) employs or engages substantially
the same individuals;
(v) utilizes substantially the same
vehicles, facilities, or equipment; or
(vi) lists or advertises substantially
the same project experience and portfolio of work.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16B.981, subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Financial information required; determination of ability to perform. For grants of $50,000 or more and subject to sections 16B.97 and 16B.98, before an agency awards a competitive, legislatively named, single-source, or sole-source grant, the agency must receive the certification required under subdivision 2b and complete a preaward risk assessment to assess the risk that a potential grantee cannot or would not perform the required duties. In making this assessment, the agency must review the following information as applicable:
(1) the potential grantee's history of performing duties similar to those required by the grant, whether the grant requires the potential grantee to perform services at a significantly increased scale, and whether the grant will require significant changes to the operation of the potential grantee's organization;
(2) for a potential grantee that is a nonprofit organization, the potential grantee's most recent Form 990 or Form 990-EZ filed with the Internal Revenue Service. If the potential grantee has not been in existence long enough or is not required to file Form 990 or Form 990-EZ, the potential grantee must demonstrate to the agency's satisfaction that the potential grantee is exempt and must instead submit the potential grantee's most recent board-reviewed financial statements and documentation of internal controls or, if there is no such board, by the applicant's managing group;
(3) for a potential grantee that is a for-profit business, the potential grantee's most recent federal and state tax returns, current financial statements, certification that the business is not under bankruptcy proceedings, and disclosure of any liens on its assets. If a business has not been in business long enough to have a tax return, the grantee must demonstrate to the agency's satisfaction that the grantee has appropriate internal financial controls;
(4) evidence of good
standing with the secretary of state under chapter317A, or other
applicable law;
(5) (4) if the potential
grantee is required to complete an audit under section 309.53, subdivision 3,
the potential grantee's most recent audit report performed by an independent
third party in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles; and
(6) (5) certification,
provided by the potential grantee, that none of its current principals have
been convicted of a felony financial crime in the last ten years. For this section, a principal is defined as a
public official, a board member, or staff with the authority to access funds
provided by this agency or determine how those funds are used.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16B.981, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 2a. Minimum
eligibility criteria. (a) In
addition to any eligibility criteria specific to the grant program, a potential
grantee must certify compliance, as provided under subdivision 2b, with all of
the following minimum criteria:
(1) be in good standing with the Office
of the Secretary of State, as defined by section 5.26, if applicable;
(2) possess a valid federal tax
identification number or a valid Social Security number if an individual;
(3) be in compliance with Department of
Revenue registration requirements if the potential grantee has employees;
(4) be up to date with all required tax
filings and payments, including estimated tax filings, with the federal
Internal Revenue Service and the Department of Revenue;
(5) be in compliance with workers'
compensation requirements under chapter 176, unemployment insurance
requirements under chapter 268, and paid leave requirements under chapter 268B;
(6) be in compliance, both currently
and during the three-year period before submitting the certification, with the
applicable requirements in sections 177.24, 177.25, 177.41 to 177.44, 181.03,
181.101, and 181.722, and not have violated United States Code, title 29,
sections 201 to 219, or United States Code, title 40, sections 3141 to 3148. For the purposes of this clause, a violation
occurs when a potential grantee:
(i) repeatedly fails to pay statutorily
required wages or penalties on one or more separate projects for a total
underpayment of $25,000 or more within the three-year period, provided that a
failure to pay is "repeated" only if it involves two or more separate
and distinct occurrences of underpayment during the three-year period;
(ii) has been found by the commissioner
of labor and industry to have repeatedly or willfully violated any of the
sections referenced in this clause pursuant to section 177.27;
(iii) has been issued a ruling or
findings of underpayment by the administrator of the Wage and Hour Division of
the United States Department of Labor that have become final or have been
upheld by an administrative law judge or the Administrative Review Board; or
(iv) has been found liable for
underpayment of wages or penalties or misrepresenting a worker as an
independent contractor in an action brought in a court having jurisdiction;
(7) be in compliance with, both
currently and during the three-year period before submitting the certification,
section 181.723. For the purposes of
this clause, a violation occurs when a potential grantee has been issued a
final administrative order;
(8) none of the
potential grantee's owners, officers, directors, managers, controlling parties,
or related entities were convicted of violating section 609.445, 609.465,
609.466, 609.52, 609.611, 609.651, 609.7475, or 609.821, a substantially
similar federal law or law of another state, or another offense indicating a
lack of integrity or honesty that affects responsibility as a potential
grantee; and
(9) the potential grantee or related
entity is not currently suspended, debarred, or formerly debarred and not
reinstated by the federal government, the state, or any department, agency, or
political subdivision of the state with authority to debar a vendor or
contractor.
(b) For the purposes of this
subdivision, any violation, suspension, revocation, sanction, conviction, or
noncompliance of a related entity must be treated as the potential grantee's
violation, suspension, revocation, sanction, conviction, or noncompliance.
(c) Any violation, suspension,
revocation, sanction, conviction, or noncompliance included in this subdivision
and occurring at least 36 months prior to the date that the certification is
submitted under subdivision 2b must not be considered in determining whether a
potential grantee meets the minimum criteria.
Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16B.981, is amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 2b. Verification
of compliance. (a) A
potential grantee must submit to the head of the granting agency a statement
signed under oath by an owner or officer certifying compliance with all of the
minimum criteria in subdivision 2a.
(b) An agency head may accept a signed
statement under oath as sufficient to demonstrate that a potential grantee is
in compliance with subdivision 2a. The
agency head is not liable for awarding the potential grantee a grant in
reasonable reliance on such statement.
(c) A potential grantee that fails to
certify compliance with any one of the required minimum criteria or makes a
false statement under oath in a certification of compliance is ineligible to
receive the grant.
(d) A false statement under oath
certifying compliance with any of the minimum criteria may result in
termination of eligibility or termination of a grant agreement that has already
been entered.
(e) An agency head is not liable for
declining to enter a grant agreement or terminating a grant agreement based on
a reasonable determination that the potential grantee failed to certify
compliance with the minimum criteria or falsely stated that the potential
grantee meets the minimum criteria.
(f) A certification of compliance need
not be notarized and may be provided electronically if it contains an
electronic signature as defined in section 325L.02, paragraph (h).
Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, section 16B.981, subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Agency authority to not award grant. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (f), if, while performing the required steps in subdivision 2 and pursuant to sections 16B.97, 16B.98, and 16B.991, the agency requires additional information to determine whether there is a substantial risk that the potential grantee cannot or would not perform the required duties of the grant agreement, the agency must give the grantee 15 calendar days within which the grantee can respond to the agency for the purpose of satisfying the agency's concerns or work with the agency to develop a plan to satisfy the concerns.
(c) If, pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b), the agency does not award a competitive, single-source, or sole-source grant, the agency must provide notification to the grantee and the commissioner of administration of the determination. The notification to the grantee must include the agency's reason for postponing or forgoing the grant, including information sufficient to explain and support the agency's decision, and notify the applicant of the process for contesting the agency's decision under paragraph (d).
(d) The final decision by an agency under paragraph (c) may be challenged as a contested case under chapter 14. The contested case proceeding must be initiated within 30 calendar days of the date of written notification of a final decision by the agency.
(e) If, pursuant to paragraphs (a) and (b) or (f), the agency does not award a legislatively named grant, the agency must delay award of the grant until adjournment of the next regular or special legislative session for action from the legislature. The agency must provide notification to the potential grantee, the commissioner of administration, and the chairs and ranking minority members of the Ways and Means Committee in the house of representatives and the chairs and ranking minority members of the Finance Committee in the senate. The notification to the grantee must include the agency's reason for postponing or forgoing the grant, including information sufficient to explain and support the agency's decision and notify the applicant of the process for contesting the agency's decision under paragraph (d). The notification to the commissioner of administration and legislators must identify the legislatively named potential grantee and the agency's reason for postponing or forgoing the grant. After hearing the concerns of the agency, the legislature may reaffirm the award of the grant or reappropriate the funds to a different legislatively named grantee. Based on the action of the legislature, the agency must award the grant to the legislatively named grantee. If the legislature does not provide direction to the agency on the disposition of the grant, the funds revert to the original appropriation source.
(f) The agency must not award a grant to any potential grantee that does not submit the certification of compliance required under subdivision 2b."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title as follows:
Page 1, line 3, before "appropriating" insert "enhancing minimum eligibility criteria for state grants; requiring sworn certification of compliance;"
Correct the title numbers accordingly
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Greenman
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 67 yeas and 67 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Those who voted in the negative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Baker
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
McDonald
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schultz
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
motion did not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
Baker, McDonald and Schultz were excused
for the remainder of today's session.
H. F. No. 3682, A bill for
an act relating to state government; requiring a grantee fraud risk rating
system and corresponding grants management requirements; appropriating money;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 16B.97, subdivision 4.
The bill was read for the third time and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 128 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bahner
Bakeberg
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Fogelman
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jones
Jordan
Joy
Keeler
Klevorn
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Koznick
Kraft
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Noor
Norris
Novotny
O'Driscoll
Olson
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schwartz
Scott
Sencer-Mura
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Wolgamott
Youakim
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
bill was passed and its title agreed to.
O'Driscoll was excused for the remainder
of today's session.
H. F. No. 3295 was reported
to the House.
Gordon moved to amend H. F. No. 3295, the first engrossment, as follows:
Page 1, delete lines 16 and 17 and insert:
"(b) A public body is not required to offer a social media comment feature during a broadcast authorized under this subdivision. If a social media comment feature is offered as a part of the broadcast, comments posted by members of the public are not considered government records under section 15.17 or 138.17, and the comments must not be recorded in the journal or minutes of the public body. Comments posted in a social media comment feature during a broadcast under this subdivision must not be considered comments for purposes of a public comment period during the meeting."
Page 2, line 2, after the period, insert "If a social media comment feature will be offered as part of the broadcast, the notice must state that comments posted by members of the public are not public testimony for purposes of a public comment period offered during the meeting."
A roll call was requested and properly
seconded.
The question was taken on the Gordon
amendment and the roll was called. There
were 62 yeas and 68 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Bennett
Bliss
Burkel
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fogelman
Franson
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Harder
Heintzeman
Hudson
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
Mekeland
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Novotny
Olson
Perryman
Quam
Rarick
Repinski
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schwartz
Sexton
Skraba
Stier
Swedzinski
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Bahner
Berg
Bierman
Buck
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Elkins
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gomez
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Huot
Hussein
Johnson, P.
Jones
Jordan
Keeler
Klevorn
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Noor
Norris
Pérez-Vega
Pinto
Pursell
Rehm
Rehrauer
Reyer
Scott
Sencer-Mura
Smith
Stephenson
Tabke
Vang
Virnig
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
The motion did
not prevail and the amendment was not adopted.
H. F. No. 3295, A bill for
an act relating to Open Meeting Law; authorizing meeting broadcasting through
social media; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 13D.065.
The bill was read for the third time and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 125 yeas and 5 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bahner
Bakeberg
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Finke
Fischer
Fogelman
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gomez
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jones
Jordan
Joy
Keeler
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Koznick
Kraft
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Norris
Novotny
Olson
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schwartz
Sencer-Mura
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Wolgamott
Youakim
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Feist
Klevorn
Noor
Scott
Xiong
The
bill was passed and its title agreed to.
H. F. No. 3298, A bill for
an act relating to energy; establishing reimbursement program for underground
petroleum storage tank systems with pressurized single-walled steel piping;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 115C.08, subdivision 4; 115C.09, by
adding a subdivision.
The bill was read for the third time and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 128 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bahner
Bakeberg
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gomez
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jones
Jordan
Joy
Keeler
Klevorn
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Koznick
Kraft
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Noor
Norris
Novotny
Olson
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schwartz
Scott
Sencer-Mura
Sexton
Skraba
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
bill was passed and its title agreed to.
H. F. No. 3131, A bill for
an act relating to transportation; authorizing issuance of cancer-related
disability parking certificates; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section
169.345, subdivisions 2a, 3b, by adding a subdivision.
The bill was read for the third time and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 130 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bahner
Bakeberg
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Fogelman
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gomez
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jones
Jordan
Joy
Keeler
Klevorn
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Koznick
Kraft
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Noor
Norris
Novotny
Olson
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schwartz
Scott
Sencer-Mura
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
The
bill was passed and its title agreed to.
Jones was excused for the remainder of
today's session.
H. F. No. 4102, A bill for
an act relating to public safety; modifying requirements for State Patrol
compensation study; allowing for volunteer chaplains within the state patrol;
amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 299D.03, subdivisions 2, 2a; Laws
2024, chapter 104, article 1, section 2; proposing coding for new law in
Minnesota Statutes, chapter 299D.
The bill was read for the third time and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 100 yeas and 19 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bakeberg
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Davis
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Engen
Fischer
Fogelman
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gordon
Gottfried
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Joy
Knudsen
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Koznick
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, X.
Lillie
Long
Mekeland
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Murphy
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Norris
Novotny
Olson
Perryman
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Roach
Robbins
Rymer
Schomacker
Schwartz
Scott
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
Warwas
West
Wiener
Witte
Wolgamott
Zeleznikar
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Acomb
Buck
Elkins
Falconer
Finke
Gomez
Greene
Hanson, J.
Jordan
Keeler
Koegel
Kozlowski
Kraft
Lee, K.
Liebling
Luger-Nikolai
Pinto
Xiong
Youakim
The
bill was passed and its title agreed to.
H. F. No. 4591 was reported
to the House.
Klevorn moved to amend H. F. No. 4591 as follows:
Page 1, after line 5, insert:
"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 2024, section 129D.13, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Distribution. The commissioner shall distribute the
money provided by sections 129D.11 to 129D.13.
Annually the commissioner shall make block grants which shall be
distributed in equal amounts to public stations for operational costs. The commissioner shall allocate money
appropriated for the purposes of sections 129D.11 to 129D.13 in such a manner
that each eligible public station receives a block grant. In addition, the commissioner shall make
matching grants to public stations. Matching
grants shall be used for operational costs and shall be allocated using the
procedure developed for distribution of state money under this section for
grants made in fiscal year 1979. No
station's matching grant in any fiscal year shall exceed the amount of
Minnesota-based contributions received by that station in the previous fiscal
year. Grants made pursuant to this
subdivision may only be given to those federally licensed stations that are
were certified as eligible for community service grants through the
Corporation for Public Broadcasting in 2024. Grant funds not expended by a station during
the first year of the biennium do not cancel and may be carried over into the
second fiscal year."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title as follows:
Page 1, line 2, after "for" insert "public television station block grants and"
Correct the title numbers accordingly
The
motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
H. F. No. 4591, A bill for
an act relating to state government; modifying eligibility for noncommercial
radio station grants; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024,
section 129D.14, subdivision 3.
The bill was read for the third time, as
amended, and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of
the bill and the roll was called. There
were 120 yeas and 4 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Acomb
Agbaje
Allen
Altendorf
Anderson, P. E.
Anderson, P. H.
Backer
Bahner
Bakeberg
Bennett
Berg
Bierman
Bliss
Buck
Burkel
Carroll
Cha
Clardy
Coulter
Curran
Davids
Dippel
Dotseth
Duran
Elkins
Engen
Falconer
Feist
Finke
Fischer
Franson
Frazier
Frederick
Freiberg
Gander
Gillman
Gomez
Gordon
Gottfried
Greene
Greenman
Hansen, R.
Hanson, J.
Harder
Heintzeman
Hicks
Hill
Hollins
Howard
Hudson
Huot
Hussein
Igo
Jacob
Johnson, P.
Johnson, W.
Jordan
Joy
Keeler
Klevorn
Knudsen
Koegel
Kotyza-Witthuhn
Kozlowski
Koznick
Kraft
Kresha
Lawrence
Lee, F.
Lee, K.
Lee, X.
Liebling
Lillie
Long
Luger-Nikolai
Mahamoud
Moller
Momanyi-Hiltsley
Mueller
Myers
Nadeau
Nash
Nelson
Niska
Noor
Norris
Novotny
Olson
Pérez-Vega
Perryman
Pinto
Pursell
Quam
Rarick
Rehm
Rehrauer
Repinski
Reyer
Robbins
Rymer
Schwartz
Scott
Sencer-Mura
Sexton
Skraba
Smith
Stephenson
Stier
Swedzinski
Tabke
Torkelson
Van Binsbergen
Vang
Virnig
West
Witte
Wolgamott
Xiong
Youakim
Spk. Demuth
Those who voted in the negative were:
Davis
Fogelman
Roach
Wiener
The
bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
There being no objection, the order of
business reverted to Messages from the Senate.
MESSAGES FROM
THE SENATE
The
following messages were received from the Senate:
Madam Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate accedes to the request of the House for the appointment of a Conference Committee on the amendments adopted by the Senate to the following House File:
H. F. No. 1141, A bill for an act relating to housing; establishing a supplemental budget for the Minnesota Housing Finance Agency; authorizing the issuance of housing infrastructure bonds; modifying the authority of the Minnesota Housing Finance Agency over the housing development fund; requiring reports; transferring money;
The Senate has appointed as such committee:
Senators Port, Boldon and Lucero.
Said House File is herewith returned to the House.
Thomas S. Bottern, Secretary of the Senate
Madam Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate accedes to the request of the House for the appointment of a Conference Committee on the amendments adopted by the Senate to the following House File:
H. F. No. 4188, A bill for an act relating to commerce; modifying various consumer protections for insurance and financial products; prohibiting virtual-currency kiosks; modifying various provisions governing securities broker-dealers and broker-dealers' agents; making technical changes to various provisions governed or administered by the Department of Commerce; modifying and adding provisions governing unclaimed property; providing penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 46.044, subdivision 1; 48.195; 49.37; 53B.69, subdivision 10; 58.14, subdivisions 3, 4, 5, by adding a subdivision; 58.18, subdivision 4; 58B.02, by adding subdivisions; 58B.03, subdivisions 10, 11; 58B.051; 58B.06, subdivisions 4, 6; 60A.13, subdivisions 1, 6; 72A.061, subdivision 5; 72A.18, subdivision 2, by adding subdivisions; 72A.20, subdivision 2, by adding a subdivision; 80A.50; 80A.69; 80C.12, subdivision 1; 80G.01, subdivision 5a; 325E.21, subdivisions 1b, 2c; 332.32; 345.31, by adding a subdivision; 345.43, by adding a subdivision; Minnesota Statutes 2025 Supplement, sections 58B.02, subdivision 8a; 80A.66; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 53B; 80A; 82B; 82C; 345; repealing Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 48.158; 53B.69, subdivisions 3b, 3c; 53B.75, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
The Senate has appointed as such committee:
Senators Klein, Seeberger, Frentz and Duckworth.
Said House File is herewith returned to the House.
Thomas S. Bottern, Secretary of the Senate
Madam Speaker:
I hereby announce the Senate refuses to concur in the House amendments to the following Senate File:
S. F. No. 3432, A bill for an act relating to public safety; requiring removal of identifying equipment and insignia from emergency vehicles sold to the public; providing for security and protective services of certain state officials; requiring a report; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 2024, sections 299D.03,
The Senate respectfully requests that a Conference Committee be appointed thereon. The Senate has appointed as such committee:
Senators Latz, Dibble, Xiong, Westlin and Kreun.
Said Senate File is herewith transmitted to the House with the request that the House appoint a like committee.
Thomas S. Bottern, Secretary of the Senate
Moller moved that the House accede to the
request of the Senate and that the Speaker appoint a Conference Committee of 6
members of the House to meet with a like committee appointed by the Senate on
the disagreeing votes of the two houses on S. F. No. 3432. The motion prevailed.
ANNOUNCEMENT
BY THE SPEAKER
The Speaker announced the appointment of
the following members of the House to a Conference Committee on
S. F. No. 3432:
Moller, Liebling, Curran, Novotny, Scott
and Olson.
MOTIONS AND
RESOLUTIONS
Huot moved that the name of Gillman be
added as an author on H. F. No. 82. The motion prevailed.
Norris moved that the name of Johnson, P.,
be added as an author on H. F. No. 1338. The motion prevailed.
Norris moved that the name of Pinto be
added as an author on H. F. No. 2354. The motion prevailed.
Elkins moved that the name of Virnig be
added as an author on H. F. No. 2700. The motion prevailed.
Greenman moved that the name of
Kotyza-Witthuhn be added as an author on H. F. No. 3093. The motion prevailed.
Anderson, P. E., moved that the name of
Koznick be added as an author on H. F. No. 3563. The motion prevailed.
Myers moved that the name of
Kotyza-Witthuhn be added as an author on H. F. No. 3579. The motion prevailed.
Gander moved that the name of Finke be
added as an author on H. F. No. 3586. The motion prevailed.
Coulter moved that the name of Finke be
added as an author on H. F. No. 3624. The motion prevailed.
Witte moved that the name of Bakeberg be
added as an author on H. F. No. 3816. The motion prevailed.
Greenman moved that the name of Virnig be
added as an author on H. F. No. 4077. The motion prevailed.
Zeleznikar moved that the name of
Kozlowski be added as an author on H. F. No. 5036
Huot moved that the name of Johnson, P.,
be added as an author on H. F. No. 5082. The motion prevailed.
Frazier moved that
S. F. No. 334 be recalled from the Committee on Education Policy
and be re-referred to the Committee on Ways and Means. The motion prevailed.
ADJOURNMENT
Niska moved that when the House adjourns
today it adjourn until 11:00 a.m., Monday, May 11, 2026. The motion prevailed.
Niska moved that the House adjourn. The motion prevailed, and Speaker pro tempore
Olson declared the House stands adjourned until 11:00 a.m., Monday, May 11,
2026.
Patrick
Duffy Murphy, Chief
Clerk, House of Representatives